Genitourinary/Reproductive System (Exam Two) Flashcards

1
Q

List the female hormones.

A
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone
  • Luteinizing hormone
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Inhibin
  • Prolactin
  • Oxytocin
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2
Q

List the male hormones.

A
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone
  • Luteinizing hormone
  • Testosterone
  • Inhibin
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3
Q

Which hormones are specific to females?

A
  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Prolactin
  • Oxytocin
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4
Q

Which hormones are specific to males?

A

-Testosterone

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5
Q

What is included in an obstetrical history?

A
  • Gravida
  • Para
  • Abortions
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6
Q

What is gravida?

A

Number of pregnancies regardless of the outcome

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7
Q

What is para?

A

-Number of births after 20 weeks gestation regardless if live and stillborn births

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8
Q

What is abortion?

A

-Number of pregnancies terminated before 20 weeks gestation regardless if therapeutic or miscarriage

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9
Q

A 39 year old female has had five pregnancies: two sets of twins born at 38 and 39 weeks gestation, a single birth born at 32 weeks gestation, a miscarriage at 16 weeks, and one 21-week stillborn delivery. How will the nurse record this information?

A

G5
P4
A1

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10
Q

How often should a breast self-examination be performed? At what time of the month should it be performed?

A
  • Monthly

- One week after each menstrual period

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11
Q

At what age should a women begin to get a yearly mammogram screening?

A

Age 40

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12
Q

How often should a testicular self-examination be performed? At what time of the month should it be performed?

A
  • Monthly

- After a warm bath or shower

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13
Q

What is mastitis? What can it cause if left untreated?

A
  • Clogged milk-ducts

- Sepsis

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14
Q

What are the risk factors for developing breast cancer?

A
  • Estrogen treatment
  • Early menarche (menstruation)
  • Late menopause
  • Late/No pregnancies
  • No breastfeeding
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15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of breast cancer?

A
  • Lump or thickening
  • Dimpling
  • Clear or bloody discharge
  • Swelling
  • Tenderness
  • Discoloration
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16
Q

What is the best way to prevent breast cancer?

A

Early identification

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17
Q

How is breast cancer definitively diagnosed?

A

Biopsy

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18
Q

What are the treatment options for breast cancer?

A
  • Lumpectomy
  • Mastectomy
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
  • Hormonal therapy
  • Targeted therapies
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19
Q

What is removed during a simple mastectomy?

A

Breast tissue

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20
Q

What is removed during a radical mastectomy?

A

All muscle and lymph nodes

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21
Q

If a patient presents with a new onset of dysmenorrhea, what should the nurse do?

A

Notify the health care provider

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22
Q

If a patient has any noticeable changes in menstruation or presents with any abnormal signs/symptoms, what should they do?

A

Notify the health care provider

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23
Q

What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A

Combination of symptoms that present in the week or two before a menstruation cycle

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24
Q

What is the priority intervention for premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A

Limitation of alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, salt, and simple sugars

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25
Q

What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?

A

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) with accompanying signs and symptoms of depression

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26
Q

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is commonly associated with what?

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

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27
Q

What is endometriosis? Is it acute or chronic?

A
  • Endometrial tissue growth outside of the uterus

- Chronic

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28
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of endometriosis?

A
  • Scar tissue
  • Infertility
  • Pain
  • Swelling
  • Organ damage
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29
Q

What should the nurse closely monitor if a patient has endometriosis?

A

Use of pain medications

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30
Q

What is menopause?

A

Permanent cessation of menstrual cycle

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31
Q

A woman is considered to have reached menopause once she has what?

A

Gone a full year without a menstrual cycle

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32
Q

What are the treatment options available to women in menopause?

A
  • Healthy diet
  • Vaginal lubricant (water-soluable)
  • Dress in layered clothing
  • Calcium/Vitamin D
  • Dietary phytoestrogens
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33
Q

How would the nurse describe the characteristics of candidiasis to a patient? What causes candidiasis?

A
  • Distinct cottage-cheese appearance

- Prolonged antibiotic use

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34
Q

A patient describes having very foul smelling vaginal discharge that has not gone away after using an OTC medication, the nurse knows the patient most likely has?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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35
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome?

A

Systemic infection caused by staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus bacteria

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36
Q

What can cause toxic shock syndrome?

A
  • Prolonged or highly absorbent tampon use

- Other types of vaginal packing

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37
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?

A
  • Redness of palms and soles
  • Rash
  • Blisters
  • Petechiae
  • Sore throat
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38
Q

A patient in the ER has been diagnosed with toxic shock syndrome, the nurse knows she will need what?

A

Immediate antibiotic treatment

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39
Q

What are the most non-reliable forms of contraceptives?

A
  • Natural family planning
  • Lactational amenorrhea
  • Coitus interruptus (pulling out)
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40
Q

What contraceptive method is used mostly by religious communities or those who do not believe in medicinal forms of contraceptives?

A

Natural family planning (NFP)

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41
Q

What is considered the only true method of sterilization?

A

Hysterectomy

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42
Q

What is a therapeutic abortion?

A

Scheduled or planned for a medical reason

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43
Q

What is a routine abortion?

A

Elective

44
Q

What are the most common complications post-termination?

A
  • Hemorrhage

- Infection

45
Q

What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A

Endocrine imbalance with an unknown cause

46
Q

What are the risk factors for developing vulvar cancer?

A
  • STD’s

- Smoking

47
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of vulvar cancer?

A
  • Wart-like growths
  • Ulcerations
  • White and red patches
  • Persistent itching
48
Q

What are the treatment options for vulvar cancer?

A

Surgery

49
Q

Regarding cervical cancer, what risk factor has began to show an increase in incidence?

A

HPV

50
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cervical cancer?

A
  • Asymptomatic

- Serosanguinous discharge

51
Q

What is Schiller’s Test?

A
  • Iodine staining of the cervix to identify cervical cancer

- Cancer tissue will appear yellowish or white

52
Q

What anatomy must be removed in a patient with ovarian cancer?

A
  • Uterus
  • Fallopian tubes
  • Ovaries
53
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention regarding post-op care for a hysterectomy patient?

A

Prevent constipation!

54
Q

What is prostatitis?

A

Bacterial infection and inflammation of the prostate

55
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of prostatitis?

A
  • Dysuria
  • Urine retention
  • Pain
  • Urgency
  • Frequency
56
Q

If a patient with prostate cancer is unable to urinate, this is considered what?

A

Emergency!

57
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A
  • Increase in the number of cells within the prostate
  • Gradual benign growth of prostate
  • Begins around age 50
58
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A
  • Urinary retention
  • Dribbling
  • Nocturia
  • Dysuria
  • Urgency
59
Q

What does DRE stand for?

A

Digital Rectal Exam

60
Q

What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A

Watchful waiting

61
Q

What medical procedure is used to relieve benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? What does this procedure do?

A
  • Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)

- Chips away at the prostate

62
Q

What postoperative care should the nurse provide to a patient who has undergone a TURP procedure?

A
  • Monitor I&Os
  • Bladder irrigation
  • Monitor clots
  • Monitor bleeding
  • Encourage fluids
63
Q

The nurse should educate a postoperative TURP patient on what?

A
  • Avoid constipation
  • Avoid lifting
  • Avoid aspirin and NSAIDS
  • Retrograde ejaculation
64
Q

What is the most common cancer among American men?

A

Prostate Cancer

65
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of prostate cancer?

A
  • Hematuria
  • Urinary obstruction
  • Urinary retention
66
Q

How are most male genitourinary disorders diagnosed?

A

-Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)

67
Q

All men over _____ should have a yearly _____.

A
  • 40

- Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)

68
Q

What is Priapism?

A

Prolonged painful erection lasting more than four hours

69
Q

What is Phimosis?

A

Foreskin that cannot be retracted

70
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with phimosis?

A
  • Educate on proper cleaning techniques

- Educate on bacterial infection

71
Q

Paraphimosis is a _____ _____.

A

Surgical emergency!

72
Q

Undescended testes are known as what?

A

Cryptorchidism

73
Q

Fluid in the scrotal sac is known as what?

A

Hydrocele

74
Q

Varicose veins of the scrotum is known as what?

A

Varicocele

75
Q

Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged ____ to ____.

A

15 to 34

76
Q

Is alopecia, or hair loss, a normal sign or symptom caused by cancer?

A
  • No
  • Usually autoimmune
  • Can be caused by chemotherapy
77
Q

When does a vasectomy become effective?

A

About three months following surgery

78
Q

What is erectile dysfunction disorder?

A

Problem obtaining or maintaining erection

79
Q

What are the physical risk factors for developing erectile dysfunction disorder?

A
  • Circulation
  • Medications
  • Hormone imbalance
  • Sleep apnea
80
Q

What are the psychosocial risk factors for developing erectile dysfunction disorder?

A
  • Stress
  • Alcohol
  • Illegal drugs
  • Illness
  • Fatigue
81
Q

Infertility is definitively diagnosis when a patient has been what?

A

Unsuccessful in becoming pregnant for one year of unprotected intercourse

82
Q

Most sexually transmitted infections (STI) are ______.

A

Not easily detected

83
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

A

Chlamydia

84
Q

Chlamydia is often a comorbidity with what other infection?

A

Gonorrhea

85
Q

Chlamydia and gonorrhea can result in what if not treated properly and promptly?

A

Infertility

86
Q

If a male patient complains of dysuria, they will be tested for both…

A
  • Urinary tract infection (UTI)

- Sexually transmitted infection (STI)

87
Q

What should the nurse always consider as a differential factor for chronic and unexplained abdomen and pelvic pain?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

88
Q

Many sexually transmitted infections may present with…

A

No signs or symptoms

89
Q

If a patient who has chlamydia gives birth, what is the priority nursing intervention for the baby?

A

Ophthalmic ointment

90
Q

Besides the genital area, where can gonorrhea and chlamydia manifest?

A
  • Throat

- Eyes

91
Q

Gonorrhea differs from chlamydia in that it will present with what?

A

Thicker discharge

92
Q

Syphilis is considered what?

A
  • Long standing disease

- Up to 10-20 years to manifest

93
Q

What are gummas?

A

Tumors that grow holes in the organs

94
Q

Gummas are associated with what STI? In what stage do they appear?

A
  • Syphilis

- Tertiary stage

95
Q

Is syphilis always contagious?

A

Yes

96
Q

Can syphilis be transmitted from mother to baby?

A

Yes

97
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis?

A
  • Strawberry cervix
  • Foul smelling discharge
  • Frothy discharge
  • Genital redness and swelling
98
Q

If a pregnant patients presents with a current outbreak of herpes during labor, the nurse knows that?

A

The baby will be delivered via cesarean section

99
Q

Is there a cure for Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?

A

No

100
Q

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) puts the patient at an increased risk for what condition?

A

Cervical cancer

101
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A
  • Sexual secretions
  • Blood
  • Breastmilk
  • Other fluids
102
Q

What populations are considered at-risk for HIV?

A
  • Engaging in anal sex
  • All females
  • High-risk sex practices
103
Q

The nurse should strongly encourage a patient who has an STI to do what?

A

Notify ALL sexual partners

104
Q

There is no such thing as what?

A

“Safe sex”

105
Q

The nurse should educate a patient on what regarding sexually transmitted infections?

A
  • Safer sex practices
  • Finishing all medications/antibiotics
  • Signs and symptoms of complications