Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MD1 FBS > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

In which species is Type A influenza virus found?

A

Humans and other species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is corryza?

A

Runny nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define breathlessness

A

Pt’s recognition of an inappropriate relationship between respiratory work and total body work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define Gohn focus and gohn complex

A

Gohn focus = peripheral area of granulomatous inflammation and caseation

complex is focus + lymph involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which 3 factors determine fluid movement across pulmonary capillaries?

A

1 Hydrostatic pressure

2 Oncotic pressure

3 Capillary permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a medical way of saying “coughing up blood”

A

Haemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What influences the peripheral chemoreceptors involved in respiratory regulation?

A

PaO2, PaCO2 (indirectly); pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HIgh pH and low PaCO2 = what?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is on your list of differentials for haemoptysis?

A

Bronchitis

Pneumonia

Bronchiectasis

Pulmonary embolis

Tuberculosis

Lung cancer

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inhaled foreign bodies tend to travel where?

A

Right main bronchus to right lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most viral common causes of croup?

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does cigarette smoking lead to emphysema?

A

Cigarette smoke -> ROS -> alveolar damage

Smoke -> ROS –> neutrophil recruitment –> elastase -> alveolar septal degradation

Smoke -> inactivation of anti-proteases -> increased elastase -> alveolar septal degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do people with chronic hypercapnoea have an increased dependence on for ventilatory regulation?

A

Respiratory drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does work of breathing include?

A

Elastic and resistive work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which cell makes up most of the surface area of the alveolus?

A

Type 1 pneumocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the pressure of O2 at sea level?

A

160 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is stridor?

A

An audible breathing sound from the throat (often on inspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 most common viral causes of pneumonia?

A

PAIR

Parainfluenza 3

Adenovirus

Influenza virus

Respiratory syncytial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes excess mucus in chronic bronchitis?

A

Hypertrophy of mucus secreting glands

Increased goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a normal mixed venous PO2?

A

40mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the side effects of inhaled GCSs?

A

Oral candidiasis

Dysphonia

Decreased serum cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a normal PaO2?

A

90-98 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What clinical feature particularly distinguishes influenza from other respiratory tract infections?

A

Muscle aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are 3 important DDx for peripheral oedema?

A

1 Left heart failure

2 Low serum protein

3 Fluid volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does Fick’s law determine?

A

Rate of diffusion of a gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are 2 unique features of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis cell wall?

A

Contains mucolic acid in the cell wall, giving it a waxy coating.

It is acid fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a normal pulmonary artery sys/dias blood pressure?

A

25/8 mmHg

An angry kangaroo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the role of neuraminidase in influenza infection?

A

NA (neuraminidase) cleaves the sialic acid off the epithelial receptor to prevent newly released virus particles from re-infecting that very cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are 2 conditions that can cause hypoventilation through neuropathy?

A

Polio virus

Guillain-Barre syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the range of normal respiration rates for an adult person at rest?

A

12 to 16 breaths per minute

I am a spider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a normal mixed venous CO2?

A

46 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where are peripheral chemoreceptors that contribute to respiratory regulation?

A

Carotid bodies and aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What percentage of acute sore throats are caused by viruses?

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a typical total lung capacity?

A

5.7L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where are pulmonary veins always situated within the hilum?

A

Anterior and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If the radius of a small airway is halved, by how much will resistance increase?

A

16 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are 3 complications of emphysema?

A

1 hypoxia

2 pulmonary hypertension –> cor pulmonale

3 PTx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define emphysema

A

Permanent and abnormal enlargement of the airways distal to the terminal bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the order of pharmacological agents used to treat COPD as disease severity increases?

A

1 Short acting bronchodilator if FEV1 >80?

2 Long acting bronchodilator if FEV1 = 50-80?

3 Inhaled GCS if FEV1 = 30-50%

4 Oxygen if FEV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

my cox is as clammy as my leg

What are the most common bacterial causes of atypical pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumonia,

Coxiella Burnetti,

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

Legionella spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

On a CXR, what causes Kerley b lines?

A

Dilated lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the normal range for arterial pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alveolar pneumonia is characterised by what?

A

Consolidation (neutrophils) in the alveolar spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a normal PaCO2?

A

38-42 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the best imaging modality for the lung parenchyma?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Yellow sputum suggests what are present in the sputum?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the double fold of pleura inferior to the hilum called?

A

Pulmonary ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a CXR classically show in atypical pneumonia?

A

Reticulonodular infiltrate: “dots and dashes” throughout both lung fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the most common causes of a flu-like sickness?

A

Influencza

Respiratory syncytial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In which species is Type B influenza virus found?

A

Humans only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How does consolidation of pneumonia appear on CXR?

A

Hyperdense = white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the most common viral cause of pharyngitis?

A

Adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the major cause of empyema?

A

Staph. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is a medical way of saying “vomited up blood”?

A

Haematemesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List 6 clinical features of atypical pneumonia

A

Malaise,

aches/pains,

HA,

diarrhoea

Dry non-productive cough

Patients often ambulant (walking pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the fancy way of saying “coughing up blood”?

A

Haemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An unconscious supine patient who vomits will most likely have fluid in which lung segment?

A

Apical segment of the lower lobe of the right lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Koplick spots are diagnostic of what disease?

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a normal PAO2?

A

100mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of respiratory disorder does pneumonia cause?

A

Restrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What do we know about the receptor for influenza virus?

A

Terminal sialic acid bonded via alpha 2-6 linkage to galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name 4 features of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Microcephaly

Deafness

Cataracts

Congenital heart defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What type of cartilage is in the trachea?

A

Hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In what pattern of distribution is consolidation in bronchopneumonia?

A

Multifocal and patchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What kind of flow occurs in large airways?

A

Turbulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the definition of chronic bronchitis

A

Persistant cough, productive of sputum for at least 3 months in at least 2 consecutive years

Not due to another cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does a wheeze imply?

A

Pathology in the airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hi Strep!

What are the most common pathogenic agents for acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis?

A

Haemophilius influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a saddle pulmonary thrombo-embolism?

A

One that spans across the pulmonary trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is implied by crackles on ausculation of the lungs?

A

Fluid in alveoli or terminal bronchioles.

Could be pus, haemorrhage, oedema, salt water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the most common pattern of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What changes are there in ABG in Type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Low PaO2 and high PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are 3 pathological features of the immediate response in asthma?

A

Oedema,

mucous production and

bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the O2 saturation of venous blood?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the most common pathogenic agents that cause an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis?

A

Pneumococcus

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What’s the most common bacterial cause of a sore throat?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the pathophysiological definition of emphysema

A

Destruction of the alveolar wall without fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the incubation period of influenza?

A

1-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is empyema?

A

Pus in the pleura

81
Q

Define phlegm

A

Mucous + cell debris/bacteria/DNA etc

That is in the body

82
Q

Define asthma (in more than 2 words)

A

Hyper-responsive airways…

…to various stimuli…

which leads to episodic bronchoconstriction

that is at least partly reversible

83
Q

What is the name of the active transporter that pumps Ca2+ into the SR in smooth muscle?

A

SERCA

84
Q

How does emphysema cause airway obstruction?

A

There is a loss of elastic recoil,

leading to collapse of small airways

85
Q

Pleural friction suggests what type of pneumonia?

A

lobar pneumonia

86
Q

What is the mechanism of omalizumab in asthma treatment?

A

Binds to IgE

Blocks mast cell degranulation via steric hindrance of Fc portion of Ab, blocking IgE binding to mast cell

87
Q

Name 4 features of airway remodelling in asthma that cause obstruction of the airways

A

Goblet cell hyperplasia with increased mucous production

Subepithelial collagen thickening

Increased airway smooth muscle volume

Increased mucosal vascularity

88
Q

Hiow much oxygen is consumed at rest?

A

250ml/min

89
Q

Low pH and low PaCO2 = what?

A

Metabolic acidosis

90
Q

What is a typical minute ventialtion?

A

7-8 L/min

91
Q

What are the most common causes of otitis media?

A

Pneumococci,

H. influenzae

Moraxella catarrhalis

92
Q

What is haemoptysis?

A

The expectoration of blood or of blood-stained sputum

93
Q

What is the average number of deaths annually from influenza in Australia?

A

1,500

94
Q

What is the medical term for a sore throat?

A

Pharyngitis

95
Q

What is the role of haemagglutinin in the influenza virus?

A

Binds to sialic acid containing receptor → initiates entry

96
Q

The transition from bronchi to bronchioles is marked by which histological feature?

A

Disappearance of cartilage in the wall

97
Q

Where does rotavirus replicate?

A

Rotavirus replicates in epithelial muscosa of GIT

98
Q

When are inhaled GCSs indicated in the treatment of asthma?

A

When the patient requires beta 2 agonists more than three times weekly

99
Q

Which muscles may be contracted for forceful exhalation

A

Abdominal and internal intercostal muscles

100
Q

Which pattern of pneumonia is more common in 20-50 years olds?

A

Lobar pneumonia

101
Q

Rac(k) ;)

What are the 3 most common viral causes of URTI?

A

Rhinovirus

Corona virus

Adenovirus

102
Q

What is the cut off for abnormal FEV1/FVC in a healthy young adult?

A

80%

103
Q

What is the pathogensesis of chronic bronchitis?

A

Cigarettes -> inflammation:
–> mucous production in larger airways

–> scarring and narrowing of smaller airways

104
Q

What must happen to the influenza virus for it to be activated once it leaves a respiratory eptithelial cell?

A

Must be cleaved by tryptase clara

105
Q

What coloured phlegm do viruses tend to cause?

A

White

106
Q

Give an example of a virus that causes a latent infection

A

Herpesvirus

107
Q

What does central cyanosis imply?

A

Hypoxaemia (low PaO2)

108
Q

What are 5 potential respiratory system causes of dyspnoea?

A

1 Airways

2 Alveoli

3 Pleura/chest wall

4 Pulmonary vasculature

5 Respiratory muscle

109
Q

What is haematemesis?

A

Vomited up blood

110
Q

What does pruritus mean?

A

Itchy

111
Q

What are 5 classes of causes of inadequte ventilation?

A

1 Central

2 Neuromuscular eg MND

3 Obesity

4 Chest wall deformities

5 Sleep disordered breathing

112
Q

What are complications of chronic bronchitis

A

Superimposed infective exacerbations

Hypoxia

Pulmonary hypertension

Squamous metaplasia and dysplasia leading to malignancy

113
Q

What information about cough must be obtained during history taking?

A

Site: throat vs deep chest

Quality: Dry vs wet; colour; thickness; pus; blood

Severity: volume of sputum (teaspoon vs cup)

Time course: duration

Context: Exertion; time of dayl time of year; smoking

Aggravating:

Relieving: medications

Associated features: pain while coughing

Vaccination Hx

Smoking Hx

114
Q

Where would painful irritation of the costal parietal pleura be experienced?

A

Thoracic wall (because parietal pleura is innervated by branches from intercostal nerves)

115
Q

Where does the respiratory virus replicate in humans?

A

Virus replicates in respiratory epithelium, esp in large airways such as bronch

116
Q

What level must PaO2 drop below before it has an effect on ventilation?

A

~50mmHg

117
Q

What is Potts disease?

A

Single organ TB of the spine

118
Q

What is the first level of the airways where gas exchange may occur?

A

Respiratory bronchioles

119
Q

my cat sparkles

What are the most common pathogenic agents for low severity index community-acquired pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

120
Q

Which lobe does secondary TB typically affect?

A

Upper lobe

121
Q

What is the defining histopatholgoical feature of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Interstitial inflammation with firbosis at varying stages of development

122
Q

What is the most common preventable cause of death in hospitalised patients?

A

Venous thrombo-embolism

123
Q

Which type of pneumonia is more common at extremes of age?

A

Bronchopneumonia

124
Q

What is a Ghon’s complex comprised of?

A

Gohn focus + lymphadenopathy

125
Q

What is the GPCR downstream effect of salbutamol leading to bronchodilation

A

Increases activity of SERCA, which takes up Ca2+ into SR, decreasing ASM contractility –> bronchodilation

126
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis?

A

Dysrtrophic calcification

127
Q

How may someone with PE present?

A

Dyspnoea

Haemoptysis

Cough

Syncope

Pleuritic pain

128
Q

Which influenza type has many subtypes?

A

Type A

129
Q

What stimulates central chemoreceptors involved in respiratory regulation?

A

[H+]

130
Q

What are the 4 stages of lobar pneumonia?

A

1 Congestion

2 Red hepatisation
3 Grey hepatisation
4 Resolution

131
Q

What is the pathogenic agent in typhus?

A

Rickettsia

132
Q

What type of respiratory disease does emphysema cause?

A

Obstructive

133
Q

What causes antigenic drift in influenza virus?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase errors during replication lead to single amino acid changes in HA or NA sites that reduce affinity of neutralising antibodies.

These viruses will be selected for, and a new strain will emerge

134
Q

What is the defining feature of the histopathology of restrictive lung diseases?

A

Inflammation and fibrosis of inter-alveolar septa (interstitium)

135
Q

Low pH and high PaCO2 = what?

A

Respiratory acidosis

136
Q

There is chemotaxis of which cell type in the delayed phase of asthma?

A

Mast cells

Lymphocytes

Eosinophils

Macrophages

Basophils

137
Q

What type of respiratory disease does asthma cause?

A

Obstructive

138
Q

Give a 2 word definition of asthma

A

Reversible bronchoconstriction

139
Q

What percentage of people have viridans streptococci in their URT?

A

100%

140
Q

What kind of flow occurs in small airways?

A

Laminar

141
Q

What information about sputum must be obtained during history taking?

A

Colour

Volume

Thickness

Pus

Blood

142
Q

HIgh pH and normal PaCO2 = what?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

143
Q

What type of breathing pattern would be adopted by a person with stiff lungs?

A

Rapid shallow breaths

144
Q

The transition from terminal bronchioles to respiratory bronchioles is marked by which histological feature?

A

Breaks in the continuity of the walls

145
Q

What is haemoptysis?

A

Coughed up blood

146
Q

What is the most common valvular disease in Western world?

A

Aortic stenosis

147
Q

What are the side effects of short acting beta 2 agonits?

A

tachycardia,

tremor and

hypokalemia

148
Q

Which lung volumes are reduced in restrictive respiratory diseases?

A

All lung volumes are decreased

149
Q

List 4 histological featrues of interstitial pneumonia

A

1 Lymphocytes, macrophages and plasma cells present in the alveolar septa (ie interstitium)
2 Alveolar septa are widened
3 No inflammatory cells in the alveoli
4 Bronchiolitis

150
Q

Define cor pulmonale

A

Right sided heart failure caused by pulmonary hypertension

151
Q

What type of respiratory disease does COPD cause?

A

Obstructive

152
Q

What is the medical way of saying runny nose?

A

Corryza

153
Q

What do we call pus in the pleural space?

A

Empyema

154
Q

What is the majority of acute epiglottitis caused by?

A

Haemohpilus influenzae Type B

155
Q

What type of respiratory disorder does pulmonary oedema cause?

A

Restrictive

156
Q

If the lung is full of fluid, how will vocal resonance sound?

A

Louder

157
Q

What are 3 distinguishing features of the right main bronchus compared with the left main bronchus?

A

Shorter, wider and more vertical

158
Q

What is a typical residual volume?

A

1200ml

159
Q

What is the most numerous cell in the alveolus?

A

Type 2 pneumocyte

160
Q

How much CO2 is produced at rest?

A

200ml/min

161
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia?

A

Pneumococcus

162
Q

How would you distinguish haemoptysis from haematemesis on history taking?

A

Prodome: (irriation in chest or desire to cough)

Colour: bright red = haemoptysis; dark red = haematemesis

Frothiness: frothy = haemoptysis; not frothy = haematemesis

Pain: localised to URT, chest, or epigastric

163
Q

If there is a pneumothorax, how will vocal resonance sound?

A

Duller/softer

164
Q

What is a typical tidal volume?

A

500 ml

165
Q

An abnormally low FEV1/FVC implies what type of respiratory dysfunction?

A

Obstructive

166
Q

Is gas diffusion across the A-C membrane perfusion- or diffusion-limited

A

Perfusion

167
Q

Define sputum

A

Expectorated product

168
Q

At what level of the respiratory system do airways lose cartilage in their walls?

A

Bronchioles

169
Q

What percentage of pneumonia is due to bacteria?

A

85%

170
Q

How many people out of 100,000 in Australia have tuberculosis?

A

4

171
Q

How is TB transmitted between people?

A

Infected aerosolised droplets

172
Q

What is under nervous control within the lungs?

A

Mucous production and diameter of bronchi

173
Q

What are the 3 broad causes of pulmonary HT?

A

Increased left atrial pressure (eg mitral stenosis)

Increased pulmonary blood flow (eg excess central volume)

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (eg emphysema, embolism)

174
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of the common cold?

A

Rhinovirus and coronavirus

175
Q

How is Type 1 respiratory failure diagnosed?

A

PaO2 less than 50 mmHg, with evidence of respiratory compensation.

176
Q

Where would painful irritation of the diaphragmatic pleura be experienced?

A

Pain in the lateral neck and supraclavicular region of the shoulder (C3-C5 dermatomes)

177
Q

How could you assess whether alveolar ventilation is adequate?

A

PaCO2

178
Q

What is miliary TB?

A

Mycobacterium TB that has spread through blood to infect other organs

179
Q

What is a normal PACO2?

A

40mmHg

180
Q

List 5 clinical features of pneumonia

A

1 Intractible cough

2 that is productive of green/yellow sputum

3 fever and chills

4 Chest pain (if pleural inflamed)

5 Impaired gas exchange –> dyspnoea and tachypnoea

181
Q

Sleep deprivation of how long will result in cognitive performance equivalent to BAC of 0.05?

A

18-24 hours

182
Q

What happens to PaCO2 during sleep?

A

Increases from 40 to 45mmHg

183
Q

How many sleep cycles are there in a night typically?

A

4-6

184
Q

What is a typical length of a sleep cycle?

A

90-120 mins

185
Q

Where does the suprachiasmatic nucleus project to?

A

Paraventricular nucleus

186
Q

Which nucleus in the brain releases histamine?

A

Tuberomammilary nucleus

187
Q

Which nucleus in the brain is activated by adenosin and depleted ATP and inhibits ascending cholinergic and monoaminergic neurones to promote sleep?

A

Ventro-lateral preoptic nucleus

188
Q

Do you get fibrosis in emphysema?

A

No

189
Q

In percussion of the chest, how will different tisuues sound from dullest to most resonant

A

Fluid -> Solid organs -> Lung -> Air

190
Q

What type of noradrinergic receptors are found in the lungs?

A

Beta 2 (because you have 2 lungs)

191
Q

Which nerve passes in front of the lung root?

A

Phrenic nerve

192
Q

Which nerve passes behind the lung root?

A

Vagus nerve

193
Q

At what vertebral level does the trachea begin?

A

C6

194
Q

What is the difference between T1 and T2 respiratory failure?

A

T1- A failure to oxygenate causes a decrease in oxygen saturations and PaO2
Oxygen is 1 word
Therefore, a failure to oxygenate is type 1 respiratory failure

Conditions that cause issues with gas exchange (perfusion) and can eventually lead to type 1 respiratory failure include: Acute pulmonary oedema, Pneumonia, Pulmonary embolism

T2- A failure to ventilate causes an increase in carbon dioxide levels
Carbon dioxide is 2 words
Therefore, a failure to ventilate is type 2 respiratory failure.

Conditions that cause issues with ventilation and can eventually lead to type 2 respiratory failure include: COPD, conditions with reduction in volume capacity (Pneumothorax, Pleural effusion), Airway obstruction (Asthma, anaphylaxis)

https://bloggingforyournoggin.wordpress.com/2016/03/12/respiratory-failure-type-1-or-type-2/

195
Q

Define perfusion, ventilation and diffusion.

A

Perfusion is the blood flow through the capillary bed (be it the lungs or the target tissues).

Ventilation is the filling of the alveoli with oxygen-rich air.

Diffusion is the passive movement across a gradient.

196
Q

Mnemonic: my leg is clammy

What are the three most common causes of atypical pneumonia?

A

Clamydophila pneumoniae

Legionella pneumophila

mycoplasma pneumoniae

197
Q

What causes the wheal and flare during a type 1 hypersensitivity test?

A

The first is the wheal, which is a pale raised welt on the skin caused by a rush of serum released by mast cells, specialized cells that float around in the body looking for potential allergens and other troublemakers. The flare is caused by the dilation of blood vessels in the surrounding area, creating a halo of red, flushed skin that surrounds the wheal.

198
Q

Cushings and SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH) are paraneoplastic syndromes secondary to what type of cancer?

A

Small cell carcinoma (neuroendocrine carcinoma)

199
Q

PTHrP is elevated in what type of lung cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

MD1 FBS (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions