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small animal medicine > respiratory > Flashcards

respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

systolic PAP

A

> 30mmhg

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2
Q

example of Pulmonary Hypertension due to pulmonary vascular disease

A

parasitic - heartworm

congenital shunts PDA

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3
Q

DMVD and DCM cause Pulmonary hypertension by what classification

A

due to left sided heart disease

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4
Q

examples of PH due chronic pulmonary disease and/or hypoxia

A

pulmonary fibrosis
chronic bronchitis
upper airway obstruction

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5
Q

T/F

in small animals pulmonary hypertension is a primary condition

A

FALSE – occurs secondary to another condition

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6
Q

non invasive gold standard test to DX pulmonary hypertension in small animals

A

echocardiogram

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7
Q

Direct treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension is achieved with ___

A

pulmonary vasodilator drugs

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8
Q

most common small animal pulmonary vasodilator drug

A

Sildenafil

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9
Q

thrombus formation needs these things from virchows triangle

A
  • Hypercoaguability
  • Endothelial injury
  • Blood stasis
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10
Q

definitive diagnosis of PTE requires

A

CT or angiography

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11
Q

T/F

with PTE thoracic radiographs may appear completely normal

A

TRUE

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12
Q

antithrombotic drug of choice

A

Clopidogrel

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13
Q

Defined as an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

A

pleural effusion

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14
Q

what volume of fluid normally exists in the pleural space

A

1-5ml very small vol

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15
Q

breathing pattern of patient with pleural effusion

A

restricted - shallow and rapid

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16
Q

T/F

intrathoracic pressure is normally postive

A

false - negative

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17
Q

most common type of efusion

A

modified transudate

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18
Q

type of effusion that has very low cells and protein

A

trasudate

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19
Q

what diseases are transudate effusion seen in

A

low ALB – protein losing enteropathy

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20
Q

CHF, chyle and neoplasia will see this type of pleural effusion

A

modified transudate

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21
Q

what type of effusion is in pyothorax

A

exudate

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22
Q

A malignant neoplasm that originates from cells that line serosal surfaces

A

mesothelioma

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23
Q

what is tension pneumothorax

A

volume of air is so significant that it depresses cardiac output – fatal if not treated promptly

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24
Q

most common cause of pneumomediastinum in cats

A

General anesthesia with endotracheal intubation & positive pressure ventilation

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25
Q

primary function of the parenchyma

A

gas exhcange

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26
Q

Bacterial infection within the pulmonary parenchyma

A

bacterial pneumonia

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27
Q

pneumonia that develops in a patient that has not been

recently hospitalized

A

community acquired

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28
Q

s pneumonia that occurs ≥48 hours after hospital admission & was not incubating at the time of admission

A

hospital acquired

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29
Q

the result of inhalation of gastric/oropharyngeal contents that are contaminated by pathogenic bacteria

A

aspiration

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30
Q

classic pattern seen on thoracic radiographs of pneumonia

A

alveolar & predominantly ventral

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31
Q

PaO2 < 80 mmHg

A

hypoxemia

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32
Q

T/F

CAP patients are at risk for MDR infections

A

FALSE – HAP are

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33
Q

mycotic pneumonia radiographic pattern

A

nodular or miliary, interstitial & perihilar

lymphadenopathy may be present

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34
Q

most common cause of protozoal pneumonia

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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35
Q

interstitial lung disease (ILD) that is characterized by fibrosis

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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36
Q

these breeds are predisposed to idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

West Highland white terrier, Stafforshire bull terrier

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37
Q

physical exam often reveals crackles in all lung fields

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

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38
Q

radiographic pattern in dogs with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern is most common in dogs.

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39
Q

T/F

NCPE is typically protein rich while cardiogenic PE is low protein

A

TRUE

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40
Q

a pulmonary inflammatory disorder characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, neutrophilic inflammation, and hypoxemia

A

ACUTE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS SYNDROME (ARDS)

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41
Q

two potential risk factors for chronic bronchitis

A

obesity, periodontal disease

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42
Q

what defines bronchitis as being chronic

A

a cough longer then 1 month

non-productive, harsh,

43
Q

Expiratory abdominal “push”

A

seen in chronic bronchitis

44
Q

how to dx chornic bronchitis

A

it is a diagnosis of exclusion – do thoracic radiographs and other tests to rule out causes of chronic coughs

45
Q

cough suppressants used in canine chronic bronchitis

A

tramadol
hydrocodone
butorphanol

46
Q

Permanent dilation and distortion of bronchi due to chronic

inflammation

A

Bronchiectasis

47
Q

Bronchial collapse due to weakened walls; occurs commonly in dogs with tracheal collapse and/or CB or BM can occur by itself

A

bronchomalacia

48
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

Obstruction of small airways due to thickening/weakness of the bronchial walls & mucus accumulation

49
Q

predisposed breeds to Eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy (EBP)

A

husky

malamute

50
Q

difference between feline chronic bronchitis and asthma

A

both: inflammation, mucus, wall thickening

asthma also has bronchospasm

51
Q

the primary effector cells in allergic asthma

A

eosinophils

52
Q

feline inflammatory bronchial disease cat breed

A

SIAMESE

53
Q

T/F

cats with bronchitis cough every day

A

TRUE – asthmatic cats are intermittent

54
Q

what test is imperative to do with coughing cats

A

Heartworm & fecal testing is imperative

55
Q

how does the trachea collapse

A

dorsoventral flattening

56
Q

primary etiology of tracheal collapse

A

they are deficient in glycosoaminoglycans, chondoitin, and calcium

57
Q

T/F

cervical tracheal collapses during expiration and thoracic collapses during inspiration

A

FALSE - reversed

58
Q

most common clinical sing in tracheal collapse

A

honking cough

59
Q

t/F

patients in respiratory distress may be hypothermic

A

FASLE - hyperthermic

60
Q

what mumur may also be present in a tracheal collapse doggo

A

left apical systomic – due to mitral valve

61
Q

laryngeal functions

A
  • Regulate airflow
  • Protect trachea from aspiration during swallowing
  • Control phonation
62
Q

the ____ muscles of the larynx are responsible for laryngeal function

A

intrinsic

63
Q

innervates the cricothyroid m.

A

cranial laryngeal nerve

64
Q

laryngeal paralysis results when

A

When 1 (unilateral) or both (bilateral) of the arytenoid cartilages do not abduct

65
Q

damage to this nerve causes Acquired laryngeal paralysis (LP) in dogs

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

66
Q

Geriatric-onset laryngeal paralysis-polyneuropathy (GOLPP) is most common in

A

labs

67
Q

definitive diaganosis of larygeal paralyis

A

laryngeal exam

68
Q

primary defects of brachycephalic airway obstruction

A
  • Stenotic nares

* Elongated soft palate

69
Q

polyps

A

Fibromuscular connective tissue arising from mucosal lining of nasopharynx, auditory tube

70
Q

which species gets polyps more

A

cats – often younger

71
Q

causes of polyps in cats

A

congenital defect(s), chronic inflammation, viral infection

72
Q

sneezing associated with nasopharyngeal, caudal nasal, or sinus disease

A

reverse – inspiratory sneezing

73
Q

causes of nasopharyngeal stenosis

A

regurgitation (esp. under anesthesia), chronic inflammation, post- surgical scarring, trauma, congenital anomaly, mass

74
Q

nasopharyngeal stenosis treatment

A

Balloon dilation most effective

75
Q

most common cause of rhinitis in cats

A

cryptococcus

76
Q

Cat with clinical signs of sneezing & nasal discharge (mucoid or purulent, often unilateral) and polypoid masses in the nose

A

fungal rhinitis – crypto

77
Q

T/F

a positive crypto culture means there is infection

A

false

78
Q

oral tx for crypto rhinitis

A

Oral fluconazole

79
Q

CHRONIC RHINOSINUSITIS (CRS) in cats has unilateral or bilateral nasal discharge

A

bilateral

  • *FHV-1 seems to be involved
  • *dx of exclusion
80
Q

antiviral med that Reduces FHV-1 replication in vitro

A

lysine

81
Q

what is a concern when using doxycycline in cats

A

esophageal stricture – need to be given with food

82
Q

caution of use of NSAIDS (meloxicam) in cats

A

renal dz
geriatrics
gi disease

83
Q

most common cause of FUNGAL RHINOSINUSITIS in dogs

A

aspergillosus

84
Q

type of dogs predisposed to fungal rhinosinusitis

A

Usually young to middle-aged & dolichocephalic – gsd

may see epistaxis with sneezing

85
Q

what is seen on CT with nasal aspergillosis

A

Significant destruction of turbinates & cavitations

86
Q

how do you collect samples for blood culture in infectious endocarditis cases

A

3-4 samples collected aseptically from different venous tissue sites at least 30 min - 1 hour apart

87
Q

source of infection of staph intermedius infective endocarditis

A

pyoderma

88
Q

source of infection of staph aureus infective endocarditis

A

nosocomial

89
Q

source of infection of strep canis infective endocarditis

A

urogenital tract, skin, respiratory tract

90
Q

source of infection of E. coli infective endocarditis

A

gastrointestinal tract, peritonitis, urinary tract

91
Q

source of infection of pseudomonas infective endocarditis

A

chronic wounds, burns

92
Q

source of infection of bartonella infective endocarditis

A

ticks and fleas

93
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius

A

Tiracillin/clavulanate – timentin

94
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph intermedius

A

clavamox

95
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by staph aureus

A

vancomycin, amikacin oxacillin

96
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by staph aerues

A

if not methicillin resistant, high dose first generation cephalosporin

97
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by strep canis

A

ampicillin IV

98
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by strep canis

A

amoxicillin or clavamox

99
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by e coli

A

amikacin or imipenem

100
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by e coli

A

imipenem

101
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas

A

amikacin, timentin, ot imipenen IV

102
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by pseudomonas

A

imipenem sc or possibly clavamox PO

103
Q

treatment of acute infective endocarditis caused by bartonella

A

amikacin and beta lactam

104
Q

treatment of chronic infective endocarditis caused by bartonella

A

bta lactam
doxy
azithromycin

small animal medicine (6 decks)

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