Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MD1 FBS > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lifespan of an RBC?

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an immature RBC in the blood stream called?

A

Reticulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet cell?

A

8-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

A

Kidney /bean shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the diameter of a platelet cell?

A

2-4 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the diameter of an RBC?

A

7.2 microns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which is the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the most important FBE index to determine the cause of an anaemia?

A

MCV (mean corpuscular volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient with microcytic anaemia and low ferrettin has what?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two main causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency and thalasaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If someone has normocytic anaemia, what is the next test you should look at?

A

Ferretin to see if it is due to iron deficiency or thalasaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 main causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

Acute blood loss Bone marrow failure Chronic disease Destruction (haemolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normocytic anaemia with low reticulocyte count suggests what?

A

Bone marrow failure - bone marrow can’t produce enough new RBCs to keep up with anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Deficiency of what in the diet will cause macrocytic anaemia?

A

Folate and B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If there is a normocytic anaemia, what is the next test result you need to look at?

A

Is there reticulocytosis (to see if bone marrow is working)?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If there is a macrocytic anaemia, what is the next test result you need to look at?

A

Is it megaloblastic?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is haematocrit?

A

Percentage of blood volume that is RBC volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What shape is the nucleus of a monocyte?

A

Kidney /bean shaped or eccentric oval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which WBC has a bilobed nucleus?

A

Eosinophils and basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which WBC has a kidney-shaped nucleus?

A

Basophils OR Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A raised neutrophil count indicates what?

A

acute inflammation, especially seen in bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the diameter of a WBC (neutrophil)?

A

1-2x that of a RBC; 10-14 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of blood cell is this?

A

Megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

34
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

35
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

36
Q

Which WBC has a multil-lobed nucleus?

A

Neutrophils

37
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Monocyte

38
Q

Which is the largest WBC?

A

Monocyte

39
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Basophil

40
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Eosinophil

41
Q

What type of WBC is this?

A

Neutrophil

42
Q

Which is the most abundant WBC?

A

Neutrophil

43
Q

What type of cell is this?

A

Neutrophil

44
Q

How long after entering tissue until neutrophils die?

A

Within hours

45
Q

Describe laminar blood flow and the relative positions of WBCs, platelets and RBCs

A

Larger components of blood are in centre of lumen, thus WBC > RBC > platelets from centre to periphery.

46
Q

In what form does Hb carries about 15% of its respiratory carbon dioxide?

A

carbaminohaemoglobin

47
Q

What percentage of respiratory carbon dioxide does Hb carry as carbaminohaemoglobin?

A

15%

48
Q

Name three factors that can shift the O2 saturation curve to the right

A

Increased DPG Increased temperature Decreased pH

49
Q

What is APTT

A

Activated partial thrombin time

50
Q

What percentage of red blood cell dry content does Hb make up?

A

97%

51
Q

What makes up about 97% of red blood cell dry content?

A

Hb

52
Q

List 5 acute signs of hypovolaemia

A

Tachycardia

Hypotension

Cold/clammy skin

Poor capillary refill (> 2 secs)

Tachypnea (if severe hypovolaemia)

53
Q

Why does Hb carry nitric oxide bound to a globin thiol group? And when does Hb release it?

A

It rrelaxes vascular walls and enhance gas diffusion. Hb releases NO at the same time as oxygen.

54
Q

What effect does shifting the O2 saturation curve to the right have on Hb affinity for O2?

A

Decrease

55
Q

Describe 5 steps in secondary haemostasis

A

1 vessel damage releases tissue factor 2 extrinsic pathway: parathrombin → thrombin, 3 fibrinogen to fibrin, 4 fibrin crosslinks under factor XIIIa control 5 meshwork

56
Q

What are the 3 components of Virchow’s triad of thrombosis?

A

Vessel wall Blood composition Blood flow

57
Q

What is the descending order of WBC concentrations in the blood?

A

NLMEB

58
Q

What is the molecular target of warfarin?

A

Vitamin K reductase

Inhibition of this prevents reduced VitK acting as a cofactor for activation of factors 2, 7, 9 and 10

59
Q

What percentage of the blood is in the arteries?

A

13%

60
Q

Which factors does warfarin inhibit?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

61
Q

Describe 4 steps in primary haemostasis

A

1 Vessel damage exposes von Willibrand factor on basement membrane and collagen 2 vWF binds to Gp1b on platelets 3 Platelet: adhere, flatten, recruit, degranulate (ADP and thromboxin A2) 4 platelet plug

62
Q

What percentage of the blood is in the heart?

A

7%

63
Q

What percentage of the blood is in the capillaries?

A

5%

64
Q

What is INR and how is it calculated?

A

International normalised ratio INR = (patient PT/normal PT)^ISI INR = (Patient prothrombin time/mean normal prothrombin time)^international sensitivity index

65
Q

What effect does shifting the O2 saturation curve to the left have on Hb affinity for O2?

A

Increase

66
Q

What percentage of the blood is in the lungs?

A

10%

67
Q

What percentage of the blood is in the veins?

A

65%

68
Q

A raised INR indicates which 2 possible things?

A

There is a problem with Factor VII or the patient is on warfarin

69
Q

Define anaemia and which two blood tests are used most often in diagnosis

A

A reduction of the total circulating red cell mass below normal limits.

Haematocrit and haemoglobin concentration

70
Q

Dietary deficiences of which 3 substances may cause anaemia?

A

Iron, VitB12, folate

71
Q

Define embolus

A

Intravascular mass carried in the blood stream to a remote site. May be solid, liquid or gaseous

72
Q

Name three factors that can shift the O2 saturation curve to the left

A

Decreased DPG Decreased temperature Increased pH

73
Q

What are the constitutive subunits of Hb in adults and foetuses?

A

Adults: 2 alpha and 2 beta Foetuses: 2 alpha and 2 gamma

74
Q

What is the molecular target of heparin?

A

Heparin enhances activity of antithrombin III, which inhibits factor Xa and thrombin

75
Q

What are the 3 main components of the coagulation system?

A

Vasoconstriction, platelet plug and fibrin mesh

76
Q

Name 3 vasoactive agents that endothelium releases and describe their effect on vasculature

A

Vasoconstrictor: endothelin
Vasodilator: NO and prostacyclin (PGI2)

77
Q

List 5 factors that may affect the effects of warfarin

A

Diet (VitK)

Hepatic disease

Hypermetabolic state

Pregnancy

Drug interactions, eg NSAIDs, EtOH

78
Q

What converts fibrinogen → fibrin?

A

Thrombin

79
Q

Which factors is vitamin K a co-factor for?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

ie the same cofactors that warfarin affects

80
Q

What is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?

A

Serum albumin

MD1 FBS (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions