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MD1 FBS > Foundation block > Flashcards

Foundation block Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 5 isotypes of Ig and what each is specialised for.

A

IgM - First responder. Activates classical pathway of complement cascade.
IgA - present in mucosa. Neutralises
IgG - Most common. Neutralises and opsonises. Antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC); flag for NK cells
IgE - Elevated in parasitic infections and allergy. Degranulation.
IgD - rarest. Expressed on B cells

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2
Q

What type of ttissue is this?

A

Skeletal muscle

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3
Q

Which three substances mediate vasodilation in inflammation?

A

Histamine, NO, prostaglandin PGE2

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4
Q

What is the function of glycoproteins of the basement membrane? What is an example of a glycoprotein?

A

They anchor integrins of epithelial cells to ECM of the underlying connective tissue.
Example: Laminin 5 which links integrins from epitehlial cells

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5
Q

What is the structure of elastin?

A

Made of an elastin core surrounded by network of fibrilin myofibrils

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6
Q

Name these ligaments

A

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

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7
Q

Name these ligaments

A

A Supraspinous ligament

B Ligamentum flavum

C Posterior longitudinal ligament

D Anterior longitudinal ligament

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8
Q

What are the 4 functions of surface epitheliia?

A

Protection

Selective barrier

Absorption

Secretion

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9
Q

What type of fibres is elastin made of?

A

Thin and branched

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10
Q

Name 6 locations where stratified squamous epithelium is found

A

Skin (keratinised)

Oral cavity

Oesophagus

Vagina

Anus

Ectocervix

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11
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

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12
Q

Name 2 types of mononuclear leukocytes. Describe their cell lineage. What progenitor cells are they each derived from?

A

HSC –> MPP –> CLP –> lymphocytes T, NK and B cells (& Dendrites)

HSC –> MPP –> CMP –> Granulocyte monocyte progenitor –> Monocyte progenitor –> monocyte

HSC= haematopoeitic cell
MPP= multipotent progenitor

CLP= common lymphoid progentior

CMP= common myeloid progenitor

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13
Q

Define autolysis

Why is it relevant to a pathologist?

How is it remedied?

A

When cells are removed from body, they start to break down almost immediately (autolysis).

This would make it hard for pathologist to know whether the tissue was pathological before biopsy.

Treat with formalin to fix the tissue and prevent autolysis; or cool tissue to slow autolysis

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14
Q

An acidophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?

A

Eosin

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15
Q

What is type III collagen also known as?

A

Reticulin

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16
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

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17
Q

Which two forces (and in which direction) are responsible for oedema in inflammation?

A

1 Increased hydrostatic pressure

2 Decreased coloidal osmotic pressure

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18
Q

Define nucleocapsid

A

The capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid.

Nucleic acid + capsid

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19
Q

List 5 features of slow twitch fibres (Type I)

A

1 for running a marathon;

2 red because of many mitochondria;

3 aerobic respiration;

4 resist fatigue;

5 low tension developed.

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20
Q

What is the function of myoepithelial cells?

A

surround some exocrine glands to squeeze out contents

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21
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

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22
Q

What is the size of a virus?

A

0.02 - 0.04 um

= 20 - 40 nm

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23
Q

Explain the physiologic basis of muscle contraction

A

Nerve impulse depolarises cell membrane.

T tubules conduct AP from membrane to SR.

AP causes SR to release Ca2+

Actin and myosin detach and reattach to each other, pulling Z discs closer together to shorten sarcomere.

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24
Q

What colour will an eosinophilic structure stain?

A

Pink/orange

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25
Q

What is the main function of elastin and give 3 examples of tissue it is found in

A

Provides recoil to certain tissues, esp skin, lungs and large arteries such as aorta

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26
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are connective tissue derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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27
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are epithelia derived from?

A

All 3 (endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm)

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28
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

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29
Q

What is the maximum resolving power of a light microscope and of an electron microscope?

A
  1. 2 um
  2. 2 nm
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30
Q

What are the 3 features of dysentery?

A

Blood, pus and mucus in stool

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31
Q
A

A Levator scapulae

B Trapezius

C Rhomboid

D Latisimus dorsi

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32
Q

How many genes in the human genome?

A

21,000 to 25,000

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33
Q

List 5 features of fast twitch (Type IIb) fibres

A

1 for sprinting/lifting weights;

2 white because few mitochondria;

3 anaerobic respiration;

4 fatigable;

5 high tension developed

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34
Q

CD4+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?

A

Helper T cells

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35
Q

Where is ciliated, pseudocstratified columnar epithelium found?

A

Respiratory tract

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36
Q

Where is bradykinin derived from?

A

Plasma proteins

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37
Q

Transaminases in the blood indicates what?

A

Liver damage

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38
Q

What are the 3 causes of hypoxia?

A

1 ischaemic,

1 failure of gas exchange at lung,

2 failure of blood carrying O2

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39
Q

Fatty necrosis is classically seen in which condition?

A

Acute pancreatitis

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40
Q

What is the main function of collagen?

A

Provides tensile strength

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41
Q

Where is type 4 collagen found?

A

Basement membrane

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42
Q

What are the 2 main differences between the gram positive and the gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram negative bacteria have a smaller/thinner peptidoglycan layer and they have an additional outer/superficial plasma membrane.

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43
Q

What is the difference between exudate and transudate?

What is the key pathophysiological reason for this difference?

A

Transudate is buildup of fluid in interstital compartment, whereas exudate is also rich in proteins and cells.

Key difference is that exudate is formed when interendothelial gaps develop and allow extravasation of proteins

An exudate is an extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and contains cellular debris. Its presence implies permeability increase of small blood vessels triggered by injury and an ongoing inflammation reaction

A transudate is a fluid with low protein concentration, little to no cellular material and low specific gravity.

Oedema denotes an excess of fluid in the interstitial tissue and can be either exudate or transudate.

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44
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Spirochete

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45
Q

What is the funciton of the bacterial flagella?

A

Locomotion

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46
Q

What are parenchymal cells of an organ?

A

The functional cells in an organ

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47
Q

A raised neutrophil count indicates what?

A

acute inflammation, especially seen in bacterial infections

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48
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplococci

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49
Q

What is the diameter of a platelet cell?

A

2-4 um

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50
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Lymphocyte

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51
Q

Cerebral infarction typically shows which type of necrosis?

A

Liqueficative

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52
Q

What is the function of pericytes?

A

wrap around capillaries to regulate blood flow

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53
Q

Where will lymph from the back drain to?

A

Axillary lymph nodes

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54
Q

What are simple squamous epithelia specialised for?

A

Diffusion and protection from abrasion

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55
Q

Thoracic vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

A

Coronal

Rotation in coronal plane

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56
Q

What are transitional epithelia specialised for?

A

Stretch/elasticity

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57
Q
A

A Annulus fibrosus

B Nucleus pulposus

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58
Q

Caseouos necrosis is classically seen in which disease?

A

Tuberculosis

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59
Q
A
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60
Q

List 4 examples of PAMPs

A

Lipopolysaccharide

Flagellin

Peptidoglycan

Viral DNA

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61
Q

What colour does Haematoxylin stain?

A

Blue

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62
Q

Which are the only cells that can produce antibodies?

A

B cells/plasma cells

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63
Q

Lumbar vertebrae: in what plane are their articular facets and what movement does this permit?

A

Sagittal

Flexion/extension

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64
Q

What are the 3 most common sites of microbe entry?

A

The GI tract, skin and respiratory tracts

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65
Q

Which 3 criteria are used to define a virus family?

A

1 Kind of nucleic acid (ss or ds RNA or DNA)
2 Strategy of replication
3 Morphology of the virion (symmetry of capsid, naked vs enveloped)

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66
Q

Which WBC has a bilobed nucleus?

A

Eosinophils and basophils

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67
Q
A

A = Z disc

B = myosin = thick filament

C = actin = thin filament

D = Sarcomere

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68
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

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69
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

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70
Q

Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

A

Basophils OR Monocytes

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71
Q

Define metaplasia

A

One differentiated cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is reversibly replaced with another cell type

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72
Q

Name 5 features of the bacterial genome that are different from the human genome

A

1) A single chromosome
2) in a nucleoid with no nuclear membrane
3) single double-stranded DNA that is looped and supercoiled,
4) No introns or exons;
5) bacteria may also have plasmids;

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73
Q

Define dystrophic calcification and give an example

A

Abornal calcium depostits dye to damaged or necrotic tissue that has not been completely removed (eg atherosclerotic plaques)

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74
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

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75
Q

In which 4 locations are simple squamous epithelia found?

A

Endothelium,

mesothelium,

alveoli,

glomerulus

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76
Q

Elevated CRP levels indicates what?

What does CRP stand for?

A

Acute inflammation

C reactive protein

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77
Q

What is the function of microvilli?

A

Increase surface area for absorption and secretion

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78
Q

Define virion

A

The virus particle

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79
Q

What is the diametre of an RBC?

A

7.2 microns

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80
Q

On what basis did Woese classify all living things?

A

Ribosomal RNA

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81
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

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82
Q

What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?

A

Viral infection

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83
Q

What is the lifespan of an RBC?

A

120 days

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84
Q

Explain the 3 levels of structure in a peripheral nerve

A

1 Single axon ( often wrapped in myelin) wrapped in endoneurium.

2 Bundle of axons form a fascicle, surrounded by perineurium.

3 Bundle of fascicles form a peripheral nerve. Nerve surrounded by epineurium.

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85
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Staphylococci

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86
Q

What are the functions of histamine in inflammation?

A

1 Vasodilation

2 Endothelial contraction –> increased permeability of microcirculation

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87
Q

Define partial agonist

A

A drug that fails to produce maximal effects even when all receptors are bound by the drug

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88
Q

What is involution?

A

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand

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89
Q

CD8+ T cells are also known as what type of T cell?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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90
Q

What are the 8 cardinal features of pain?

A

Site

Quality

Severity

Time course

Context

Relieving factors

Aggravating factors

Associated features

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91
Q

What colour does eosin stain?

A

Pink/orange

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92
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the bacterial cell wall?

A

1) Prevents osmotic lysis
2) Gives bacteria its shape

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93
Q

What is the structure of collagen?

A

Formed by a triple helix of polypeptides called alpha chains

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94
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Cardiac muscle

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95
Q

Which germ layer is muscle derived from?

A

Mesoderm

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96
Q

What is the gold standard for identifying a virus?

A

VIral cultivation

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97
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

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98
Q

Give 2 examples of dense regular connective tissue

A

Tendons and ligaments

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99
Q

Define metastatic calcification

A

Abnormal calcium deposits due to hypercalcaemia.

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100
Q

Define potency

A

Potency is the amount of drug required to produce 50% of the maximal response the drug is capable of inducing

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101
Q

Define PAMPs

A

Molecular patterns found on micro-organisms, but not humans, that are recognised as non-self by cells of the innate immune system

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102
Q

What are simple columnar epithelia specialised for?

A

secretion and absorption

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103
Q

Define the viral envelope

A

Lipid membrane surrounding either the capsid or nucleocapsid that is formed by the host cells’ membrane (not present in all viruses)

Contains virus-encoded glycoproteins

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104
Q

Between which 2 layers is the basement membrane found?

A

Epithelium and underlying connective tissue

105
Q

Describe the 4 steps in the mechanism of cell wall damage activating inflammation

A

1 Cell membrane damage activates phospholipase A2

2 Membrane lipids –> arachadonic acid

3 AA –> PG

4 PG –> leukotrienes

106
Q

What are the 3 main components of the bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall?

A

N-acetyl-glucosamine, N-acetyl-muramic acid and a short peptide chain

107
Q

What shape is a bacillus bacteria?

A

Rod

108
Q

Which structures do posterior rami innervate?

A

Erector spinae

Overlying skin of the back

Facet joints

109
Q

What are the three essential features of a receptor?

A

1 A biological macromolecule or complex …

2 That binds to another molecule ….

3 and affects activity within a cell

110
Q

Define cellulitis

A

An infection of the deep layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissues by bacteria

111
Q

Pink on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?

A

Cationic and eosinophilic

112
Q

Describe 3 steps in fibrinoid necrosis

A

1 Deposited immune cells in blood vessels

2 Fibrin leakage

3 Necrosis

113
Q

What colour will an acidophilic structure bind?

A

Pink/orange

114
Q

Define abscess

A

A localised collection of pus and necrotic tissue surrounded by inflamed tissues

115
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Megakaryocyte

116
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Skeletal muscle

117
Q

Describe the mechanism of exudate formation

A

1 Vasodilation

2 Increased hydrostative pressure in capillary

3 Increased permeability of capillary wall due to contaction or retraction of endothelial cells

4 Escape of protein- and cell-rich fluid into interstitial comparment

5 Decrease in colloidal osmotic pressure

118
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

119
Q

Define efficacy of a drug

A
  • Efficacy is the probability of a drug activating a receptor once bound
  • Aka the degree to which a drug is able to produce maximal effects
120
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to the drug

121
Q

What does Increased eosinophils indicate?

A

allergy and parasitic infections

122
Q

In immunology, what does PRR stand for?

A

Pattern recognition receptor

123
Q

What are the 7 causes of celll injury?

A

Hypoxia
Chemicals and drugs
Micro-organisms
Metabolic
Immune
Nutritional
Genetic

124
Q

What are the 3 types of fibre in connective tissue?

A

Collagen

Elastin

(trick q there’s only 2 >:) )

125
Q

Name these structures

A

A Vertebral body

B Lamina

C Spinous process

D Transverse process

E Pedicle

126
Q

What type of cell is this?

Describe 3 features that support your answer

A

Skeletal muscle

Striated

Multi nucleate

Peripheral nuclei

127
Q

What are the 2 primary lymphoid organs?

A

Bone marrow and thymus

128
Q

What is the function of myofibroblasts?

A

pull together damaged connective tissue to promote wound healing.

129
Q

Name 2 locations where simple columnar, ciliated epithelial cells are found

A

Bronchioles

Fallopian tube

130
Q

Blue on an H and E slide indicates what kind of compound?

A

Acidic or anionic

131
Q

What is the function of reticulin?

A

It creates a supportive network for delicate organs such as the liver

132
Q

Name 7 locations where simple columnar, non-ciliated epithelial cells are found

A

Stomach

Small intestine

Large intestine

Gall bladder

Bile ducts

Endocervix

Endometrium

133
Q

List the 3 secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen

Lymph nodes

Mucosal associated lymphatic tissue

134
Q

Define eedema.

A

Excessive fluid in interstitial compartment or body cavities

135
Q

What do naked viruses lack?

A

An envelope

136
Q

What are the 4 main functions of the basement membrane?

A

1) controls epithelial growth
2) selectively permeable barrier to nutrients
3) structural support
4) links epithelium to underlying tissue

137
Q

List the 4 main function of connective tissue

A

Structural support

Metabolic support

Immune defence

Tissue repair

138
Q

Which germ layer(s) is/are neurones derived from?

A

Ectoderm

139
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Neutrophil

140
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

141
Q

What is the function of collagen type VII

A

Links basement membrane to underlying connective tissue

142
Q

What are 3 functions of the bacterial capsule?

A

increases virulence

protects against phagocytosis

prevents dehydration..

143
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

144
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

A

Kidney /bean shaped or eccentric oval

145
Q

What type of collagen is basement membrane predominantly made of?

A

Type IV collagen

146
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

147
Q

What does DAMPs stand for?

A

Damage associated molecular patterns

148
Q

What is the funciton of epithelial cilia?

A

Rhythmic beating for movement of eg mucus out of respiratory tract or ovum along fallopian tube

149
Q

How long after entering tissue until neutrophils die?

A

Within hours

150
Q

Which vitamin is required for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

151
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptococci

152
Q

List 3 places where type 1 collagen is found

A

Bone, tendons and ligaments

153
Q

What is the size of a bacterium?

A

1-2 um

154
Q

List 7 examples of permanent resident cells in connective tissue

A

Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, osteoblasts, chondrocytes, adipocytes

155
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

156
Q

What are stromal cells?

A

Supportive cells in an organ

157
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet cell?

A

8-10 days

158
Q

Define atrophy

A

A reduction in tissue or organ size due to decrease in cell size and number and thus decreased metabolic activity

159
Q

A decrease in cell number due to reduced functional demand is termed what?

A

Involution

160
Q

In inflammation, which 3 substances causes an increase in inter-endotheilal gaps?

A

Histamine, bradykinin and leukotrines

161
Q

Define hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number resulting in increased organ size/mass

162
Q

List 5 ways in which necrosis and apoptosis differ

A

Necrosis Apoptosis

Reversibility Yes, if early No

Inflammation Yes Minimal

Area Large Small # cells

Cell swelling Yes No

Cell membrane Disrupted Intact

163
Q

What does eosin bind to?

A

Cationic tissue (ie positively charged)

164
Q

In the peptidoglycan wall of the bacterium, how are the peptide chains connected?

A

Pentapeptide bridges

165
Q

What is the key feature of each of the 3 muscle types on light microscopy of a longitudinal section?

A

1 Skeletal = single nucleus at periphery of cell

2 Cardiac = central nuclei in branching fibres

3 Smooth = central elongated nuclei

166
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

167
Q

A basophilic tissue will have an affinity for which dye?

A

Haematoxylin

168
Q

What is an immature RBC called?

A

Reticulocyte

169
Q

What colour will a basophilic structure stain?

A

Blue

170
Q

Where is type II collagen found?

A

cartilage

171
Q

Describe laminar blood flow and the relative positions of WBCs, platelets and RBCs

A

Larger components of blood are in centre of lumen, thus WBC > RBC > platelets from centre to periphery.

172
Q

Which WBC has a multil-lobed nucleus?

A

Neutrophils

173
Q

What does PAMPS stand for?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns

174
Q

Describe 3 steps in the pathophysiology of stasis in inflammation

A

1 Plasma fluid leaves vascular circulation, slowing blood flow

2 RBCs conglomerate

3 Laminar flow is altered and WBCs are marginated

175
Q

What groups did Woese divide all living things into?

A

Eukarya, archaea and bacteria.

176
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord stop?

A

L1/L2

177
Q

List the 5 commonest patterns of necrosis

A

Coagulative

Liquefecation

Casseous

Fat necrosis

Fibrinoid

178
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size, organ size and functional activity

179
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

180
Q

Where is histamine derived from?

A

Mast cells in pre-formed granules

181
Q

In which two locations are simple cuboidal epithelia found?

A

Thyroid follicles and renal tubules

182
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

183
Q

What is the function of desmosomes/adherens junctions between epithelial cells?

A

Strong mechanical attachments between cells, linking their cytoskeletons

184
Q

Which is the largest WBC?

A

Monocyte

185
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

186
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Diplobacillus

187
Q

What are the 3 main groups of plasma proteins?

A

Globulins, albumin and coagulants

188
Q

Name the 6 types of atypical connective tissue

A

Bone.
Cartilage.
Blood.
Adipose.
Haematopoietic.

Lymphatic

189
Q

Where is bradykinin derived from?

A

Plasma proteins

190
Q
A

A Articular facet for head of rib

B Superior/inferior articular facet

C Articular facet for tubercle of rib

191
Q

What are stratified squamous epithelia specialised for?

A

protection from abrasion

192
Q

Erector spinae muscles:

How would you identify them by palpation?

What movements do they support?

A

Between spinous process and ribs

Extension/flexion of the back

193
Q

What is the function of communicating/nexus/gap junctions between epithelial cells?

A

Allows passage of small molecules for communication

194
Q

Coagulative necrosis is typical of which damage to what type of organs?

A

Typical of infarction of solid organs (but not brain).

195
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

196
Q

What type of bacteria is this?

A

Streptobacilli

197
Q

Define capsid

A

The protective protein coat shell around the viral genome and forming the core of the virus particle

198
Q

Define affinity and how it is measured

A
  • Affinity is the probability or strength of a drug binding to its receptors
  • Measured with equilibrium dissociation constant

KA = drug concentration required for 50% occupancy of receptors

199
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a fibroblast?

A

Elongated

200
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

201
Q

What is the function of tight/occluding junctions between epithelial cells?

A

To seal the intercellular space to prevent passage of substances between cells

202
Q

Which is the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophil

203
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

204
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Smooth muscle

205
Q

What does SARS stand for?

A

Severe acture respiratory syndrome

206
Q

What shape is a coccus bacteria?

A

Spherical

207
Q

How many pairs of chromosimes does a human have?

A

23 pairs

208
Q

What is the ECM of connective tissue composed of?

A

Ground substance and fibres

209
Q

How is haematocrit calculated?

A

volume RBC/volume blood

210
Q

What does haematoxylin bind to?

A

Acidic or anionic structures

211
Q

What is the simplest virus structure? What does it contain?

A

Non enveloped; contains nucleic acid and capsid

212
Q

Which viruses tend to survive better: naked or enveloped viruses? Why?

A

Naked viruses tend to survive adverse environments better as envelopes are easily damaged by chemicals, extreme pH and temperature.

213
Q

What are the three methods used by viruses to enter and uncoat their genome into the host cell?

A
  1. Fusion of viral envelope with host membrane; nucleocapsid enters2. Endocytosis in vesicle; endosome aids in viral uncoating3. Injection of nucleic acid
214
Q

What is a capsomere?

A

Clusters of capsid protein subunits (surrounding the viral genome)

215
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

A

Serum- what is left after the blood has clotted (no clotting factors)Plasma- still has clotting factors

216
Q

What is a PAMP?

A

Pathogen-associated molecular pattern e.g. LPS on G- bacteria

217
Q

Endospores are found in a few bacterial genera only, which includes….

A

Clostridium and Bacillus

218
Q

What is the name of the most important hospital acquired pathogen? What condition does it cause?

A

Clostridium difficile–> pseudomembranous colitis

219
Q

Endospores are resistant to heat, desiccation, UV and many chemicals. How do you kill them?

A

Heat (steam) under pressure e.g. an autoclave.

220
Q

What is the name given to intracellular sensors of PAMPs?

A

NOD-like receptors (nucleotide-binding oligomerisation domain) or NLRs.

221
Q

What are the three common bacterial causes of meningitis?

A

Teens and young adults: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae. Older adults: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), group B Streptococcus, Listeria monocytogenes.

222
Q

What are the common culprits of TSS?

A

Staph. aureus and Strept. pyogenes

223
Q

What cytokine stimulates Tfh cells? What cytokine do Tfh release? What is the net effect?

A

Mnemonic: F*ckin’ Hank (Tfh) got sick (IL-6) at a 21st (IL-21) ‘cause that b*tch (B-cells) made him drink too much (proliferation and differentiation).

Il-6 –> Tfh –> IL-21 –> B-cell proliferation and differentiation

224
Q

Name three mediators which cause vasodilation?

A

NO, histamine and prostacyclin

225
Q

Name four mediators which cause increased vascular permeability?

A

Histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and leukotrienes

226
Q

Name two mediators which cause pain

A

Bradykinin, prostaglandins

227
Q

What 3 mediators cause endothelial activation?

A

IL-1, histamine, TNF

228
Q

What 4 mediators cause fever?

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF and prostaglandins (especially PGE2)

Mnemonic: A totally negligent father (TNF) sacrificed their only child (IL-1) to satan (IL-6) so he could watch that PG movie Shrek in peace (prostaglandins; PGE2)

229
Q

What mediators cause weight loss?

A

TNF

230
Q

What mediators cause chemotaxis?

A

Complement components, bacterial components, certain cytokines (especially chemokines) and leukotrienes.

231
Q

What cytokines causes T cells to differentiate into T17 cells? What cytokines do they then produce? What is the net result

A

IL-6 TGF-B –> T17 –> IL-6 IL-17 –> neutrophil recruiment

Totally hot 17 year old (Th17) wanted to throw a party. Satan (IL-6) convinces his Grandfather Barry (TGF-B) to let him throw a party. A bunch of 17-year old (IL-17) and Satan live it up (IL-6) until the cops show up (neutrophil recruitment)

232
Q

What are the four basic tissue types?

A

Connective tissues, epithelial tissues, muscle and nervous tissue.

233
Q

What is autolysis?

A

The process of tissues and cells breaking down following removal from the body. Occurs primarily through lysosome enzymatic activity (and bacterial colonisation?).

234
Q

What is the most common fixative agent?

A

Formalin (formaldehyde gas in water)

235
Q

What are the specialised connective tissues?

A

Blood, cartilage, bone and adipose.

236
Q

What is the name of the pluripotent progenitor cell which all blood cells (as well as osteoclasts) are formed from?

A

haemopoietic stem cell (HSC)

237
Q

What is a reticulocyte? What is it derived from?

A

Immature RBCs released into blood, which increases from 1% in times of haemorrhage or haemolysis. Derived from normoblasts in the marrow.

238
Q

What are the 3 primary layers in the early embryo?

A

mesoderm, ectoderm and endoderm

239
Q

Connective tissues develop from what embryonic layer? From what cells?

A

mesoderm; from multipotent mesenchymal stem cells

240
Q

Epithelium develop from what embryonic layer?

A

All three; depends on location.

241
Q

Muscle develops from what germ layer?

A

mesoderm

242
Q

Neural tissue develops from what germ layer?

A

ectoderm

243
Q

True or false: Epithelial cells are vascular.

A

False. Epithelial cells are avascular.

244
Q

What is the name of the junction that links epithelial cells to the underlying basement membrane?

A

Hemidesmosome

245
Q

What are the steps to preparing tissue for examination under the light microscope?

A
  1. Formalin- prevents autolysis 2. -OH dehydration 3. Xylene added as it is miscible with –> 4. Paraffin- makes the tissue specimen hard enough for sectioning 5. Re-hydration and staining with H&E
246
Q

What is Marfan syndrome?

A

An inherited disease of fibrillin-1, which is an important glycoprotein in elastic (fibres). This disease is associated with arotic, skin and eye problems.

247
Q

Describe the glandular morphology of sweat glands.

A

simple coiled tubular

248
Q

Describe the glandular morphology of sebaceous glands.

A

simple branched acinar

249
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A

The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs (ADME)”What the body does to the drug”

250
Q

What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of inducible vs non-inducible?

A

COX-1 is also called as constitutive enzyme because it is produced by a cell under all types of physiological conditions. The amount at which constitutive enzymes are produced remain constant without regard of substrate concentration and physiological demand. On the other hand COX-2 is an inducible enzyme as it is produced under certain specific conditions like inflammation and dependent upon the production of cytokines.

251
Q

What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of location?

A

COX-1 is commonly found in the kidney, stomach and platelets whereas COX-2 is located in macrophages, leukocytes and fibroblasts.

252
Q

What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of function?

A

COX-1 play important role in housekeeping such as it protects gastric mucosa, regulate gastric acid and maintain normal functions of the kidney by stimulating prostaglainds. COX-2 is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins that causes pain and inflammation in the body.

253
Q

What is the difference between COX1 and COX2 in terms of inhibition by a pharmacological agent?

A

Inhibition:There are different types of drugs that are used to inhibit COX-2 enzyme including Celecoxib. Non-steriodal anti-inflammatory drugs inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.

254
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

“What a drug does to the body”; the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action.

255
Q

What are the four different types of receptors?

A
  1. Ligand-gated ion channel2. G-protein coupled receptors3. Kinase-linked receptors4. Nuclear receptors
256
Q

Cytokines are the ligand for what type of receptors?

A

Kinase-linked receptors

257
Q

What is the clinical name of the drug (Sudafed PE) that was used in the Cardiovascular research prac? What kind of drug is it?

A

Phenylephrine; alpha adrenergic agonist.

258
Q

Describe a primary curve. What regions of the spine does it occur?

A

C-shaped curvature in the spine, normally seen in development (foetal cruve). The primary curvature is retained in the thoracic and sacro region of the spine.

259
Q

Describe a secondary curve. What regions of the spine does it occur?

A

Lordotic curve; reverse of the C curve, which occurs in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spine.

MD1 FBS (28 decks)

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