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MD1 FBS > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Define nucleocapsid

A

The capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid.

Nucleic acid + capsid

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2
Q

What is the size of a virus?

A

0.02 - 0.04 um

= 20 - 40 nm

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3
Q

Define virion

A

The virus particle

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4
Q

What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?

A

Viral infection

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5
Q

Define the viral envelope

A

Lipid membrane surrounding either the capsid or nucleocapsid that is formed by the host cells’ membrane (not present in all viruses)

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6
Q

What do naked viruses lack?

A

An envelope

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7
Q

Define capsid

A

The protective protein coat shell around the viral genome and forming the core of the virus particle

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8
Q

What are the 2 main differences between the gram positive and the gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram negative bacteria have a smaller/thinner peptidoglycan layer and they have an additional outer/superficial plasma membrane.

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9
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Spirochete

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10
Q

What is the funciton of the bacterial flagella?

A

Locomotion

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11
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplococci

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12
Q

What are the 3 main components of the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

N-acetyl-glucosamine, N-acetyl-muramic acid and a short peptide chain

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13
Q

What shape is a bacillus bacteria?

A

Rod

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14
Q

What are 3 functions of the bacterial capsule?

A

increases virulence

protects against phagocytosis

prevents dehydration..

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15
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptococci

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16
Q

What is the size of a bacterium?

A

1-2 um

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17
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplobacillus

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18
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptobacilli

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19
Q

What shape is a coccus bacteria?

A

Spherical

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20
Q

In the peptidoglycan wall of the bacterium, how are the peptide chains connected?

A

Pentapeptide bridges

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21
Q

What are the 3 most common sites of microbe entry?

A

The GI tract, skin and respiratory tracts

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22
Q

Define cellulitis

A

An infection of the deep layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues by bacteria

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23
Q

An offensive smelling wound suggests what?

A

Infection by anaerobic bacteria

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24
Q

What type of bacteria release endotoxin?

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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25
Q

What does the catalse test assess?

A

Tests whether microbe can break down hydrogen peroxide: 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2

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26
Q

What does the coagulase test assess?

A

Tests whether the microbe can clot plasma by converting fibrinogen to fibrin

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27
Q

What is CHA medium?

A

Chocolate horse blood agar: same as HBA but heated to lyse RBCs and release nutrients

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28
Q

What type of haemolysis is clear haemolysis?

A

Beta haemolysis

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29
Q

What type of haemolysis is greening haemolysis?

A

Alpha haemolysis

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30
Q

What colour will beta haemolysis create?

A

Clear

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31
Q

What colour will alpha haemolysis create?

A

Green

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32
Q

What is MacConkey agar enriched with?

A

Bile salts

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33
Q

Bright pink appearance on a MAC plate indicates what?

A

Lactose fermenter

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34
Q

Pale appearance on a MAC plate indicates what?

A

Non-lactose fermenter

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35
Q

Where do RNA viruses generally replicate?

A

in the cytosol

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36
Q

When are non-enveloped viruses released from a host cell?

A

When the host cell lyses

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37
Q

What do we call the period between a virus infecting a cell and the intracellular number of viruses rising?

A

Eclipse period

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38
Q

What must a negative strand viruses bring preformed with it when it infects a cell?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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39
Q

What are the 2 ways a virus may penetrate a cell?

A

1 Fuse with the plasma membrane

2 Use receptor mediated endocytosis

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40
Q

What do we call the period between a virus infecting a cell and extracellular viruses appearing?

A

Latent period

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41
Q

What do all viruses need to replicate?

A

plus sense RNA

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42
Q

What type of infection is it called when a virus infects a cell, but does not harm the cell and only emerges at a later time as a lytic infeciton

A

Latent infection (eg herpesvirus)

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43
Q

Varicella-zoster, Epstein-Barr and cytomegalovirus are all examples of what ‘family’ of viruses?

A

Herpesvirus

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44
Q

What is the most important/common route of entry for viruses intot he human body?

A

Respiratory system

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45
Q

What type of symetry does the capsid of all non-enveloped viruses have?

A

An icosahedral structure.

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46
Q

What type of infection is it where a virus infects a cell and slowly releases virus particles without killing the host cell?

A

Chronic infection

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47
Q

What do virus-infected cells release to prevent neighbours from replicating thus protecting them from infection?

A

Interferons

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48
Q

Where are structural virus-encoded proteins translated?

A

Ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the host cell

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49
Q

Which protein does a virus needs to replicate, which humans don’t have?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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50
Q

Name 2 ways an enveloped virus can leave the host cell

A

1 Budding off from cell plasma membrane

2 Golgi-formed vesicles are exocytosed

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51
Q

Where do DNA viruses generally replicate?

A

In the nucleus

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52
Q

Which helminth can grow up to 30-40 cm?

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

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53
Q

What symptoms do scabies cause?

A

Intense itchiness and dermatitis

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54
Q

What is the only helminth that can complete its life cycle in a human host?

A

Strongyloides

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55
Q

What is a roundworm known as?

A

Nematode

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56
Q

Where may Giardia lamblia live in humans?

A

Duodenum

57
Q

What are helminths known as?

A

Worms

58
Q

Which organ does entamoeba histolytica typically invade?

A

Colon

59
Q

Name two helminths that can infect humans directly though the skin

A

Schistosoma mansoni

Strongyoides stercoralis

60
Q

What is the pathogen in head lice?

A

Pediculis capitis

61
Q

What is the pathogen in scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

62
Q

What is the pathogen in pubic lice?

A

Phthirus pubis

63
Q

Which parts of the body do scabies like to infect?

A

Fingerwebs, elbows, axillae, genitals

64
Q

Which is the most comon disease-causing amoeba in humans?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

65
Q

Host in which development occurs but the parasite does not reach sexual maturity. How is this descibed?

A

Intermediate host.

66
Q

What is a very common non-human host of toxoplasma gondii in Australia?

A

Cats

67
Q

What is enterobius vermicularis better known as?

A

Pin worm

68
Q

Whihc tick is the pathogenic agent in rapid ascending paralysis?

A

Ixodes holocyclus

69
Q

What is lice infection generically known as?

A

Pediculosis

70
Q

Name two type of adhesins used by bacteria

A

Fimbriae and intimin

71
Q

How do helminths respire?

A

Through their skin

72
Q

In which countries are schistosoma mansoni likely to be acquired?

A

Africa, South America, Carribean

73
Q

How many people in the world are infected with a helminth?

A

>1 billion

74
Q

What effect does vancomycin have on microbiota?

A

Vancomycin decreases diversity of microbiota, which may be enduring

75
Q

How does strongyloides stercoralis infect a human?

A

Through skin

76
Q

How does scabies spread?

A

Direct skin to skin contact

77
Q

Which helminth causes hydatid cysts?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

78
Q

What do we call the host in which the parasite reaches sexual maturity?

A

Definitive host

79
Q

What is the pathogen in body hair lice?

A

Pediculus humanis

80
Q

How is infection with schistosoma mansonii acquired?

A

Exposure to infected fresh water

81
Q

Which helminths are known to sit in the gut, consume energy and cause weight loss?

A

Tapeworms

82
Q

What is a very severe complication of tick infection?

A

Generalised rapid ascending paralysis

83
Q

Where do ectoparasites live?

A

On or near dermal surface

84
Q

Which type of helminths cause neurocystercercosis?

A

Taeniae

85
Q

Define parasite

A

A plant or animal…

that lives on or in another living organism….

on which it is metabolically dependent

86
Q

Where do body louse lay their eggs?

A

Clothing

87
Q

What is the classical pathology caused by taenia solium?

A

Neurocystercercosis

88
Q

Which two bacteria predominate in the gut microbiota?

A

Fimicutes and bateroidetes

89
Q

Which generations of cephalosporin are better for gram negative bacteria?

A

Later generations

90
Q

How long must a mosquito have malaria before it can transmit it to a human?

A

2 weeks

91
Q

What are 4 disadvantages of killed vaccines?

A

Weaker immune response

High dose

Need adjuvants

Expensive

92
Q

What is pyocyanin?

A

Turquoise pus produced by eg pseudomonas aeruginosa

93
Q

What is the significance of Ps. aeruginosa being non-fermenting and non-sporing?

A

It has low nutritional requirements

94
Q

What is the form of malaria that a mosquito may infect a human with?

A

Sporozoite

95
Q

What stage of the malaria lifecycle is released from hepatocytes?

A

Merozoite

96
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

97
Q

Which type of malaria causes the majority of severe malaria and death?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

98
Q

What does nosocomial epidemic mean?

A

Institutional epidemic (eg hospital, nursing home, school)

99
Q

What type of bacteria is pseudomonas aeruginosa? Gram pos/neg, coccus/rod

A

Gram negative rod

100
Q

What is the main weapon of the immune system in targeting the blood stage of malaria?

A

Antibodies

101
Q

With diurnal variation, when is temperature lowest?

A

Morning

102
Q

What are the clinical features of cerebral malaria?

A

Impaired consciousness, coma, convulsions and long term neurological sequelae

103
Q

What is the single most important preventative technique for opportunistic infections?

A

Hand hygiene

104
Q

What is the optimum temperatture for immune, endocrine and phsyiological mechanisms?

A

39.5 C

105
Q

What is group A strep also known as?

A

Strep pyogenes

106
Q

What oral temperature defines a fever in the morning?

A

37.2

107
Q

What is the difference between oral temperature and core body temperature?

A

Oral less than core temp by 0.5C

108
Q

What oral temperature defines a fever at any time of day?

A

37.8

109
Q

Malaria is most common in people who are travelling for what reason?

A

Visiting friends or family

110
Q

How long does malaria incubate in the liver for?

A

7-10 days

111
Q

What is the difference between axillary temperature and core body temperature?

A

Axillary temp < core body temp by 1C

112
Q

What does saprophytic mean?

A

An organism can obtain nutrients from dead organic matter

113
Q

What stage of the malaria lifecycle will infect RBCs?

A

Merozoite

114
Q

What are the two main types of malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum and plasmodium vivax

115
Q

At what stage of the life cycle is the malaria protozoa when it infects hepatocytes?

A

Sporozoite

116
Q

Which bacteria will often infect a burn in hospital?

A

Staph aureus

117
Q

What is a fomite?

A

An inanimate object capable of carrying microorganisms eg stethoscope

118
Q

If someone presents with an acute fever, what are some warning signs of a more serious underlying illnes?

A

Rigors, rapid evolution, severe muscle pains, impaired conscious state, vomiting, severe headache, rash, jaundice, hypotension, cyanosis, tachypnoea

119
Q

By what process does pseudomonas aeruginosa turn on/off many genes when in a biofilm?

A

Quorum sensing

120
Q

What are the symptoms of mild malaria?

A

Flu like illness with fever, headache and malaise

121
Q

Travelling to what part of the world will give you the highest chance of developing traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

South Asia

122
Q

With diurnal variation, when is temperature highest?

A

Afternoon

123
Q

Which types of malaria can be transmitted from human to human?

A

NONE

124
Q

What is the most common mode of disease transmission in a traveller?

A

Vector borne

125
Q

What are the 3 criteria for pyrexia of unknown origin?

A

Prlonged illness (2-3 weeks duration)

Fever > 38.3 on several occasions

No Dx after intelligent Ix

126
Q

Where does pseudomonas aeruginosa love to grow?

A

In moist environments

127
Q

What is the normal oral temperature range?

A

35.8-37.8

128
Q

What are 3 disadvantages of living vaccines that can cause disease?

A

Back mutation

Spread

Contamination

129
Q

What symptoms are evident during the liver stage of malaria?

A

None

130
Q

What is the most common preventable medical condition in travellers?

A

Influenza

131
Q

Which is closer to core body temperature: oral, axillary or ear?

A

Ear

132
Q

What is the main weapon of the immune system in targeting the liver stage of malaria

A

Cytotoxic T cells

133
Q

Which type of malaria is most common in sub-Saharan Africa?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

134
Q

What are 4 advantages of killed vaccines?

A

Stable

Contamination unlikely

Can’t spread

Safe for immunodeficient

135
Q

Which nucleus of the hypothalamus controls temperature set point?

A

Pre-optic

136
Q

What are 3 advantages of living vaccines?

A

Broader immune response

Local immunity

Ease of administration

137
Q

Which type of malaria is most common in central/South America and south east Asia?

A

Plasmodium vivax

138
Q

Which generations of cephalosporin are better for gram positive bacteria?

A

Earlier generations (and 4th generation)

139
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for staph aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

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