Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What do you request to be checked in the pleural fluid when sending it away?

A

pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase, cytology and microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When do you use Light’s criteria?

A

This is used when deciding if a pleural effusion has a transudate or exudate cause. Light’s criteria should be applied if the protein level is between 25 and 30.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the differences in protein levels between transudate and exudates?

A

exudates have a protein level of >30 g/L, transudates have a protein level of <30 g/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Using lights criteria, what defines an exudate?

A

An exudate is likely if at least one of the following apply;
pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
pleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What might a low glucose in the pleural fluid indicate?

A

Rheumatoid or TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What might a raised amylase in the pleural fluid indicate?

A

Pancreatitis or oesophageal perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would heavily blood stained pleural fluid indicate?

A

Mesothelioma, TB, Pulmomary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What tests should patients with suspected asthma have?

A

Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide test and a spirometry with reversibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why do ?asthmatics have a FeNO test?

A

Nitric oxide is produced by 3 types of nitric oxide synthases (NOS). One of the types is inducible (iNOS) and levels tend to rise in inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Levels of NO therefore typically correlate with levels of inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reversibility testing in asthmatics

A

in adults, a positive test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and increase in volume of 200 ml or more
in children, a positive test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the common causes of respiratory alkalosis?

A
Anxiety leading to hyperventilation
Pulmonary embolism
Salicylate poisoning
CNS poisoning
CNS disorders (stroke, SAH, encephalitis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the criteria for LTOT?

A
Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
nocturnal hypoxaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a ghon focus?

A

Small lung lesion, tubercle laden macrophages. This indicates a primary infection with TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can the ghon complex develop?

A

In non-immunocompromised patients, this usually scars over and heals with fibrosis.
In immunocompromised patients, they may develop disseminated disease (miliary TB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

It is a form of TB which occurs outside the lung in the vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you manage a primary pneumothorax of 2 cm or less?

A

if the rim of air is < 2cm and the patient is not short of breath then discharge should be considered
otherwise aspiration should be attempted.
If this fails (more than 2cm) insert a chest drain!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you manage a secondary pneumothorax of 2cm or less?

A

Aspiration should be attempted. If this fails (more then 1cm still) patient should be admitted and a chest drain inserted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A secondary pneumothorax in a >50 patient which is 2cm and/or patient is short of breath, how do you manage?

A

Insert a chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Clinical features of klebsiella infection?

A

(Most common in alcoholics).
-currant jelly-like sputum.
They are implicated in many other disorders such as ascending cholangitis. Following pneumonia, patients can develop an empyema. This translates to a ‘bag of pus’. It should not be confused with an abscess as an abscess is a collection of pus inside a newly formed cavity. An empyema is a collection of pus in an already existing cavity such as the pleural space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?

A

Sarcoidosis and TB/ lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which condition is associated with high levels of serum ACE?

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why do you see hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis?

A

macrophages inside the granulomas cause an increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clinical features of bronchiectasis?

A

Affected patients may produce large amounts of purulent sputum
Patients may have a history of previous infections (e.g. Tuberculosis, measles), bronchial obstruction or ciliary dyskinetic syndromes e.g. Kartagener’s syndrome
Anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is wegners granulomatosis?

A

It is an autoimmune condition associated with a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis, affecting both the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys.
ANCA positive in >90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

NICE guidelines for low-severity and moderate/severe CAP?

A

Low- penicillin
High (DUAL ANTIBITOTIC)-penicillin + macrolide
NICE recommend considering a beta-lactamase stable penicillin such as co-amoxiclav, ceftriaxone or piperacillin with tazobactam and a macrolide in high-severity community acquired pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

dextrocardia or complete situs inversus
bronchiectasis
recurrent sinusitis
subfertility (secondary to diminished sperm motility and defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What condition is tram-track opacities seen on X-ray?

A

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What range of pH is most likely to respond to NIV?

A

7.25-7.35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the criteria for using NIV?

A

COPD with respiratory acidosis pH 7.25-7.35*
type II respiratory failure secondary to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea
cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP
weaning from tracheal intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference in the FEV1/FEC values in an obstructive and restrictive picture?

A

Obstructive- FEV1 is significantly reduced and the FVC can be normal or reduced (think x-ray picture) with the overall ratio being reduced.
Restrictive- FEV1 is reduced and the FVC is significantly reduced leaving the overall ratio to be normal or increased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What problems can sarcoidosis cause?

A

Sarcoidosis can cause facial palsies, parotid enlargement, hypercalcaemia and ocular problems, as seen in this case.

32
Q

What scale is used to assess the severity of someones sleep apnoea?

A

Epworth scale (it is a questionnaire completed by the patient or the partner).

33
Q

Conservative treatment of sleep apnoea…

A

Weight loss, alcohol reduction, sleeping on ones side

34
Q

How does CPAP work?

A

These work by preventing the closure of the airway during sleep by delivering a continuous supply of compressed air through a mask. Mandibular advancement device may also be used -this is a gum shield-like device, which works by holding the jaw and tongue forward to increase the space at the back of the throat.

35
Q

What is the stop smoking pharmacological choice in pregnancy?

A

Nicotine replacement patch

36
Q

What does NICE recommend to give to patients who want to quit smoking?

A

Patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion

37
Q

When should bupropion not be used as a smoking cessation aid?

A

In an epileptic patient

38
Q

Investigations in patients with a pleural effusion on x-ray?

A

NICE recommends all patients should have an ultrasound guided pleural aspiration

39
Q

What is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Chronic lung condition characterised by progressive fibrosis in the interstitium of the lung.

40
Q

Name a histological finding in patients with granulomas which have resulted from TB

A

Epitheliod histioyctes

41
Q

What should you use when performing a diagnostic pleural aspiration?

A

The diagnostic aspiration should be performed with a green 21G needle and a 50ml syringe.

42
Q

What features are seen on X-ray of a patient with COPD?

A

Hyper-inflation, bullae and flat hemidiaphragm, hyper-lucant lung fields.

43
Q

CURB-65, what is B

A

Systolic<90 OR Diastolic pressure of less than 60

44
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis is a common post operative complication in which basal alveolar collapse can lead to respiratory difficulty. It is caused when airways become obstructed by bronchial secretions.

45
Q

Following an asthma exacerbation, what medications should patients go home with?

A

Prednisolone 40mg for 5 days

46
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Adult respiratory distress syndrome,
characterized by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates and severe hypoxemia (PaO2/FiO2 ratio < 200) in the absence of evidence for cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (clinically or pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of less than 18 mm Hg).

47
Q

Causes of ARDS?

A

Sepsis
Direct lung injury
Trauma
Acute pancreatitis
Long bone fracture or multiple fractures (through fat embolism)
Head injury (causes sympathetic nervous stimulation which leads to acute pulmonary hypertension)

48
Q

Which organism most commonly causes an infective exacerbation of COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

49
Q

What is the first-line management in a patient with COPD?

A

SABA or a SAMA, then the next step is determined by FEV1/FVC.
<50% - LABA + ICS or LAMA
>50%- LABA or LAMA

50
Q

What organism is likely to cause a post-viral pneumonia?

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

51
Q

In which patients should varenicline be used cautiously in?

A

In patients with a history of depression

52
Q

What is the next step in managing an asthma exacerbation after using IV hydrocortisone?

A

IV Magnesium sulphate

53
Q

What does thyrotoxicosis cause on the shins?

A

Pre-tibial myxodema

54
Q

Name some contraindications to lung surgery…

A

stage IIIb or IV (i.e. metastases present)
FEV1 < 1.5 litres is considered a general cut-off point*
malignant pleural effusion (lady in MAU)
tumour near hilum
vocal cord paralysis
SVC obstruction

55
Q

What may be seen on a chest X-ray in a patient with lymphoma?

A

Widening of the mediastinum

56
Q

Where is the safe triangle and what are its borders?

A

Mid-auxilly line, 5th intercostal space.
Bordered by; Anterior edge latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of pectoralis major, a line superior to the horizontal level of the nipple, and the apex below the axilla.

57
Q

How would you spot left lingula consolidation on a chest X-ray?

A

Loss of the left heart border

58
Q

If you see canon-ball mets, what should your next line of investigation be?

A

CT abdomen. (RCC) Also consider a PSA test

59
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis describes a permanent dilatation of the airways secondary to chronic infection or inflammation

60
Q

Management of bronchiectasis….

A

Inspiratory muscle training + postural drainage
antibiotics for exacerbations + long-term rotating antibiotics in severe cases
bronchodilators in selected cases
immunisations
surgery in selected cases (e.g. Localised disease)

61
Q

Which organism is most likely to be isolated from a patient with bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

62
Q

What can small cell lung cancers secrete?

A

ADH- hyponatraema
ACTH- causing cushings (can lead to a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis). (symptoms causing muscle weakness, HTN, hypokalaemia & oedema).

63
Q

How do you know when you should intubate a patient who is having an exacerbation of asthma?

A

A pH less than 7.35 likely represents carbon dioxide retention in a tiring patient and is an ominous sign in acute asthma. Performing serial peak flows in a patient with life-threatening asthma is neither practical nor desirable.

64
Q

What is the centor criteria?

A

presence of tonsillar exudate
tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
history of fever
absence of cough
If 3 or more present, infection is probably caused by group A strep.

65
Q

What is the normal Pa02 in an ABG?

A

10-14

66
Q

What are the benefit of inhaled steroids in COPD?

A

Reduced frequency of exacerbations

67
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Vareniciline?

A

Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of bupropion?

A

a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist.

69
Q

What are the features of Meig’s syndrome?

A

Benign ovarian tumour, ascites, and pleural effusion.

70
Q

X-ray findings in HF?

A
Alveolar oedema (bat’s wings) 
Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema)
Cardiomegaly
Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels
Effusion (pleural)
71
Q

What does NICE recommend to offer patients with suspected lung cancer?

A

NICE recommends that patients with known or suspected lung cancer are offered a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest, liver and adrenals.

72
Q

Symptoms of recurrent pulmonary emboli?

A

pleuritic chest pain and haemoptysis may be seen but symptoms are often vague
Tachycardia and tachypnoea are common in the acute situation
Symptoms of right heart failure may develop in severe cases- ie raised JVP and peripheral odema

73
Q

Features of granulomatosis with polyangitis?

A

Upper respiratory tract: epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting
Lower respiratory tract: dyspnoea, haemoptysis
Glomerulonephritis
Saddle-shape nose deformity

74
Q

Features of goodpastures syndrome?

A

Haemoptysis
Systemically unwell: fever, nausea
Glomerulonephritis

75
Q

How do you manage aspiration pneumonia?

A

IV metronidazole

76
Q

First symptom of a pneumothorax?

A

Shoulder pain

77
Q

Which pneumonia causes hyponatraemia?

A

Legionella