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Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 > Maternity/Infant Health (Exam Three) > Flashcards

Maternity/Infant Health (Exam Three) Flashcards

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1
Q

Regarding the fetus, what substance(s) can be screened for toxins after birth?

A
  • Umbilical cord
  • Urine
  • Meconium
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2
Q

Which fetal substance is tested to allow health care providers to view fetal nutrition and toxins for the entire nine month span of pregnancy?

A

Umbilical cord

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3
Q

Communities should have health services that are what?

A
  • Available
  • Accessible
  • Acceptable
  • Affordable
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4
Q

When does prenatal care begin?

A

Prior to conception

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5
Q

What should the nurse ensure before a woman becomes pregnant?

A
  • Healthy diet
  • Folic acid intake
  • Iron supplement intake
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6
Q

Why is it important for a woman to have a well-balanced diet before conception?

A

To ensure fetal development

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7
Q

What questions should be included on the nutrition assessment prior to conception?

A
  • Eating disorder
  • Specific diet followed
  • Overweight/underweight
  • Daily folic acid supplementation
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8
Q

Give examples of eating disorders the nurse would want to know about?

A
  • Anorexia

- Bulimia

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9
Q

Give examples of specific diets the nurse would want to know about?

A
  • Low carb
  • Keto
  • Vegetarian
  • Vegan
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10
Q

How much folic acid should any woman of childbearing capabilities intake?

A

0.4 mg daily

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11
Q

What role does folic acid play in fetal development?

A

Prevents neural tube defects

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12
Q

List food sources of folic acid.

A
  • Green leafy vegetables
  • Chicken
  • Liver
  • Turkey
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13
Q

What will aid in decreasing the risk for mother and baby?

A

Gaining a desirable amount of weight

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14
Q

What can happen if the mother has an inadequate weight gain?

A
  • Risk for pre-term labor

- Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

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15
Q

What is intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?

A
  • Fetus does not have adequate room to develop

- Fetus is not receiving adequate nutrition intake

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16
Q

What is the desired weight gain during pregnancy?

A

25 to 35 pounds

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17
Q

The desired weight gained by the mother includes what factors?

A
  • Weight of fetus
  • Weight of amniotic fluid
  • Weight of uterus
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18
Q

The weight gained by the mother during pregnancy is not strictly _____.

A

Fat or muscle

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19
Q

How much should the mother increase her calorie intake during pregnancy?

A

Increase by 300 calories per day

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20
Q

What type of foods should the mother intake during pregnancy?

A

-Wide variety of food (i.e. protein, dairy, vegetables, fruits, etc.)

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21
Q

What food group is specifically important for fetal development?

A

Complex carbohydrates

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22
Q

Besides folic acid, what is also recommended for the pregnant woman to intake daily?

A

Multivitamin or prenatal vitamin

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23
Q

What should the nurse recommend if any supplement causes the pregnant woman to become nauseous?

A

Take the vitamin at night

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24
Q

How many milligrams of calcium should a prenatal vitamin contain?

A

At least 1300 mg

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25
Q

Calcium is important for the development of what fetal structure?

A

Fetal skeletal development

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26
Q

List the fat soluble vitamins.

HINT: BAKED - B

A

Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin E

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27
Q

List the water soluble vitamins.

A

Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin B
Folic Acid

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28
Q

Too much Vitamin A can result in what?

A

Fetal anomalies

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29
Q

Excessive amounts of which vitamin can negatively impact the fetus?

A

Vitamin A

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30
Q

Vitamin B12 is important for the formation of what?

A

Red blood cells

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31
Q

List food sources of Vitamin B12?

A
  • Eggs

- Dairy

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32
Q

How much folic acid should a woman intake during pregnancy?

A

0.6 mg daily

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33
Q

What is pica? What might pica indicate?

A
  • Non-food cravings

- Nutritional deficiency or sign of anemia

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34
Q

Severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy is known as what?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

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35
Q

What would the nurse recommend to a pregnant woman to offset the nauseous feeling?

A

Sweet or salty food items

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36
Q

What medication is prescribed for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy?

A

Zofran

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37
Q

What side effects of Zofran should the nurse educate the patient on?

A
  • Headaches

- Constipation

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38
Q

What medication is considered safer, when compared to Zofran, to use during pregnancy?

A

Diclegis

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39
Q

Diclegis is made up of what? What form of tablet is Diclegis?

A
  • Vitamin B6
  • Unisalm
  • Extended relief tablet
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40
Q

List non-pharmacological interventions for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

A
  • Ginger

- Pressure bands

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41
Q

What is anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

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42
Q

What will be prescribed if the pregnant patient is anemic?

A

Iron supplement

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43
Q

What should the patient monitor while taking an iron supplement?

A
  • Constipation
  • Monitor stools for color
  • Monitor stools for consistency
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44
Q

What vitamin aids in iron absorption?

A

Vitamin C (i.e. supplement tablet or orange juice)

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45
Q

What nursing management should be provided to a pregnant patient suffering from constipation?

A
  • Increased fluid intake

- High fiber diet

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46
Q

What is pyrosis?

A

Heartburn

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47
Q

What nursing management should be provided to a pregnant patient with pyrosis?

A
  • Encourage small frequent meals

- Remain in upright position for 30 minutes after meal consumption

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48
Q

What are nutritional concerns regarding adolescent pregnancy?

A
  • Well balanced diet

- Gaining appropriate amount of weight

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49
Q

What is the recommended amount of water consumption during pregnancy?

A

3L daily

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50
Q

What is the recommended amount of protein consumption during pregnancy?

A

70 grams daily

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51
Q

Are more calories needed during lactation or during pregnancy?

A

Lactation

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52
Q

How much should the mother increase her calorie intake during lactation?

A

Increase by 500 more calories per day

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53
Q

Calories make ______.

A

Breastmilk

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54
Q

What is postpartum?

A

Interval from childbirth to the return of the uterus to a non-pregnant state

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55
Q

After childbirth, the uterus should do what?

A
  • Shrink in size

- Move down to non-palpable state inside of pelvic area (below the umbilicus)

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56
Q

What is involution?

A

Shrinking of the uterus

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57
Q

Does the uterus ever return to its original size before pregnancy? What do we call this state?

A
  • No

- Non-pregnant state

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58
Q

List factors that promote involution?

A
  • Early and frequent ambulation
  • Uterine contractions (i.e. fundal rubbing)
  • Breastfeeding
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59
Q

How long will the mother experience contractions after delivery?

A

2 to 3 days postpartum

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60
Q

Explain how breastfeeding promotes involution.

A

1) Any time the newborn is put to breast or the nipple is stimulated, the body will release oxytocin
2) Oxytocin causes the uterus to contract
3) Uterine contraction will compress blood vessels and minimize blood loss

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61
Q

What is the synthetic form of oxytocin?

A

Pitocin

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62
Q

Exposed blood vessels in the uterus are a result of what?

A

The placenta detaching from the uterus

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63
Q

How is the uterus location measured? What landmarks are used?

A
  • Measured by abdomen

- Above or below the umbilicus

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64
Q

After delivery, how many centimeters should the uterus move below the umbilicus?

A

1 to 2 cm per day

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65
Q

How many hours after delivery will the uterus remain above the umbilicus?

A

12 hours

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66
Q

How long does it take after delivery before the uterus is unable to be externally palpated?

A

2 weeks

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67
Q

What is subinvolution?

A

Failure of the uterus to return to a non-pregnant state

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68
Q

Subinvolution may also be referred to as what?

A

Uterine atony (no tone)

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69
Q

How will the nurse describe a contracted uterus?

A

Firm uterus

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70
Q

How will the nurse describe a uterus that is not contracted or soft?

A

Boggy uterus

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71
Q

What causes postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Failure of the uterus to contract

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72
Q

What is the normal estimated blood loss (EBL) during a vaginal delivery?

A

500 mL

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73
Q

What is the normal estimated blood loss (EBL) during a cesarean delivery?

A

1000 mL

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74
Q

List factors of subinvolution or factors that slow involution.

A
  • Full bladder
  • Previous births
  • Prolonged labor (18+ hours)
  • Anesthesia
  • Infection
  • Retained placental fragments
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75
Q

What is a nursing intervention that aids in uterine contraction and prevents postpartum hemorrhage?

A

Fundal rubbing

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76
Q

If the bladder is full, the uterus will be deviated to which side of the body?

A

Left

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77
Q

What should be assessed before a fundal rub is performed?

A
  • Whether or not the patients bladder is full

- Last time the patient voided

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78
Q

Colostrum is sufficient to nourish the newborn for how many hours?

A

72 to 96 hours

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79
Q

What is engorgement?

A

Distended, firm, tender, and fullness of the breasts due to an influx of breastmilk

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80
Q

Colostrum is high in what? Colostrum is low in what?

A
  • High in antibodies and protein

- Low in fat

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81
Q

When will the vagina return to a non-pregnant size following childbirth?

A

6 to 10 weeks postpartum

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82
Q

Describe the cervix following childbirth.

A
  • Edematous

- Thin

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83
Q

Lactation will delay the production of what? This is in direct relation to what?

A
  • Cervical mucosa

- Directly related to hormones because cervical mucus is dependent on hormones

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84
Q

How long does the postpartum period last?

A

6 weeks

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85
Q

What is lochia? What is it the result of?

A
  • Vaginal discharge

- Result of involution and the regeneration of the endometrium

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86
Q

What makes up lochia?

A
  • Blood from the site of placental attachment

- Dead cells from the placenta

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87
Q

What is lochia rubra?

A
  • First lochia present after childbirth
  • Occurs 3 to 4 days
  • Bright, red discharge
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88
Q

What is lochia serosa?

A
  • Pinkish brown discharge

- Lasts 22 to 27 days

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89
Q

What is lochia alba?

A
  • Whitish discharge

- May last up to 6 weeks postpartum

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90
Q

Regarding lochia, what three characteristics should the nurse assess?

A
  • Color
  • Amount
  • Odor
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91
Q

Regarding lochia, what is the distinct sign of infection?

A

Smell

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92
Q

List the three different amounts of lochia.

A
  • Heavy
  • Moderate
  • Scant
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93
Q

What is a heavy amount of lochia?

A
  • Saturation of a peri-pad within one hour

- Requires intervention!

94
Q

During childbirth, what can happen to the perineum?

A

Laceration or tear

95
Q

What are the two types of perineal lacerations?

A
  • Natural

- Episiotomy

96
Q

What is an episiotomy?

A
  • Surgical incision into the perineum

- Widens the birth canal to allow the fetus to pass through

97
Q

How long should it take an episiotomy heal?

A

2 to 3 weeks postpartum

98
Q

What is a fourth degree laceration?

A

Tear of the perineum that extends to the anus

99
Q

What are the nursing priorities regarding perineal lacerations?

A
  • Infection

- Comfort

100
Q

What are the nursing management options for a patient with a perineal laceration?

A
  • Ice
  • Encourage high fiber diet
  • Encourage stool softeners
  • Sitz bath
101
Q

What are the indications for a cesarean section?

A
  • Large fetus

- Fetal distress in utero

102
Q

List nursing management for a patient who has had a cesarean section?

A
  • Bedrest for 12 hours
  • Ambulate after 12 hours
  • Monitor for blood clots
  • Apply SCD bilaterally
  • Monitor incision site for signs and symptoms of infection
103
Q

Patients who have a cesarean section delivery still require what?

A

Fundal rubbing

104
Q

How long will a cesarean section patient stay in the hospital following delivery?

A

Approximately 3 days

105
Q

How long will a natural childbirth patient stay in the hospital following delivery?

A

A little over 24 hours

106
Q

The respiratory system will return to its pre-pregnancy state in how many weeks postpartum?

A

6 weeks postpartum

107
Q

The cardiovascular system will return to its pre-pregnancy state in how many weeks postpartum?

A

2 to 6 weeks postpartum

108
Q

Is an elevated WBC count normal or abnormal postpartum?

A

Completely normal!

109
Q

The mother will receive rhogam during pregnancy if she has what?

A

If she has a negative blood type

110
Q

If the mother has a negative blood type and the fetus has a negative blood type, will the mother need rhogam? How long after delivery will she need this?

A

-No, she will not receive rhogam at all

111
Q

If the mother has a negative blood type and the fetus has a positive blood type, will the mother need rhogam? How long after delivery will she need this?

A
  • Yes

- Within 72 hours after delivery

112
Q

Why might a woman retain urine following delivery?

A
  • Fear of voiding

- Decreased sensation to void

113
Q

When will the menstrual cycle with ovulation return after childbirth?

A

As early as 28 days postpartum

114
Q

What is the consistency of the first three to four menstrual flows following childbirth?

A

Heavier than normal

115
Q

Abdominal distention may remain for how many weeks postpartum?

A

6 weeks postpartum

116
Q

A woman who has had an epidural may complain of what following childbirth?

A

Headache

117
Q

What is a spinal headache?

A
  • Result of an epidural

- Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the epidural space

118
Q

How is a spinal headache diagnosed?

A

Headache completely disappears when patient is laid flat

119
Q

How is a spinal headache treated?

A

Anesthesia will fill the hole in the epidural space of the spinal cord with blood known as a blood patch

120
Q

What nursing education is priority for the mother and family following childbirth?

A
  • Safety of the newborn
  • Abduction of the newborn
  • Social media awareness
121
Q

How is attachment to the newborn established?

A

By maintaining proximity

122
Q

How do parents bond to their newborn?

A

Skin-to-skin contact

123
Q

Skin-to-skin contact helps the newborn maintain what?

A
  • Temperature

- Respirations

124
Q

How is proximity maintained?

A
  • “Rooming-in” method

- Keeping baby close to the parents

125
Q

What is mutuality?

A

Newborn displays behavior and it elicits a reaction from the mother

126
Q

How is acquaintance developed?

A
  • Eye contact
  • Touching
  • Talking to newborn
127
Q

Define claiming as it relates to the newborn. Give an example of claiming.

A
  • Process of identifying with the newborn

- Parent stating “Baby has my eyes” or “Baby’s nose looks like mine”

128
Q

What is involved in the process of transition to parenthood?

A
  • Attachement
  • Bonding
  • Proximity
  • Mutuality
  • Acquaintance
  • Claiming
129
Q

What might a younger sibling display in response or adaptation the newborn?

A

Regression

130
Q

What might an older sibling display in response or adaptation the newborn?

A
  • Resentment

- Feeling that more responsibility will be placed on them

131
Q

What is early parent-infant contact?

A
  • Skin-to-skin

- Facilitates the attachment process

132
Q

What is extended parent-infant contact?

A
  • Couplet care

- “Rooming-in”

133
Q

What is biorhythmicity? What does it promote?

A
  • Newborn is in tune with mothers natural rhythm

- Promotes bonding

134
Q

What is entrainment?

A

-Responding to adult speech (i.e. turning head in response to voice)

135
Q

Describe the taking-in phase?

A
  • Lasts 24 hours
  • Mother is focused on herself
  • Mother wants to discuss childbirth experience
136
Q

Describe the taking-hold phase?

A
  • Lasts 2 to 3 days

- Mother is focused on care of the baby

137
Q

Describe the letting-go phase?

A
  • Mother learns to move on as a unit

- Mother balances the needs of herself, newborn, other family members

138
Q

Is grunting and nasal flaring normal or abnormal following birth?

A

Normal

139
Q

What would the nurse want the baby to do as a signal of reactivity during the first 30 minutes of life?

A
  • Spontaneously cry

- Display startle reflex

140
Q

When is meconium usually passed?

A

Second period of reactivity

141
Q

The neonatal period is a time of _____ and _____ changes.

A

Physiological and behavioral changes

142
Q

List the six adaptations of the newborn during the neonatal period?

A
  • Establishing and maintaining respirations
  • Experiencing circulatory changes
  • Ingesting and digesting nutrients
  • Eliminating and regulating weight
  • Regulating temperature
  • Establishing relationships
143
Q

Most of the circulating antibodies in the newborn are what?

A

IgG

144
Q

How are IgG antibodies transferred to the newborn?

A

Across the placenta from maternal circulation

145
Q

How long is IgG sufficient for the newborn?

A

The first three months

146
Q

Newborn intestines are _____ at birth.

A

Sterile

147
Q

Newborn GERD or vomiting is the result of what?

A

An immature gastrointestinal system

148
Q

How much of the newborns weight is lost at birth?

A

10%

149
Q

The newborns weight loss is generally attributed to what?

A

Extracellular fluid loss

150
Q

The newborns first void should occur within what time frame?

A

24 hours

151
Q

List normal reproductive system signs of the newborn female?

A
  • Vaginal discharge
  • Bloody spotting due to hormone changes
  • Edematous labia
  • Vernix may be present in external genitalia
152
Q

What will the nurse assess regarding the reproductive system of the newborn male?

A
  • Both testis are palpable

- Assess penis for hydrocele, hypospadias, epispadias

153
Q

Define hydrocele?

A
  • Fluid accumulation in the scrotum

- Does resolve without treatment

154
Q

Define hypospadias.

A

Urethra is found on the ventral side of the penis

155
Q

Define epispadias.

A

Urethra is found on the dorsal side of the penis

156
Q

Leg length should be _____ in the newborn.

A

Symmetrical

157
Q

The nurse should assess for what abnormal regarding the newborns skeletal system?

A

Hip dysplasia

158
Q

What are signs and symptoms of hip dysplasia in the newborn?

A
  • Uneven gluteal folds
  • Uneven thigh folds
  • Uneven knee levels
159
Q

What maneuver is used to test for hip dysplasia?

A

Ortolani maneuver

160
Q

Meconium must occur within what time frame?

A

Within 24 hours

161
Q

What are the two types of jaundice?

A
  • Physiologic

- Pathologic

162
Q

Hemoglobin is further broken down and converted into what?

A

Bilirubin

163
Q

What are the two types of bilirubin?

A
  • Unconjugated or indirect

- Conjugated or direct

164
Q

Describe unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin.

A
  • Able to cross the blood brain barrier
  • Able cause neurotoxicity
  • Fat soluble
165
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

Neurotoxicity from bilirubin

166
Q

Describe conjugated (direct) bilirubin.

A
  • Water soluble

- Excreted in waste

167
Q

When does physiological jaundice appear? When does it peak?

A
  • Appears after 24 hours of life
  • Peak time is 2 to 4 days
  • Most common
168
Q

When does pathological jaundice appear? What causes this?

A
  • Occurs within 24 hours of life

- Result of maternal-newborn blood type incompatibility

169
Q

Babies can lose fluid through which mechanisms?

A

Perspiration

170
Q

What is the normal heart rate for a newborn?

A
  • 120 to 160 beats per minute

- A little irregularity is not uncommon

171
Q

It is common to see what involving the chest with the newborn?

A
  • PMI is visible on chest wall

- Can visually see the newborns heart beating via the chest

172
Q

What is persistent tachycardia?

A

Heart rate >160 beats per minute

173
Q

Persistent tachycardia may be indicative of what?

A
  • Anemia
  • Hypovolemia
  • Hyperthermia
  • Sepsis
174
Q

What is persistent bradycardia?

A

Heart rate <100 beats per minute

175
Q

Persistent bradycardia may be indicative of what?

A
  • Heart block

- Hypovolemia

176
Q

Why are the newborns red blood cells elevated at birth?

A

Fetal circulation is less effective at oxygen exchange

177
Q

Why are newborns given IM Vitamin K at birth?

A

Newborns are unable to synthesize Vitamin K to do their immature gastrointestinal system

178
Q

Describe cold stress on the newborn?

A

1) Newborn gets cold
2) Oxygen consumption increases
3) Respiratory rate increases
4) Pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs

179
Q

What is the normal respiration rate of the newborn?

A

30 to 60 breaths per minute

180
Q

What are signs of respiratory distress?

A
  • Retractions
  • Stridor
  • Episodes of apnea
  • Acrocyanosis
  • Central cyanosis
181
Q

What is acrocyanosis? Is this normal or abnormal?

A
  • Bluish-purple discoloration of the hands and feet
  • Normal following the first 24 hours of life
  • Beyond 24 hours of life, it is a sign of respiratory distress
182
Q

Describe caput succedaneum?

A
  • Edematous area on the newborns head from pressure against the cervix
  • May cross suture line
  • Resolves in 3 to 4 days
  • Very common
183
Q

What is a cephalohematoma? How does it differ from caput succedaneum?

A
  • Bleeding between the skull and its covering
  • Does not cross the suture line
  • Resolves in 2 to 8 weeks
184
Q

Newborns who present with cephalohematomas are at an increased risk for what?

A

Jaundice

185
Q

What are mongolian spots?

A
  • Bruise like pattern that develops on the coccyx and up the spine
  • Most common in dark complexed newborns
  • Disappear by the time the child is two
186
Q

What is the nursing priority regarding mongolian spots?

A

Documentation!

187
Q

What is erythema toxicum?

A
  • Normal newborn rash

- Will resolve on its own

188
Q

What is the rooting and sucking reflex?

A
  • When a newborns mouth or cheek is touched, the head will turn towards that stimuli
  • The newborn will begin sucking whatever is placed near the mouth
  • Disappears between 3 months and 12 months
189
Q

What is Babinski’s sign? When does this disappear?

A
  • Lateral aspect of the heel is stroked
  • Assessed bilaterally
  • The big toe will dorsiflex and the remaining toes will fan out
  • Disappears between one and two years
190
Q

If Babinski’s sign is present for longer than two years this is indicative of what?

A

Neurological damage

191
Q

What is the Palmer Grasp? When does it disappear?

A
  • Newborn will grasp any object placed in the palm

- Disappears by 4 months of age

192
Q

What is the Plantar Grasp? When does it disappear?

A
  • Newborn will curl toes at the placement of an object on the foot
  • Disappears by 4 months of age
193
Q

What is Moro’s reflex?

A
  • Indicates the sensation of falling (startle reflex)
  • Adduction of extremities followed by abduction of the extremities
  • Disappears by 4 months of age
194
Q

If Moro’s reflex is present for longer than six months of age this is indicative of what?

A

Neurological damage

195
Q

Factors that influence behavior are based on what?

A

Gestational age

196
Q

List factors that influence behavior?

A
  • Vision

- Smell

197
Q

The newborn can see how far in front of them?

A

6 to 12 inches

198
Q

Preterm infants require what?

A
  • More sleep

- Less stimuli

199
Q

What is the main source of thermoregulation for the newborn?

A

Flexed state

200
Q

How can newborns produce heat?

A

Non-shivering thermogenesis

201
Q

Non-shivering thermogenesis is the metabolism of what?

A

Brown fat

202
Q

Why are babies unable to maintain thermoregulation?

A
  • Very thin layer of fat

- Blood cells located closer to the surface of the body

203
Q

What are the three nursing concerns during the first two hours following birth?

A
  • APGAR Score
  • Stabilization
  • Medications
204
Q

What does the APGAR score indicate?

A
  • How the newborn is transitioning to extrauterine life

- How they are responding to respiration

205
Q

When is the APGAR performed?

A
  • At 1 minute of life

- Again at 5 minutes of life

206
Q

How is the newborns heart rate scored according to APGAR?

A

> 100 bpm = 2 points
<100 bpm = 1 point
Absent = 0 points

207
Q

How is the newborns respiratory rate scored according to APGAR?

A

Strong cry = 2 points
Weak cry = 1 point
Absent = 0 points

208
Q

How is the newborns muscle tone scored according to APGAR?

A

Well flexed = 2 points
Some flexion = 1 point
No tone = 0 points

209
Q

How is the newborns irritability scored according to APGAR?

A

Crying/Whaling = 2 points
Grimace = 1 point
No response = 0 points

210
Q

How is the newborns color scored according to APGAR?

A

Completely pink = 2 points
Pink in core = 1 point
Blue and pale = 0 points

211
Q

The APGAR score is continuously repeated if it is less than a what?

A

7

212
Q

What is suctioned first, the newborns mouth or nose?

A

Mouth

213
Q

After 10 minutes of life, what will the newborns respiratory rate be?

A

85% to 95%

214
Q

What does the term preductal mean?

A

Right hand or right wrist

215
Q

When does the anterior fontanel typically close?

A

At approximately 18 months of age

216
Q

What are the three standard medications given to the newborn following birth?

A
  • Erythromycin eye ointment
  • Vitamin K
  • Hepatitis B Vaccine
217
Q

A Pavlik harness is used for what type of newborn injury?

A

Hip dysplasia

218
Q

List indicators of pain in the newborn.

A
  • Change in blood pressure
  • Change in heart rate
  • Change in 02 saturation
  • Change in respiratory rate
  • Crying
  • Sweating
  • Grimacing
  • Not sleeping/eating
219
Q

What happens if the heel of the newborn is penetrated too deeply during a heel stick?

A

-Damage the bone

220
Q

What is measure during a Critical Congenital Heart Defect (CCHD) test of the newborn?

A
  • Measuring oxygen saturation
  • Must be greater than 95%
  • Performed preductal and postductal (must be within 3% of eachother)
221
Q

Describe lactogenesis.

A
  • Progesterone is decreased
  • The release of prolactin is triggered
  • Prolactin prepares the breast to secrete milk
222
Q

Breastfeeding is a _____ and _____.

A

Supply and demain

223
Q

What is essential for breastfeeding?

A

Oxytocin

224
Q

What is oxytocin responsible for?

A

Milk ejection reflex or letdown

225
Q

Breastmilk is composed of this essential component.

A

Immunoglobulins

226
Q

Breastfeeding is contraindicated in what conditions?

A
  • Galactosemia of newborn
  • Maternal active TB
  • Maternal HIV
227
Q

What is the top priority when initiating breastfeeding?

A

Skin-to-skin

228
Q

What is the correct latch position?

A
  • Lips flanged out

- Consuming entire areola

229
Q

It is recommended that infants be exclusively breastfed for how many months?

A

6 months

230
Q

If formula feeding, babies should be what?

A

Burped every 15 mL or if excessive spit up is present

231
Q

When should complementary feeding begin?

A

6 months for breastfed and formula fed babies

Health and Illness Concepts I Nursing: N1210 (12 decks)

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