RESPIRATORY Flashcards

1
Q

What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

A

Progressive irreversible airway obstruction characterised by persistent airflow limitation caused by long term damage to lung tissue.

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2
Q

What are the conditions that are classed as COPD?

A

Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema

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3
Q

What is the epidemiology of COPD?

A

1.2 million people with COPD in the UK
4th leading cause of death globally
Typically diagnosed >45 yrs
More common in males
Strongly related to Smoking.

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4
Q

What are the risk factors for COPD?

A

Cigarette smoking - MOST INPORTANT CAUSE
Air pollution - Exposure to air pollutants e.g. sulfur and nitrogen dioxide
Occupational exposure to dusts, chemical agents, and fumes, silica
A1AT deficiency - can lead to early onset COPD
Family history of chronic bronchitis

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5
Q

Spirometry recap
Define
FEV1
FVC

What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio

A

FEV1 = volume of air that can be forcefully expired in 1 second
FVC = total volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after maximum inhalation
The normal value for the FEV1/FVC ratio is 70% (and 65% in persons older than age 65).

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6
Q

What happens to the
FEV, FEV1, and FEV1/FVC, and TLC in Obstructive conditions like COPD and Asthma?

A

In COPD, the airways become obstructed and the lungs don’t empty properly which leaves air trapped inside the lungs.

  • FVC (max air exhaled in one breath): lowered
  • FEV1 (first second of air breathed out in a single breath): lowered, more than the FVC
  • FEV1:FVC ratio: lowered
  • TLC (total lung capacity): increased due to air trapping
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7
Q

Define Chronic Bronchitis?

A

Chronic Bronchitis is a clinical term relating to a chronic productive cough for at least 3 months over 2 consecutive years.
(Alternative explanations for the cough should also be excluded).

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8
Q

Normal physiology, layers of the respiratory tract -

What makes up the Mucosa?

A

Mucosa consists of Pseudostratified columnar epithelial cells, interspersed with goblet cells that secrete mucous
As well as the lamina Propria - Basement membrane and loose connective tissue

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9
Q

Normal physiology, layers of the respiratory tract -

What makes up the submucosa?

A

Submucosa - Smooth muscle and connective tissue, as well as Bronchial mucinous glands, that produce the mucus to be secreted by the goblet cells

Bronchi only is lined with cartilage, which stiffens and supports the bronchus

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10
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind chronic bronchitis

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial mucinous glands and goblet cells. Also ciliary destruction. (ie due to cigarette smoke as main cause

More mucous in lumen - causes narrowing and obstruction,
epithelial layer may become ulcerated and undergoes metaplasia

Also, smoking makes the cilia short and less mobile, making it harder to move mucus up and out of bronchioles. A cough is sometimes the only way to clear this mucus.

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11
Q

What is the metaplasia seen in Chronic bronchitis? What is air trapping in the context of CB?

A

squamous epithelium replaces the columnar cells (squamous metaplasia), when ulcers heal

Bc bronchioles are small, a small amount of mucous can block them - leads to air trapping, where air can’t be exhaled - the majority of air trapping happens in the bronchioles

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12
Q

Pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis - why may patients with this go on to develop hypoxia and hypercapnia?

A

Mucus plugs block airflow, == high levels of CO2 and low levels of O2 in the lung

–> so less O2 moves into blood and less CO2 moves out of blood.

Blood vessels can then undergo vasoconstriction to shunt blood away from damaged tissue towards healthy lung tissue.

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13
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis?

A
  • Wheeze: due to narrowing of the passageway available for air to move in and out
  • Crackles or rales: caused by the popping open of small airways
  • Cyanosis (blue bloaters): if there is buildup of CO2 in blood
    • Productive cough, lots of mucous
    • Dyspnoea
    • Signs of CO2retention
      • Drowsy
      • Asterixis
      • Confusion
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14
Q

What is the cause of the barrel shaped chest in COPD?

A

Both chronic bronchitis and emphysema leads to air trapping within the Bronchi/acini.

This leads to Hyperinflation of the lungs giving a barrel chest appearance.

air trapping ===> Hyperinflation

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15
Q

What is Emphysema as a pathological Definition?

A

A lung disease characterised by dilatation and destruction of the lung tissue causing enlarged air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles

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16
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind emphysema.

A

Occurs in the ACINUS - (the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveolar sacs distal to a single terminal bronchiole)

Irritants/chemicals damage alvolar wall EG cigarette smoke
immune cell infiltration releasing Leukotriene B4, IL-8 and TNF-a, as well as Neutrophil Proteases (elastases and collagenases)
- Neutrophil proteases break down alveolar septa break down, REDUCES TOTAL SURFACE AREA -
Loss of elasticity in the airways means that the airways collapse upon exhalation causing air trapping distally.

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17
Q

How does the Bernoulli principle explain some of the pathophysiological changes that happen in emphysema?

A

(due to Bernoulli principle that means that high velocity exhaled air creates low pressure in airways - elastin normally stops airways collapsing under low pressure)

When elastin isn’t there, airways collapse

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18
Q

What are the different types of Emphysema?

A

Centriacinar Emphysema

Panacinar Emphysema:

Paraseptal Emphysema:

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19
Q

What is Centriacinar Emphysema? What is it commonly due to? Where does it commonly affect in the lungs?

A

Most common

Damage to central/proximal acini due to smoking

Typically affects upper lobes

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20
Q

What is Panacinar Emphysema? What is it commonly due to? Where does it commonly affect in the lungs?

A

Entire acinus affected

Due to A1AT Deficiency (protease inhibitor deficiency) cannot prevent breakdown.

Typically affects Lower lobes

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21
Q

What is Paraseptal Emphysema? What can if commonly lead to? Where does it commonly affect in the lungs?

A

distal alveoli of the acinus are most affected. Typically affects the lung tissue on the periphery of the lobules.
Peripheral ballooned alveoli can rupture causing pneumothorax

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22
Q

What are the pathological changes seen in emphysema?

A

Related to loss of Elastin:
Collapse: the alveoli are prone to collapse.
Dilation and bullae formation: alveoli dilate and may eventually join with neighbouring alveoli forming bullae

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23
Q

How is Chronic Bronchitis and Emphysema classified differently?

A

Chronic Bronchitis is defined by clinical features

Emphysema is defined by structural changes (enlarged alveoli)

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24
Q

What do you need to consider in spirometry testing for COPD?

A

FEV1/FVC ratio less than 0.7
Important to note that it does not show a dramatic response to reversibility testing with salbutamol (beta-2 agonist). If it does then consider asthma as a differential

Bronchodilator (salbutamol) will increase FEV1 by >12% in asthma, FEV1 would increase less than 12% or not at all in COPD

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25
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of emphysema

A
  • Breathing with pursed lips (pink puffers): prevents alveolar collapse by increasing the positive end expiratory pressure
  • Barrel shaped chest: due to air trapping and hyperinflation
  • Loss of cardiac dullness:due to hyperexpansion of lungs from emphysema
  • Dyspnoea
  • Cough: could be productive
  • Weight loss: due to energy expenditure while breathing
  • Signs of CO2retention
    • Drowsy
    • Asterixis
    • Confusion
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26
Q

What is the main test you would use to investigate COPD? What would you see in it?

A

Clinical Dx with Spirometry Test for confirmation

Spirometry shows Obstruction:
FEV1/FVC ration <0.7

Global Initiative for COPD (GOLD)
FEV1% - compared to predicted value
Stage 1 - > 80% (mild)
Stage 2 – 50-79% (moderate)
Stage 3 – 30-49% (severe)
Stage 4 - < 30% (very severe)

Multiple peak flow measurements to exclude asthma

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27
Q

What other tests may be done to look for the cause of COPD? on top of spirometry?

A

CXR:

DLCO (diffusing capacity of CO across lung):
Low in COPD, Normal in Asthma

Genetic testing for A1AT Def.

ABG - may show T2RF
ECG - heart function
CXR - flattened diaphragm
Bloods - anaemia

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28
Q

What would you see on a xray for someone with COPD

A

Hyperexpanded, enlarged lungs, air pockets (bullae) or a flattened diaphragm, and saber sheath trachea
Barrel shaped chest

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29
Q

What is the initial management for COPD?

A

STOP SMOKING

Annual flu vaccine and the pneumococcal vaccine (this is a one off vaccine)

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30
Q

What are the GOLD groups in COPD?

A

GOLD A= 1 or less exacerbations per year not requiring admission with mild symptoms
GOLD B= 1 or less exacerbations per year not requiring admission severe symptoms
GOLD C= 2 exacerbations per year or 1 per year requiring admission n with mild symptoms
GOLD D= 2 exacerbations per year or 1 per year requiring admission with severe symptoms

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31
Q

What are the different bronchodilators used to treat COPD?

A

SABA:short-acting beta-agonist (e.g. salbutamol)
SAMA: short-acting muscarinic antagonist (ipratropium)
LABA: long-acting beta-agonist (e.g. salmeterol)
LAMA: long-acting muscarinic antagonist (e.g. tiotropium)

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32
Q

COPD treatment - What is the Initial therapy?

A

Any short or long acting bronchodilator
SABA/SAMA

SABA - salbutamol
SAMA - ipratropium

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33
Q

What is the second line treatment for COPD, if they do not have asthmatic or steroid responsive features?

A

long acting beta agonist (LABA) plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) -

LABA: long-acting beta-agonist (e.g. salmeterol)
LAMA: long-acting muscarinic antagonist (e.g. tiotropium)

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34
Q

What is the second line treatment for COPD, if they DO have asthmatic or steroid responsive features?

A

combined long acting beta agonist (LABA) plus an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
LABA (i.e. salmeterol)
ICS (i.e. budesonide)

. If these don’t work then they can step up to a combination of a LABA, LAMA and ICS.

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35
Q

Other than bronchodilators, what other treatments can be given in COPD?

A

Nebulisers - eg Salbutamol
- Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors eg Roflumilast - (blocks the breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate)
- Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)

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36
Q

How do LABAs and SABAs work?

A

b2-adrenoceptor agonists (beta agonists)

They act on b2-adrenoceptors to cause smooth
muscle relaxation and bronchodilation, by increasing cAMP . Also inhibit histamine release
from lung mast cell

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37
Q

How do LABAs take longer to work than SABAs?

A

LABAs possess adequate lipophilic properties to remain in the airway tissues as a depot in close vicinity to the beta2-receptor, explaining their long duration of effect.

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38
Q

How do LAMAs and SAMAs work

A

They are Anti-cholinergics

(long/short-acting muscarinic antagonist)– promotes cGMP degradation 🡪 smooth muscle relaxation

Muscarinic antagonists work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes smooth muscle contraction in the airways, leading to bronchospasm and narrowing of the airways.

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39
Q

What is the method of action behind how inhaled corticosteroids work? (ICS)

A

Glucocorticoids reduce number of inflammatory cells in airways by:
- Suppress production of chemotaxic mediators
- Reduce Adhesion molecule expression
- inhibit inflammatory cell survival in the airway

ICS also suppress inflammatory gene expression in airway epithelial cells,
eg via IKB-ALPHA

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40
Q

What is an Exacerbation of COPD?

A

worsening of symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, sputum production and wheeze. It is usually triggered by a viral or bacterial infection.

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41
Q

What are the main bacterial causes of an IECOPD?
What antbx would you use to treat these?

A

H.Influenzia
S.Pneumoniae

TREAT BOTH WITH AMOXICILLIN

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42
Q

What would an exacerbation look like on an ABG?

A

CO2 will make blood more acidotic. This will show as a type 2 respiratory acidosis high CO2 and low oxygen with low pH
If this chronic there will be some metabolic compensation by kidneys releasing more bicarbonate to try and neutralise pH

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43
Q

What is the treatment for an exacerbation of COPD where the patient is well enough to stay at home?

A

Prednisolone for 7-14 days
Regular inhalers or home nebulisers
Antibiotics if there is presence of infection

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44
Q

What is the treatment for an exacerbation of COPD where the patient is in hospital?

A

Nebulised bronchodilators (e.g. salbutamol 5mg/4h and ipratropium 500mcg/6h)
Steroids (e.g. 200mg hydrocortisone or 30-40mg oral prednisolone)
Antibiotics if evidence of infection
Physiotherapy can help clear sputum

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45
Q

What are the treatment options for an exacerbation of COPD not responding to treatment?

A

IV aminophylline
Non-invasive ventilation
Intubation and ventilation
-Doxapram can be used as a respiratory stimulant if ventilation not appropriate

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46
Q

Why do you have to be careful giving oxygen to someone with COPD and how would you manage this?

A

Too much oxygen in someone that is prone to retaining CO2 can depress their respiratory drive.
Venturi masks are designed to deliver specific percentage concentrations of oxygen
If retaining CO2 aim for oxygen saturations of 88-92% titrated by Venturi mask
If not retaining CO2 and their bicarbonate is normal (meaning they do not normally retain CO2) then give oxygen to aim for oxygen saturations > 94%

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47
Q

What is Tuberculosis? What is it characterised

A

An infectious disease caused by Mycobacteria characterised by caseating granulomas.

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48
Q

What causes Tuberculosis?

A

Caused by two species: Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis.

Spread via airborne transmission

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49
Q

What is the morphology of M. TB?

A

Acid Fast Rod Bacilli
Non motile + non spore forming

Acid fast staining (Zeihl-Neelsen stain.) - Stains red
Doesn’t take up gram stain due to Mycolic acid capsule

Resistant to phagocytic killing.

Slow growing (15-20 hrs)

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50
Q

What are some risk factors for TB?

A

IVDU,
homeless,
immunosuppression
alcoholic,
close contact with infected patients - either as living with them or as healthcare worker

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51
Q

What is the epidemiology of TB?

A

1.7Bn people have latent TB
Top infectious killer in the world
Affects immunocompromised more
More common in South Asia (India, China, Pakistan) and Sub-Saharan Africa

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52
Q

How does TB lead to the formation of Ghon complexes? (Primary/active TB)

A

Macrophages struggle to clear TB due to its waxy mycolic acid capsule.
Instead of being broken down and cleared, A focal caseating granuloma typically forms in the lower lobe known as a Ghon focus.

The Ghon focus can then spread to the Hilar Lymph nodes in the lungs, which together form a ghon complex

These ghon complexes can under go fibrosis and calcification, leading to the appearance of ranke complexes on xray

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53
Q

What is latent TB?

A
  • occurs after primary infection, immune system encapsulates sites of infection and stop the progression of the disease.
  • Patients remain asymptomatic and the bacteria remains dormant, resulting innegative sputumcultures but apositive Mantoux test.
  • These patients arenotinfectious.
  • However, if patients areimmunocompromised, the disease can progress or reactivate at a later stage to becomeactive TB.
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54
Q

Outline what happen in secondary TB.

Where in the lung is it most likely to happen and why?

A

Immunocompromised patients may develop secondary TB when latent TB reactivates
- Patients are infectious.
- Reactivation typically occurs in thelung apexwhere pO2is highest, as mycobacteria are aerobic.
bacteria can spread locally, to form caseating granulomata, or systemically (miliary TB).

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55
Q

Outline what Miliary TB is, and what happens in it.

A

Miliary TB - Where immune system cannot control the infection and it becomes disseminated

Extrapulmonary TB - where TB infects other areas

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56
Q

What Extra-pulmonary sites can TB infect?

A

Lymph nodes
Pleura
Central nervous system
Pericardium
Gastrointestinal system
Genitourinary system
Bones and joints
Cutaneous TB affecting the skin

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57
Q

What are some general symptoms of active TB?

A

Systemic Sx:
Fatigue
Fever + night sweats + weight loss (characteristic of TB)
Lymphadenopathy

Wet Cough w/haemoptysis >3 weeks
Chest pain
Dyspnoea
Erythema Nodosum (swollen fat under the skin causing bumps and patches that look red or darker than surrounding skin.)

TB = Wet cough, Sarcoidosis - similar symptoms, but dry cough

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58
Q

What are some Extra-pulmonary manifestations of TB?

A

CNS - Meningism
Skin rash
Cardiac - TB pericarditis Sx
Bone - Join pain
Spinal Pain (spinal TB)
GU - Epididymitis, LUTS
Abdo - Ascites

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59
Q

What are some signs of TB? Why isn’t latent TB symptomatic

A
  • Auscultation: often normal; crackles may be present
  • Clubbing: if long-standing

as bacteria is contained within granuloma and causes no Sx

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60
Q

What are some screening Tests for TB/diagnosis of latent TB?

A

Latent Disease - Mantoux Test
Interferon Gamma release assay

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61
Q

Tests for TB - outline Interferon-gamma release assay(IGRA)

A

Take blood sample, mix it with TB antigens.

In a person that has had previous contact with TB the white blood cells have become sensitised to those antigens and will release interferon-gamma.

More sensitive than the Mantoux test - unlikely to be positive from the BCG vaccine

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62
Q

Tests for TB - outline the Mantoux test

A

indicates possible previous vaccination, latent or active TB.

0.1 ml of 1:1,000 of tuberculin is injected S/C, site is inspected 48-72 hours later

  • This reaction is measured as a diameter ofindurationthat occurs across the forearm
  • If positive, assess for active disease, greater than 5mm
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63
Q

What tests would you do for active TB?

A

Nucleic-Acid Amplification Test (NAAT): rapid diagnostic test conducted on sputum or urine

Microbiology:send three deep cough sputum samples; analyse with Ziehl-Neelsen stain (will turn red)

Chest Xray -
Latent disease may show Ghon complex
Reactivated TBmay show patchy or nodular consolidation with cavitation (gas filled spaces in the lungs)

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64
Q

what would DisseminatedMiliary TB look like on chest xray

A

Patchy Consolidation
Ghon Complex
Granulomatous Lesions
Hilar Lymphadenopathy - (enlargement)
Pleural Effusion

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65
Q

What is the management of latent TB?

A

Doesnt necessarily need Tx
If risk of reactivation then:
6 months of isoniazid with pyridoxine
or
3 months of isoniazid, pyridoxine and rifampicin

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66
Q

What is the Treatment for Active TB?

A

RIPE: Combination Abx for 6-12 months
R – Rifampicin for 6 months
I – Isoniazid for 6 months
P – Pyrazinamide for first 2 months
E – Ethambutol for first 2 months

Pyra zina mide

Etham but ol

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67
Q

Who is offered the BCG vaccine?

A

BCG vaccine is offered to patients that are at higher risk of contact with TB:

Neonates born in areas of the UK with high rates of TB
Neonates with relatives from countries with a high rate of TB
Neonates with a family history of TB
Unvaccinated older children and young adults (< 35) who have close contact with TB
Unvaccinated children or young adults that recently arrived from a country with a high rate of TB
Healthcare workers

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68
Q

What is Pneumonia?

A

Infection of the lung parenchyma leading to inflammation of the lung tissue and fluid exudation (sputum) collecting in the alveoli.

Can be seen as consolidation on a chest x-ray

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69
Q

What are the different types of pneumonia?

A

Community acquired
Hospital acquired if it occurs more than 48 hours after admission - (can be further classified into Elderly, Ventilator-associated, Post-op)

Aspiration pneumonia if it occurs after inhaling foreign material

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70
Q

What are the main causes of CAP?

A

Think - community, so more basic/simple bacteria
Streptococcus pneumonia (50%)
H. Influenzae (20%)
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Klebsiella pneumonia
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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71
Q

Outline the classification/morphology of streptococcus pneumonia

A

Gram-positive cocci
Alpha haemolytic
Optochin sensitive

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72
Q

What are the location-based classification of pneumonia?

A
  • Bronchopneumonia: infection can be throughout the lungs involving the bronchioles as well as the alveoli.
  • Atypical or interstitial pneumonia: infection is mainly just outside the alveoli in the interstitium.
  • Lobar pneumonia: infection causes complete consolidation of a whole lobe of the lung.
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73
Q

What are the main causes of HAP?

A

P.aeurginosa
E.coli
S.aureus
Klebsiella

These can cause CAPs as well, but just not as common

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74
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia
What about in COPD patients
What Pneumonia causing organism is often seen in alcoholics?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) =Accounts for 80% of cases -Particularly associated with high fever, rapid onset and herpes labialis
A vaccine to pneumococcus is available

Haemophilus influenzae Particularly common in patients with COPD

Klebsiella pneumonia is classically seen in alcoholics

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75
Q

What pneuomia causing organism is often seen with Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiforme?

What pneuomia causing organism is often seen following a influenza infection

What pneuomia causing organism is often seen with hyponatraemia and lymphopenia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Staphylococcus aureus

Legionella pneumophilia

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76
Q

What is the main cause of aspiration acquired pneumonia?

A

Klebsiella

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77
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pneumonia?

A

These microbes typically multiply and cross over from the airways into the lung tissue, creating an inflammatory response.

Pneumonia refers to any inflammatory reaction affecting the alveoli it is most commonly secondary to infection
The tissue fills with white blood cells as well as proteins, fluid, and red blood cells if a nearby capillary is damaged in the process.

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78
Q

What is atypical pneumonia?
How are they Tx?

A

pneumonia caused by an organism that cannot be cultured in the normal way or detected using a gram stain.

They dont respond to penicillins

Tx with Macrolides, Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines.

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79
Q

What are the main causes of atypical pneumonia?

A

Legionella pneumophila (Legionnaires’ disease) infected water, causes Hyponatraemia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae. erythema multiforme, neuro signs
Chlamydophila pneumoniae school child
Coxiella burnetii AKA “Q fever” farmer
Chlamydia psittaci. - bird owner

TIP: You can remember the 5 causes of atypical pneumonia with the mnemonic: “Legions of psittaci MCQs”

M – mycoplasma pneumoniae
C – chlamydydophila pneumoniae
Qs – Q fever (coxiella burnetii)

Legionella pneumophila should be suspected in multiple otherwise fit patients who have developed pneumonia after air condition exposure. Hyponatraemia and lymphopenia are features associated with Legionella pneumophila .

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80
Q

What is the main cause of fungal pneumonia? How can you treat it?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP)
Occurs in immunocompromised Px
AIDS defining illness

Co-trimoxazole
(combination of Trimethoprim and Sulphamethoxazole)

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81
Q

What are the risk factors for pneumonia?

A

Extremes of age
Preceding infection (viral)
Immunosuppressed
IVDU
Smoking
CO-Morbidities - DM, HIV
Respiratory conditions - asthma, COPD, CF

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82
Q

What are the symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Productive cough w/purulent sputum (rusty suggests S. pneumoniae)
Fever - due to infection
Pleuritic chest pain- pain worse on deep breathing (sandpaper on sandpaper)
Dyspnoea
Malaise

May cause confusion in elderly
Dry cough in atypical pneumonia

Classic symptoms
- Fever
Sweats
Rigors

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83
Q

What are the signs of pneumonia?

A

Reduced breath sounds
Bronchial Breathing w/ coarse crepitations
Crackles and Wheeze
Consolidation
Dull Percussion
Hypoxia
Tachycardia
Pyrexia
Confusion
Cyanosis

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84
Q

What are some differential diagnosis for pneumonia?

A

Heart Failure
PE
Pleural effusion
Bronchiectasis
Acute bronchitis
Drug-induced pneumonitis
Cancer
TB
Interstitial Lung Disease

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85
Q

Outline the effect of Pneumocystis jiroveci on healthy people.

Who are the kind of people that will develop Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) from it?

A

commonly found in the lungs of healthy people, not a cause for disease. source of opportunistic infection in immunocompromised people, eg HIV/AIDs, cancer, autoimmune or inflammatory conditions, and chronic lung disease

The risk of PCP increases when CD4-positive T-cell levels are less than 400 cells/μL

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86
Q

How is PCP treated?

A

Co-trimoxazole
(combination of Trimethoprim and Sulphamethoxazole)

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87
Q

How can you gauge the severity of pneumonia in
a) the hospital
b) the community

Give the values that lead to scoring

A

CRB-65 out of hospital and CURB-65 in hospital. The only difference is that out of hospital you do not count urea.

C – Confusion (new disorientation in person, place or time)
U – Urea > 7
R – Respiratory rate ≥ 30
B – Blood pressure < 90 systolic or ≤ 60 diastolic.
65 – Age ≥ 65

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88
Q

outline How does the scoring for CURB-65 dictate treatment and mortality, for dealing with pneumonia

A

Score 0/1: Consider treatment at home
Score ≥ 2: Consider hospital admission
Score ≥ 3: Consider intensive care assessment

0 = Low risk (<1% mortality)
1-2 = Intermediate risk (1-10% mortality)
3-4 = High Risk (>10% mortality)

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89
Q

What investigation would you do for a pneumonia?

A

1st Line:
- CXR:consolidation caused by inflammatory exudate within alveoli and bronchioles
- Atypical pneumoniacauses interstitial inflammation instead, so CXR may be normal

FBC - Raised WCC
U&E - urea
CRP - raised due to inflammation
Sputum culture:allows assessment of organism and antibiotic sensitivities
Urine culutres, for Legionella Urinary Antigen - Doesn’t respond well to Abx

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90
Q

What is consolidation? (seen on xray in lung infections) How does it occur

A

Consolidation - region of normally compressible lung tissue - filled with liquid instead of air

Happens as inflammatory fluid exudate accumilates in the alveoli and broncioles in acute inflammation

MUST BE PRESENT IN ORDER TO DIAGNOSE PNEUMONIA - IT IS MORE RADIO OPAQUE - WHITER THAN NORMAL LUNG TISSUE

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91
Q

What is the Initial treatment for pneumonia? What broad spectrum antbx would you give for mild severity?

A

Oxygen Saturation 94-98%
IV Fluids if dehydrated
Appropriate Analgesia - Paracetamol/NSAIDs

Mild severity – CURB65 0-1 (5 days)
Amoxicillin
Allergic? – clarithromycin or doxycycline

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92
Q

What anbtx would you give for moderate severity and severe severity Pneumonia? (What CURB scores would these equate to?)

A

Moderate severity – CURB65 2 (5 days)
Amoxicillin + clarithromycin

Severe CURB65 3-5 (>5 days, 14-21 if S. Aureus)
IV co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

(btw Clarithromycin is a macrolide)

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93
Q

Anbtx treatment for pneumonia - once the causative organism is known to be Streptococcus Pneumoniae, what specific anbtx would you give?

A

S. Pneumoniae
Use amoxicillin, or cefuroxime (second gen Cephalosporin)

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94
Q

Anbtx treatment for pneumonia - once the causative organism is known to be H Influenziae, what specific anbtx would you give?

A

Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid - (Co-Amoxiclav)
Doxycycline

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95
Q

Anbtx treatment for pneumonia - once the causative organism is known to be Staphylococcus aureus, what specific anbtx would you give?

What do you give for MRSA?

A

Flucloxacillin
Cefuroxime

MRSA =
Vancomycin

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96
Q

Anbtx treatment for pneumonia - once the causative organism is known to be klebsiella pneumoniae, what specific anbtx would you give?

What about
P. Aeruginosa

A

Co-amoxiclav
Cephalosporins

P. Aeruginosa
Piperacillin-Tazobactam (Tazocin)

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97
Q

What do you give to treat atypical pneumonia?

A

Macrolides/Fluoroquinolones,tetracyclines.

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98
Q

What is asthma? What is it characterised by?

A

Asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by intermittent airway obstruction and hyper-reactivity, + inflammed bronchioles and mucous hypersecretion

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99
Q

What are the types of Asthma?

A

Eosinophilic (Allergic) (70%) - Extrinsic IgE mediated T1 Hypersensitivity

Non-Eosinophilic (Non Allergic) (30%) - Intrinsic non IgE mediated.

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100
Q

What is the prevalence of asthma?

What age does it tend to start?
What ages are its peak prevalence?

A
  • Asthma is a common disease with a prevalence of almost 10% in the US
  • Commonly starts in childhood between the ages 3-5 years and may either worsen or improve during adolescence
  • Peak prevalence between 5-15 years
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101
Q

What are some risk factors for developing asthma?

A
  • History of atopy: such as eczemaand allergic rhinitis (IgE-mediated atopic conditions)
  • Family history
  • Allergens: such as tobacco smoke, pets, outdoor air pollution, weeds, grass, mould pollen and dust mites
  • Viral upper respiratory tract infection
  • Other triggers: cold weather and exercise, medications e.g. beta blockers and aspirin
  • Occupational exposure (10-15%): isocyanates are the most common cause ofoccupational asthma(e.g. spray painting)., or flour form baking
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102
Q

What genetics have been asossciated with asthma?
What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

Genes controlling cytokines IL-3 -4 -5 -9 -13
ADAM33

states that early childhood exposure to particular microorganisms protects against allergic diseases by contributing to the development of the immune system.

Generally asthma before 12 is more genetic after this it is more environmental

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103
Q

Oultine the pathophysiology behind IgE Allergic type asthma that leads to activation of Mast cell and eosinophil activation

A

excessive reaction from Th2 cells against specific allergens.

Allergens from environmental triggers e.g. cigarette smoke, are picked up by dendritic cells and presented to Th2 cell

Cyotkines are produced - (IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13)

This leads to the production of IgE antibodies which coat mast cells and stimulate them to release granules containing things e.g. histamines, leukotrienes and prostaglandins.

It also results in the activation of eosinophils which promote an immune response by releasing more cytokines and leukotrienes.

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104
Q

What pathophysiological changes to the bronchi is seen in asthma?

A

Smooth muscle spasm around bronchioles
Increased mucus secretion.
Airway wall oedema

There is also an increase in vascular permeability and recruitment of additional immune cells from the blood.

Initially these inflammatory changes are completely reversible but longer term leads to thickening of the epithelial basement membrane, which permanently reduces the airway diameter.
—> also in chronic asthma - see smooth muscle hypertrophy

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105
Q

What drugs can trigger asthma? How can they do this?

A

Beta blockers - (block adrenaline from binding) Blocking these receptors leads to smooth muscle contraction, narrowing airways and increasing blood pressure.

Aspirin inhibits COX1/2
leads to increase USE of LPOX pathway.
Produces leukotrienes (LTB4, 5, 6)
These are proinflammatory

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106
Q

What are the symptoms of asthma?

A

Chest tightness
Episodic Dyspnoea/SOB
Wheeze
Dry Cough (typically but can be wet)

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107
Q

What are the signs of asthma?

A

Diurnal PEFR variation

Dyspnoea and Expiratory Polyphonic wheeze

Samter’s Triad: Nasal polyps, Aspirin sensitivity, Asthma

Atopic Triad: Atopic Rhinitis, Asthma, Eczema
Hyper resonant Percussion

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108
Q

What may be found in sputum from an asthmatic?

A

Curschmann spirals:
Mucus plugs that look like casts of the small bronchi

Charcot-Leyden crystals:
From break down of eosiophils.

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109
Q

What are some primary investigations of asthma?

A
  • Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO):>40 ppb is positive in adults
  • Spirometry:FEV1/FVC <70% suggests obstruction
    if positive for obstruction, then carry out Bronchodilator reversibility (BDR)
  • Peak flow rate (PEFR):measured multiple times a day over 2-4 weeks. Variability of >20% is diagnostic
  • Airway hyperreactivity testing: a histamine or methacholine direct bronchial challenge is performed if the investigations above are inconclusive
  • Allergy testing: immunoassay for allergen-specific IgE or skin-prick testing
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110
Q

How does Peak flow measurements differ at different times of the day?

A

Morning lower, evening higher. Diurnal variation

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111
Q

What is the bronchodilator reversibility test? What values in this would be indicative of asthma?

A

Looks to see if bronchodilators can improve FEV1
In asthma, use of bronchodilators should lead to

improvement of FEV1 by ≥12%andincrease ≥200ml in volume post-bronchodilator

An improvement of less than 12% is indicative of COPD

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112
Q

What is the general 1st and 2nd line management of chronic, non exacerbatory asthma?

A

1st line - SAB2A, eg Salbutamol, PRN

2nd line - SABA; e.g. salbutamol + low dose ICSe.g. beclomethasone.

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113
Q

What is the general 3rd and 4th line management for chronic asthma?

A

3a. Before adding more drugs assess inhaler technique and compliance

3b. SABA + ICS + Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist (LTRA = montelukast)

4th - SABA + ICS + LABA (Salmeterol) +/- LTRA

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114
Q

after SABA, ICS, LABA, and LTRA for asthma what do you switch to?

A

SABA and MART(maintenance and reliever therapy); this is combined fast-acting LABA and ICS for symptomatic relief and maintenance in a single inhaler.

Can increase ICS dose!!!

ICS increase transcription of B2-receptor gene = more expression of it on cell surface receptors —> ICS help Beta Agonists to work

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115
Q

What is the presentation of an asthma attack?

A

Fast respiratory rate
Symmetrical wheeze
Tight sounding chest with reduced air entry

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116
Q

How tight is someone’s chest when they’re having an asthma attack?

A

Almost as tight as Abishek’s chest at miniNAMs when he wore a muscle fit top a good 3 sizes to small
#pecs #gainz #gymLAD

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117
Q

What is investigated in an asthma attack?

A

PEFR
ABG: patients will initially have respiratory alkalosis. Abnormal or high PCO2 is concerning as it implies the patient is tiring

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118
Q

What PEFR would be considered an moderate, severe, life threatening/fatal asthma attack?

A

Moderate - PEFR 50-75% of predicted

Acute Severe - PEFR 33-50%, Resp rate >25, HR >110, can’t complete sentences

Lifethreatening PEFR <33%, Sats <92%, Becoming tired, No wheeze,

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119
Q

What is the treatment for acute asthma attacks?

A

OSHITME:

O2 if oxygen sats are low
Saba (Salbutamol nebulised)
Hydrocortisone IV
Ipratropium bromide added to nebulizer remember, ipratropium is a SAMA
Theophyline IV - Bronchodilator
MgSO4 - Magnesium sulphate,
Escalate

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120
Q

What are some indicators of good asthma control?

A
  • No night-time symptoms
    ● Inhaler used no more than three times per week
    ● No breathing difficulties, cough or wheeze on most days
    ● Able to exercise without symptoms
    ● Normal lung function test
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121
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an inherited, autosomal recessive, multi-system disease affecting mucus glands.

Respiratory problems most prominent, as well as pancreatic insufficiency.

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122
Q

What is epidemiology of Cystic fibrosis?

A

Cystic fibrosis is the most common inherited condition in the Caucasian population, affecting 1/2500 births, whilst 1/25 of the population are carriers

AUTOSOMMAL RECESSIVE

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123
Q

A mutation on what gene causes CF?
What does this mutation go on to cause?

A

cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulatory gene on chromosome 7

Δ-F508 is the most common mutation, where the codon for phenylalanine (F) in the CFTR gene is deleted, resulting in proteolytic degradation.

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124
Q

Normal physiology - what does the CFTR gene do?

A

cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulatory gene codes for a channel protein that pumps chloride ions into various secretions, those chloride ions help draw water into the secretions, which ends up thinning them out.

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125
Q

How does a mutation to the CFTR gene cause disease?

A

Misfolded CFTR protein can’t migrate from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell membrane, meaning there’s a lack of CFTR protein on the epithelial surface

This means that it can’t pump chloride ions out, which means water doesn’t get drawn in, and the secretions are left overly thick.

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126
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a CFTR dysfunction in relation to the lungs?

A

CFTR mutation leads to thick mucus secretions.

This causes impaired mucociliary clearance as the mucus is extra thick.

This leads to stagnation of mucus that contains pathogens which leads to increased infection risk.

The thicker mucus causes difficulty breathing

Trapping of mucosal pathogens can cause a inflammatory reaction which leads to an increased risk of bronchiectasis

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127
Q

What are the main pathogens that can cause lung infections in people with cystic fibrosis? What anbtx would you give for these

A
  • Low volume thick airway secretions that reduce airway clearance, resulting in bacterial colonisation and susceptibility to airway infections, especially with:

S. Aureus – flucloxacillin
H. influenzae – amoxicillin
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - ciprofloxacin

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128
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a CFTR dysfunction in relation to neonates?

A

Can lead to Meconium Ileus:
Stool becomes too thick to pass through the bowel leading to bowel obstruction. - Surgical emergency

Failure to thrive

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129
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a CFTR dysfunction in relation to the GI Tract?

A

Thick secretions from the pancreas can lead to pancreatic duct obstruction.
Pancreatic insufficiency and malabsorption of foods.
Pancreas enzymes can build up in pancreas and damage it, leading to pancreatitis and fibrosis
Bowel obstructions

Can also lead to endocrine dysfunction - insulin dependant diabetes

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130
Q

What is the pathophysiology of a CFTR dysfunction in relation to the Hepatobiliary system?
How can CF lead to male infertility?

A

Thicker biliary secretions leads to an increased risk of biliary obstruction.

Could lead to liver cirrhosis
CFTR mutation can cause atrophy of the vas deferens leading to infertility

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131
Q

What are the symptoms of CF?

A

Chronic cough w/Thick sputum production

Recurrent respiratory tract infections

Loose, greasy stools (steatorrhoea) due to a lack of fat digesting lipase enzymes

Abdominal pain and bloating

Most common cause of Meconium Ileus in infants

Parents may report the child tastes particularly salty when they kiss them, due to the concentrated salt in the sweat

Poor weight and height gain (failure to thrive)

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132
Q

What are some signs of CF?

A
  • Low weight
  • Nasal polyps
  • Finger clubbing
  • Crackles and wheezes
  • Abdominal distension
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133
Q

When is CF most often diagnosed?

What does the test in question look for

A
  • It is found during the heel-prick/Guthrie test which screens for CF in babies by looking for serum immunoreactivity trypsinogen

Immunoreactivity trypsinogen is an pancreatic enzyme that is released into the blood when the pancreas is damaged.

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134
Q

What other investigations can you do for CF? What is gold standard?

A

Other than heel-prick/Guthrie test (looks for serum IRT)

Sweat test:gold standard test; induce sweating (by placing electrodes on skin) followed by analysis of sweat to check Cl- concentration
A result of> 60 mmol/L (sweat chloride) is positive and requires referral to a cystic fibrosis specialist (normal value < 40 mmol/Ll)

Genetic testing:Genetic testing for CFTR gene mutation can be performed during pregnancy, via amniocentesis

  • Lung function tests:obstructive pattern seen; and allows monitoring of treatment
  • Sputum sample:microbiological investigation during exacerbations
    Faecal elastase:test for pancreatic insufficiency
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135
Q

Why are people with CF at a massively increased risk of recurrent respiratory tract infections?

A

Patients with cystic fibrosis struggle to clear the secretions in their airways.
This creates a perfect environment with plenty of moisture and oxygen for colonies of bacteria to live and replicate.

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136
Q

What are some first line treatments to help manage CF?

A

Exercise, no smoking!
- Airway clearance techniques:minimum 2 times per day. Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage.
- Bronchodilator: inhaledsalbutamolfor exacerbations

rhDNasee.g. dornase alfa - an enzyme that breaks down material in secretions, making them less viscous
- Nebulised hypertonic saline

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137
Q

What is the treatment for the GI symptoms of CF?

A
  • CREON tablets helps to digest fats in patients with pancreatic insufficiency (missing lipase)
  • fat-soluble vitamin supplements (A, D, E, K);
  • High calorie diet to make up for malabsorption and calories needed for respiratory effort
138
Q

what is the new miracle cure for CF?

A

personalised genetic treatments - targets specific mutation - F508 del,

Lumacaftor is a CFTR corrector, acts as a Pharmalogical chaperone to bring the F508 del CFTR protein to the cell membrane

Ivacaftor, a CFTR potentiator binds to channel directly, increases the chances of it opening. primarily the targets G551D mutation.

Can be used in combination with one another

139
Q

What is the prognosis of CF?

A

Prognosis: Median survival is now ~ 41yrs in the UK, although a baby born today would expect to live longer.

  • 90% of patients with CF developpancreatic insufficiency
  • 50% of adults with CF developcystic fibrosis-related diabetesand require treatment withinsulin
  • 30% of adults with CF developliver disease
  • Most males are infertile due to absent vas deferens

Lung disease is the most common cause of death in patients with cystic fibrosis

140
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Bronchiectasis is the permanent dilation of bronchi due to the destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall.

It’s an obstructive airway disease

141
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Bronchiectasis?

A

More common in women than men
May develop after lung infections
Pathological end point of many disease
Presents at any age but incidence increase with age

142
Q

Name some diseases that can lead to Bronchiectasis

A

Primary ciliary dyskinesia: cilia don’t move normally which leaves mucus stuck in the airways. Bacteria trapped in mucus can lead to pneumonia and inflammation

Cystic fibrosis: mucus is sticky and therefore hard to sweep, can accumulate

Obstruction
Foreign body e.g. peanut
Post TB stenosis
Tumour
Thick mucus

AIDs, or immunoglobulin deficiency

Post-infections

143
Q

What infections can lead to bronchiectasis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa
TB
Measles
Pneumonia
Pertussis

144
Q

Outline that pathophysiology that leads to bronchectasis.

A

Chronic inflammation 🡪 damage to airways 🡪 elastin destruction (lung dilates) and collagen deposition 🡪 stiff, large airways that are plugged with mucous, and and fibrosis of lung parenchyma (non-reversible)

145
Q

What are some symptoms for bronchiectasis?

A

Chronic cough with expectoration of large quantities of foul-smelling sputum, sometimes it is flecked with blood (haemoptysis)
Haemoptysis
SOB/Dyspnoea
Wheeze
Chest pain

146
Q

What are some signs of bronchiectasis?

Where in the lung does bronchiectasis normally affect??

A

History of chronic productive cough and recurrent chest infections (pneumonia)
Finger clubbing – especially with cystic fibrosis, due to long term hypoxia
Crackles over affected areas, usually at base of lungs

Normally affects baseline of lungs

147
Q

What are some investigations for bronchiectasis?

What specific sign do you see on the gold standard investigation

A

Lung function test – shows obstructive pattern, less lung capacity and less FEV1 - FEV1/FVC = <0.7
Chest xray - Dilated bronchi with thickened walls – tramline and ring shadows, Multiple cysts containing fluid showing up as cystic shadows

High resolution CT - gold standard - Thickened, dilated bronchi with cysts at end of bronchioles, Airways larger than associated blood vessels - Signet ring sign

Sputum culture – to see colonisation status and exclude non-tuberculous mycobacterial disease

148
Q

What are the most common bacterial infections that people with bronchiectasis get?

A

Haemophilus influenzae - MOST COMMON

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Strep. Pneumoniae
S. Aureus

149
Q

What is the treatment for bronchectasis?

A
  • Antibiotics: for recurrent infections
  • Postural drainage: to remove excess mucus
  • Chest physio
  • Mucolytics - carbocisteine, to break up mucus
  • Bronchodilators e.g. nebulised salbutamol: useful for asthma or COPD sufferers
  • Anti-inflammatory agents e.g. long term azithromycin (macrolide) can reduce exacerbation frequency
  • Surgery: to remove physical obstruction e.g. foreign object
150
Q

Anbx for common bronchiectasis infections - what do you give for
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
H. influenzae
S. Aureus
infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa – oral ciprofloxacin
H. influenzae – oral amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav or doxycycline
Some multi-resistant species needs IV cephalosporin
S. Aureus – flucloxacillin

151
Q

How can bronchiectasis lead to heart failure

A

Airways that are full of mucous become hypoxic.
Widespread hypoxia leads to widespread vasoconstriction of the pulmonary blood vessels - leading to pulmonary hypertension

Pulmonary hypertension means that the right side of the heart will have to beat harder to get blood around pulmonary circulation - RV hypertrophy

Known as Cor pulmonale

152
Q

Normal physiology - where is the pleural cavity found?

What are its functions?

A

Lungs covered by thin serious layer – visceral pleural
Reflected on chest wall and pericardium as parietal pleura

Pleural cavity is the thin space in-between this, and the fluid here is drained into lymphatic system

Allows movement of lung against chest wall
Coupling system between lungs and chest
Clearing fluid from pulmonary interstitium

153
Q

What are the different types of Pleural effusion?

A

Whether the fluid is:

Exudative - high protein count (>30g/dL)

Transudative - lower protein count (<30g/dL) (transparent, less protein)

Lymphatic pleural effusion (chylothorax)

154
Q

What are the main pathology relating to a Exudative Pleural Effusion?

A

caused by inflammation, infection and malignancy. The inflammation results in protein e.g. LDH leaking out of the tissues and into the pleural space. - eg increased vascular permeability

155
Q

What are the main pathology relating to a transudative Pleural Effusion?

A

Transudate effusion: caused by increased hydrostatic pressure (pulmonary hypertension) or low oncotic pressure. This causes fluid to move from the capillaries into the pleural sac.

156
Q

What are the main pathology relating to a Lymphatic effusion (chylothorax)

A
  • Lymphatic effusion (chylothorax)
    • The thoracic duct is disrupted so drainage is not efficient - lymphatic fluid accumulates in the pleural space.

Eg damage to duct during surgery or due to tumours

157
Q

name some causes of Transudative effusions

A

Congestive heart failure: heart can’t effectively pump to rest of body and so blood is backed up and increases pressure

Hypoalbuminaemia: may be due to liver failure (lack of protein production), nephrotic syndrome (loss of protein in the urine) and malabsorption.

Hypothyroidism

Peritoneal dialysis: an acute massive effusion may occur within 48 hours of initiating dialysis due to dialysis fluid crossing the diaphragm

Meig’s syndrome: this is the triad of a benign ovarian tumour with ascites and a pleural effusion

158
Q

name some causes of exudative effusions

A

Malignancy: tumour infiltration of pleural capillaries and cytokines increase capillary permeability

Infection: e.g. pneumonia (acute lung injury increases vascular permeability

  • Trauma
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Pancreatitis
  • Autoimmune and connective tissue disorders: key causes include SLE, rheumatoid pleurisy and eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Exudative pleural effusions can also be caused by Dresslers Syndrome

159
Q

What are the signs of pleural effusion?

A

Reduced Chest expansion on affected side
Reduce breath sounds on affected side

Dull percussion (increased fluid)

Decreased tactile or vocal fremitus (reduced vibration of chest wall when speaking)

Pleural friction rub/bronchial breathing

Tracheal Deviation

160
Q

What are the symptoms of Pleural effusion?

A

Dyspnoea
Pleuritic chest pain (often exudate due to pleural inflammation/irritation)
Cough

Sx of underlying pathology:
Peripheral oedema - Heart failure
Ascites - Liver failure
Cough & fever - RTI

161
Q

What are the investigations for a pleural effusion

A

CXR:
Transudates usually bilateral (TB)
Exudates usually unilateral (EU)
Blunting of costophrenic angle

Thoracocentesis - aspirate some pleural fluid, just above the rib to avoid NV bundle
Transudate – clear
Exudate – cloudy
Lymphatic – looks like milk

162
Q

How much protein is in an exudative and transudative effusion?

How can you distinguish between them in grey areas?

A
  • Exudates have a protein level>30 g/Lwhilst transudates have a protein level<30 g/L
  • If the protein level is 25-35 g/L,Light’s criteriashould be applied

Light’s criteria is used todistinguish between transudate and exudate effusions

163
Q

Pleural effusion - outline lights criteria

A

The criteria state that an exudate is likely if one or moreof the following criteria are met:

  • Pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein is> 0.5
  • Pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH is> 0.6
  • Pleural fluid LDH> 2/3the upper limits of normal serum LDH
164
Q

What is the treatment for pleural effusion?

A

Conservative Mx:
Small effusions can be treated by Tx of underlying cause (often Transudative)
Small ones can you diuretics eg furosemide

Thoracocentesis - needle drainage
Chest Drain - remove fluid (often Exudative)

Pleurodesis - injection that adheres visceral and parietal pleural together so excess fluids cannot end up between them

165
Q

Normal physiology - what creates the vacuum in the pleural space?

A

Vacuum in the pleural space created by
1. Tension of the diaphragm and Chest wall, to pull the thoracic cavity outwards
2. Elastic recoil of the lungs which pull the lungs inwards

- This pull creates a vacuum in the pleural space

Pleural space has a pressure of -5 centimetres of water relative to the pressure of 0 centimetres of water in both the thoracic cavity and the lungs

166
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Air in pleural space 🡪 partial or complete collapse of lung

167
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of a Pneumothorax?

A

Breach in the pleura (trauma/CT disorders)
Leads to air entry into pleural cavity
Elastic recoil of the lung causes it to deflate

eg. Subpleural bullae burst
eg. Abnormal connection between pleural space and airways (due to trauma)

168
Q

Outline what happens in a secondary pneumothorax? What disease can cause it?

A
  • Typical presentation: a middle-aged patient with COPD presents with sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain
  • There are signs of underlying disease
  • Due to ruptured bleb or bullae (fluid-filled sac) secondary to lung disease

Causes
- Underlying lung disease e.g. COPD, asthma, lung cancer
- TB
- Pneumocystic jirovecii

169
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax and what causes it?

A

Typical presentation: a ventilated patient suddenly becomes breathless and haemodynamically unstable. This is an emergency

Air is forced into the thoracic cavity without means of escape it is a one way valve.

170
Q

What are the signs of a tension pneumothorax?

A
  • Trachea will deviate away, due to the increased pressure “pushing” it over to the other side
  • Hyper-resonant percussion because there is more air inside the chest
  • Decreased tactile and vocal fremitus
171
Q

Why is a tension pneumothorax dangerous?

A

Air is drawn in to the pleural space with each breath and cannot escape.
This is dangerous as it creates pressure in the thorax and will push the mediastinum across kinking the big vessels causing cardiorespiratory arrest, and put pressure on the heart

172
Q

What are the symptoms of a pneumothorax?

A

Sudden onset pleuritic chest pain
Sudden-onset dyspnoea
Sweating

As pneumothorax enlarges, patient becomes more breathless and may develop pallor and tachycardia

173
Q

What are the signs of a pneumothorax?

A

Reduced breath sounds on affected side
Hyper resonant percussion (increased air)
Reduced chest expansion
Trachea Deviation away

Tachycardia/Tachypnoea
Hypotension - in Tension Pneumothorax

174
Q

What is the primary investigation for a pneumothorax?

A
  • If tension pneumothorax is suspected, don’t wait for investigations!
  • Erect CXR:first-line investigation
    • Demonstrates a visible visceral pleural edge with no lung markings peripheral to this line
    • In atension pneumothorax, there is mediastinal shift and tracheal deviation contralaterally

CT chest:gold-standard due to accurate pneumothorax size estimation, - rarely done though

175
Q

What is the management for a tension pneumothorax?

A
  • Emergency!
  • Immediate needle decompression with the insertion of a large-bore (14–16G) needle into the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line
  • High-flow oxygen
  • Chest drain after aspiration
  • Repeat CXR
176
Q

What is the management for spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

Rim of air <2cm and no SOB - can heal on its own

If SOB and/or a >2cm rim of air
- Aspiration is usually performed at the2nd intercostal space midclavicular lineon the affected side
- Chest drain is inserted at the5th intercostal space mid-axillaryline on the affected side within the ‘triangle of safety’
- High-flow oxygen if needed
- Repeat CXR

177
Q

What is Empyema?

A

An infected Pleural Effusion (pus collects in pleural cavity)

178
Q

What does Empyema Show on pleural aspiration?

A

PHAL:
Pus,
High LDH.
Acidic pH (pH < 7.2),
Low glucose

179
Q

When would you suspect empyema?

A

When a patient has an improving pneumonia but new or ongoing fever. Pleural aspiration will show pus, acidic pH <7.2 ,low glucose and high LDH.

180
Q

What is the treatment for Empyema?

A

chest drain to remove the pus and antibiotics

181
Q

What is an Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD)?

A

Umbrella term to describe conditions that affect the lung parenchyma (the lung tissue) causing inflammation and fibrosis.

182
Q

Give some examples of ILDs?

A

Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pneumonoconiosis
Sarcoidosis (Granulomatous)
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

183
Q

What is the general Management for ILD?

A

Generally the damage is irreversible and so supportive Tx to prevent progression.

Mx options:
Remove or treat the underlying cause
Home oxygen where they are hypoxic at rest
Stop smoking
Physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation
Pneumococcal and flu vaccine

184
Q

name some types of Pulmonary Fibrosis?

A

Idiopathic PF - most common Interstitial lung disease
Drug induced PF
Secondary PF

185
Q

What is pulmonary fibrosis (PF)?

A

It describes the interstitial fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and has a number of causes. The most common cause is idiopathic

186
Q

What are some causes of drug induced PF?

A

Amiodarone - anti arrhythmia
Cyclophosphamide - a type of chemo drug
Methotrexate - DMARD
Nitrofurantoin - antbx, often used for UTIs

187
Q

What are some causes of secondary PF?

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin
Rheumatoid arthritis
SLE
Systemic sclerosis
Asbestos

188
Q

What can asbestos inhalation lead to? What is this known as

A

Can causes asbestosis - leads to

Lung fibrosis
Pleural thickening and pleural plaques
Adenocarcinoma
Mesothelioma

Asbestos is fibrogenic, meaning it causes lung fibrosis. It is also oncogenic, meaning it causes cancer

189
Q

Normal physiology - what do type 1 and type 2 pneumocytes do, and what is found in the lung interstitial tissue?

A

Type 1 - helps make up air barrier, long and thin
Type 2 - cuboidal, secrete surfactant

In-between these there is interstitial tissue, that contains macrophages and fibroblasts

190
Q

What are some risk factors for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?

A
  • Advanced age:the mean age at diagnosis is 60-70 years of age
  • Male gender: twice as common in men
  • Smoking
  • Family history
  • Dust exposure:raising birds, metal, wood
191
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.

What is created and what do you see?

A

type II pneumocytes over-proliferate during the repair process = too many myofibroblasts, that don’t undergo apoptosis so collagen accumulates

interstitial layer thickens between the alveoli and the capillary ==> excess collagen also leads to the loss of alveoli

creating cysts, surrounded by thick walls in a pattern called “honeycombing”.

192
Q

What can cause pulmonary fibrosis in the upper respiratory zones?

A

PSHCT

Pneumonoconiosis
Sarcoidosis + Silicosis
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
Cystic Fibrosis
Tuberculosis

193
Q

What can cause Pulmonary Fibrosis in the Lower Respiratory Zones?

A

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Drug Induced PF
Connective tissue Disorders (SLE)

194
Q

What are the symptoms of pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Progressive Dyspnoea
Dry cough (no sputum)
Malaise

195
Q

What are some signs of Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

IPF mainly affects the lower lobes

  • Signs
    • Bibasal fine end-inspiratory crackles, predominantly in lower zones
    • Clubbing
    • Cyanosis
196
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Spirometry: Restriction

CXR - non specific but can be used to exclude other DDx

Gold Standard:
High CT thorax to confirm diagnosis = Ground glass & Honeycombing

Lung biopsy if still unclear

197
Q

What spirometry is indicative of a RESTRICTIVE pulmonary disease, like pulmonary fibrosis?

A

FVC reduced so FEV1/FVC ratio >0.8 predicted value e.g. pulmonary fibrosis
Decreased total lung capacity

FEV1 = volume of air that can be forcefully expired in 1 second
FVC = total volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after maximum inhalation

198
Q

What antibodies may be present in PF?

A

Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and rheumatoid factor (RF):

ANA is positive in 30% and RF is positive in 10-20%, but this does not confirm that the fibrosis is secondary to connective tissue disease

199
Q

What is the management for PF?

A

Remove/treat underlying cause
Home oxygen when hypoxic at rest
Stop smoking
Physiotherapy
Pneumococcal and flu vaccine
Advanced care planning and palliative care where appropriate

Prednisolone for exacerbations
end stage/advnaced - LUNG TRANSPLANT

200
Q

What are some drugs that can slow the progression of idiopathic PF?

A

Pirfenidone is an antifibrotic and anti-inflammatory
Nintedanib is a monoclonal antibody inhibits tyrosine kinase - involved in cell division/proliferation

201
Q

What is Sarcoidosis?

A

Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous inflammatory multi-systemic disease in which any organ can be affected, although the lungs are the predominantly affected organ.

202
Q

What are some risk factors/epidemiology of sarcoidosis

A
  • Afro-Caribbean and Scandinavian ethnicity
  • Young adults: commonly presents at 20-40 years of age
  • Female gender
  • Family history of it
    Associated
    with HLA-DRB1 and DQB1 alleles.

Previous infections of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis,

203
Q

Normal physiology recap- what is a granuloma?

A

A granuloma is an aggregation of macrophages that forms in response to chronic inflammation. This occurs when the immune system attempts to isolate foreign substances that it is otherwise unable to eliminate.

Histiocytes (specifically macrophages) are the cells that define a granuloma.
The macrophages in granulomas are often referred to as “epithelioid”. This term refers to the vague resemblance of these macrophages to epithelial cells

204
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind sarcoidosis.

What is the specific type of cell that forms as a result?

A

A T-cell-mediated immune response to an unknown antigen attracts other immune cells, causes the formation of granulomas

The granulomas in sarcoidosis are non-caseating which means that there is no tissue necrosis at the centre of the granuloma.

The macrophages begin to release local mediators that result in inflammation, and can fuse together forming a single multi-nucleated cell called a Langhans cell,

It can involve nearly every organ, but they most often involves hilar lymph nodes which are lymph nodes that are near the point where the bronchi meets the lung.

205
Q

What are the Chest symptoms of sarcoidosis?

How can you differentiate if from TB?

A

Dry cough - note TB has phlegm production!!**
Dyspnoea
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy

Constitutional Sx:
Weight loss, Fatigue and fever

206
Q

What are the Common and Less common Extra-pulmonary symptoms of Sarcoidosis?

A

Common: (PESH)

Peripheral lymphadenopathy
Eye – anterior uveitis
Skin –Erythema nodosa, skin papule
Hepatosplenomegaly
Less common:

Bone
Heart – arrhythmias
CNS
Kidney

207
Q

What is Lofgren’s Syndrome?

A

specific presentation of sarcoidosis. It is characteristic by a triad of:

Erythema nodosum
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
Polyarthralgia (joint pain in multiple joints)

Heerfordt’s syndrome: causes facial nerve palsy, fever, uveitis and parotitis - see picture, also asossicated with sarcoidosis

208
Q

What are some primary investigations for Sarcoidosis?

A
  • Routine bloods:inflammatory markers may be raised, can screen for other organ involvement
  • Serum calcium:hypercalcaemia (10%) (due to macrophages in non-caseating granulomas activating vitamin D)
  • Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE):elevated (but with poor sensitivity (60%) and specificity (70%))
  • CXR:first-line imaging; may show hilar lymphadenopathy or bilateral infiltrates

CT chest:shows hilar lymphadenopathy

209
Q

What is the gold standard test for sarcoidosis? What would it shoe?

A

Tissue biopsy: usually done by doing bronchoscopy with ultrasound guided biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes.

Shows characteristic non-caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells, as well as intracytoplasmic star-shaped or laminar calcified inclusions - (asteroid bodies, Schaumann bodies)

210
Q

What are some differential diagnoses of sarcoidosis?

A

Tuberculosis (caseating)
Lymphoma
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
HIV
Toxoplasmosis
Histoplasmosis

211
Q

What is the treatment of Sarcoidosis?

A

ASx/Mild: No Tx is 1st Line:
85% of stage 1 resolve spontaneously
50% of stage 2 resolve spontaneously

When Tx required:
1st Line: Oral Prednisolone (+bisphosphonates to protect against OP)

2nd Line: Methotrexate/Azathioprine

Complicaiton - Pulmonary fibrosis, Pulmonary HTN, Cor Pulmonale

212
Q

What is Hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction to an environmental allergen that causes parenchymal inflammation and destruction in people sensitive to that allergen

213
Q

Name some causes (and antigens) of Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis.

A

Bird-fanciers lung is a reaction to proteins in bird droppings

Farmers lung is a reaction to mouldy spores in hay (micropolyspora faeni)

Mushroom workers’ lung is a reaction to specific mushroom antigens

Malt workers lung is a reaction to mould on barley

214
Q

Outline to pathophysiology behind Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

TYPE 3 HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION

Allergen is inhaled and picked up by alveolar macrophages which take it to the nearest lymph node., and antibodies against allergen (IgG) form autoantigens

These complexes get deposited in the lung tissues and alveoli.

Complement is activated which causes acute inflammation of the lung tissue causing pneumonitis

Chronically this can lead to pulmonary fibrosis

Can be acute or chronic

215
Q

What are the acute clinical manifestations of Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?

A

Sx develop <12 hrs after a good amount of exposure and resolve after 48 hrs

Fever
Rigors
Headache
Myalgia
Shortness of breath
Cough
Chest tightness

216
Q

What are the Chronic clinical manifestations of Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

A

Sx develop over prolonged exposure (often lower levels for long time)

Progressive cough
Progressive Dyspnoea
Fatigue
Weight loss

Fibrosis is evident

217
Q

What is bronchoalverolar lavage?

A

. Bronchoalveolar lavage involves collecting cells from the airways during bronchoscopy by washing the airways with fluid then collecting that fluid for testing

218
Q

How is Hypersensitivity pneumonitis diagnosed?

A

Bronchoscopy with Bronchoalveolar lavage:
Biopsy shows raised T Lymphocytes and mast cells in bronchi, alveoli and non-caseating granulomas

High Res CT - Ground glass (upper lobes) and centrilobular nodules. Reticular opacity

Spirometry/ Pulmonary function test - Restrictive

Serology - Specific Igs

219
Q

What is the treatment for hypersensitivity pneumonitis?

A

Remove the allergen

Steroids (glucocorticoids) can help with symptoms

Give oxygen if necessary

Long term:

wear a facemask
or +ve pressure helmet.
Long-term steroids

Compensation (UK Industrial Injuries Act) may be payable.

220
Q

What is Pneumonoconiosis?

A

Interstitial lung fibrosis that occurs secondary to inhalation of occupational triggering antigens that cause an inflammatory reaction.

Penumo - con - oh - sis

221
Q

What are some different types of pneumonoconiosis?

A

Silicosis - Inhalation of silicon dioxide
Asbestosis - Inhalation of asbestos

222
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of pneumonoconiosis?

A

Particles (Dust, asbestos, silica) are inhaled, they reach the terminal bronchioles and are ingested by interstitial and alveolar macrophages.

Dust particles are carried by macrophages and expelled as mucus.

In chronic exposure (occupation), this process is no longer functional and macrophages accumulate in alveoli,

Resulting in immune system activation and lung tissue damage.

Fibroblasts then arrive and deposit excess collagen to cause lung fibrosis

223
Q

What is pulmonary hypertension?

A

Pulmonary hypertension is increased resistance and pressure of blood in the pulmonary arteries.

A mean pulmonary arterial pressure that is greater than 25 mmHg.

224
Q

What diseases/conditions can lead to primary pulmonary hypertension? How do they do this?

A

SLE, infections e.g. HIV, thyroid disorders, and inherited genetic mutations.

Endothelial damage - release endothelin-1, serotonin, and thromboxane. These make the pulmonary arterioles constrict and cause hypertrophy of the smooth muscle surrounding them.

The damaged endothelial cells also produce less nitric oxide and prostacyclin (which, make the pulmonary arterioles dilate and inhibit smooth muscle hypertrophy)

225
Q

How can left heart failure lead to pulmonary hypertension?

A

-usually due to myocardial infarction or systemic hypertension

Pulmonary blood vessels are normal and undamaged, but the left side of the heart is unable to pump efficiently. 

This causes a backup of blood in the pulmonary veins and capillary beds, which can increase the pressure in the pulmonary artery.
226
Q

How can chronic lung diseases like COPD lead to pulmonary hypertension?

A

Area in the lung is diseased and is unable to deliver oxygen to the blood, so pulmonary arteries in this area vasoconstrict
Widespread disease = widespread vasoconstriction of pulmonary arterioles, = increases pulmonary vascular resistance

This makes it hard for the right ventricle to pump out blood. To make the same amount of blood flow through the pulmonary arterioles, the right side of the heart has to generate increased pressure and this results in pulmonary hypertension.

227
Q

What are some consequences of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Increase in Jugular venous pressure
Fluid build up in liver = hepatomegaly

Fluid Buildup in legs - Leg Oedema
Systemic Hypertension

Think - fluid build up in RS of heart, and before that in the systemic circulation - hence these symptoms!!

228
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary pulmonary HTN?

A

COPD

229
Q

What are the symptoms of Pulmonary HTN?

A

Progressive breathlessness
Exertional Dizziness/syncope
Fatigue

Sx of underlying pathology

230
Q

What are the signs of pulmonary HTN?

A

Loud S2 heart sound - pulmonary side
Raised JVP
Pulmonary/Tricuspid regurgitation
Tachycardia
Hepatomegaly
Peripheral oedema
Right parasternal heave - due to RV hypertrophy

Signs of underlying pathology

231
Q

What is the first line and gold standard investigations for Pulmonary hypertension?

What would you see on an ECG for pulmonary hypertension?

A

1st Line: ECHO:
RV function, enlargement and Pressures

Gold Standard (diagnostic) Right heart Catheter

CXR - RVH, Enlarged proximal PA

ECG:
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Right axis deviation
Right bundle branch block

232
Q

What is the treatment for pulmonary HTN?

A

Primary P HTN:
Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (SILDENAFIL)
IV prostanoids (Epoprostenol)
Endothelin receptor antagonists (Macitentan)

Secondary P HTN:
Tx underlying cause

Supportive Tx for complications:
Respiratory failure, HF, arrythmias

233
Q

What are the main complications of pulmonary HTN?

A

Right heart failure: due to increasing pulmonary pressures
(Can lead to biventricular failure)

Pericardial effusion and tamponade

Hepatic congestion: due to worsening right heart failure

234
Q

Recap - outline some normal cells found on the epithelium of the lungs, and their function

A

Ciliated Cells - to help waft pathogens out of lungs
Goblet Cells - to secrete mucin
Club Cells - help protect bronchiolar epithelium
Basal cells - immature cells that can differentiate into other cells
Neuroendocrine cells - that can secrete hormones into the blood

235
Q

What are the two types of lung cancer? What percentage of lung cancer do they make up?

A

CLASSIFY BY HISTOLOGY

Small Cell lung cancer (20%)
Non- Small cell lung cancer (80%)

236
Q

What are the different types of non - small cell lung cancer?

A
  • Adenocarcinoma (40%)
  • Squamous cell Carcinoma (20%)
  • Large Cell Carcinoma (10%)
  • Carcinoid/other (10%)
237
Q

What are some general risk factors for lung cancer?

A
  • Increasing age: adenocarcinomas are an exception, often occurring in younger patients.
  • Smoking: tobacco smoking or environmental smoke exposure.
  • Other environmental exposure: radon, asbestos, arsenic, chromium, air pollution and radiation.
  • Family history: some gene mutations are known to be associated with an increased risk of lung cancer development.
238
Q

What is more common, Primary or secondary lung cancer?

A

Secondary are More common than Primary:

Lungs oxygenate 100% of blood and therefore they come into contact with all blood. This increases the risk of metastasis.

239
Q

What are the common causes of secondary lung cancer?

A

Mets from:
Breast
Kidney
Bowel
Bladder

240
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of Small cell lung cancers -
Where are they often located?
What cells are they derived from?

A
  • 15%of lung cancer cases
  • Location: central lesion near the main bronchus, and commonly large
  • Derived from neuroendocrine Kulchitsky cells

Associated with Smoking

241
Q

What symptoms small cell lung cancers cause?

What is the prognosis for SCLC?

A
  • Contain neurosecretory granules that can release neuroendocrine hormones. This makes SCLC responsible for multiple paraneoplastic syndromes:
    • SIADH → hyponatraemia
    • Ectopic ACTH→ Cushing’s syndrome
    • Lambert-Eatonmyasthenic syndrome - releases antibodies that destroy neurons
    • PTH-like substance 🡪 hypercalcaemia
    • HCG or related hormones 🡪 gynecomastia (enlargement of male breast tissue)
  • Rapid growth and patients usually present in an advanced stage, metastases early, often to mediastinum or distally.
242
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of NON Small cell lung cancers - Adenocarcinoma

What Cell does it derive from?
Where in the lung is it commonly found?

A

Commonly associated with Asbestos
MOST COMMON non small cell lung cancer

Affects the peripheral lung
Arises from Mucous secreting glandular epithelium
METs Common

243
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in Adenocarcinomas?
Which group does it most commonly affect?

A

Most common cell type in non-smokers, not related to smoking

Paraneoplastic syndromes:

  • Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy:
    causes inflammation of the bones and joints in the wrists and ankles, and clubbing of the fingers and toes
  • Gynaecomastia - swelling of breast tissue in males, erectile dysfunction
244
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of NON Small cell lung cancers - Squamous cell carcinoma

What Cell does it derive from?
Where in the lung is it commonly found?
Number of cases: 20% NSCLC

A
  • Location: central lesion
  • Squamous, or square shaped, cells that produce keratin
    Most strongly associated with cigarette smoke

Number of cases: 20% NSCLC

245
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are seen in squamous cell carcinomas? What symptoms would be seen with these?

A

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy: causes inflammation of the bones and joints in the wrists and ankles, and clubbing of the fingers and toes

PTHrP→ hypercalcaemia - - Fatigue, Bone pain, Headaches, Nausea and vomiting, Constipation., polyuria

Most present as obstructive lesion leading to infection

246
Q

What are the Features of a Large-cell Carcinoma NSCLC?
Number of cases:
Location:
Originates:
Affects:
Paraneoplastic Syndromes

A

Number of cases: <10% NSCLC
Location: Peripheral lesion commonly but can be found anywhere in lungs
Originates: Lacks both glandular and squamous differentiation

Paraneoplastic Syndromes
- Ectopic B-hCG production
- Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy:

247
Q

What are the Features of a Carcinoid NSCLC?
Number of cases:
Originates:
Affects:
Paraneoplastic Syndromes

A
  • Rare
  • From mature neuroendocrine cells
  • Paraneoplastic syndrome:Carcinoid syndrome which causes the secretion of hormones, particularly serotonin, which leads to increased peristalsis and diarrhoea, and bronchoconstriction causing asthma.
248
Q

What is a Pancoast Tumour? What tumours can cause it?

A

A tumour in the lung apex/ upper lung that commonly metastasises to the necks sympathetic plexus and can press on the sympathetic ganglion

Can be caused by both squamous cell and adenocarcinomas

249
Q

What is seen in a Pancoast tumour/what can it cause?

A

HORNERS Syndrome characterised by:
Ptosis - Droopy eyelids
Myosis - Excessive Pupil Constriction
Anhidrosis - Lack of sweating

250
Q

What are the general Symptoms of Lung cancer?

A

Cough w/haemoptysis
Shortness of breath
Pleuritic Chest pain

Constitutional Sx of Cancer:
Fever
Night sweats
Weight loss
Loss of appetite

Signs of Paraneoplastic syndromes!

251
Q

What are the general signs of Lung Cancer?

A

Reduced Breath sounds
Stony Dull Percussion - suggests malignant pleural effusion
Hoarseness (press on RLN)
Lymphadenopathy
Clubbing
Recurrent chest infections
Paraneoplastic Changes

252
Q

What are some investigations for lung cancer?

A
  • Chest X-ray: first-line
    • Hilar enlargement
    • Lung consolidation
    • “Circular opacity” – a visible lesion in the lung field
    • Pleural effusion – usually unilateral in cancer, and collpase
  • CT chest with contrast:gold-standard imaging; requested if there is an abnormal CXRorpersistent symptoms with a normal CXR.
  • PET-CT:if CT is suggestive of malignancy, patients should have a staging PET-CT, using 18-fluorodeoxygenase which is taken up by malignant tissue

Gold standard
Bronchoscopy + Biopsy

253
Q

How are Lung Cancers Graded? outline the classification of T1-T4

A

TNM classification
Tumour – how big it is
T1 – <3cm
T2 - >3cm
T3 – invades chest wall, diaphragm and pericardium
T4 – invades mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, vertebra, carina

254
Q

TMN staging out line
N0 - N3
and M0 - M3

A

Nodes – how many and where they are
N0 - none
N1 – Hilar nodes
N2 – same side mediastinal nodes or subcarinal
N3 – contralateral mediastinum or supraclavicular

Metastases
0 - none
1a – tumour on same side
1b – tumour elsewhere
X - unknown

255
Q

Which is a more aggressive cancer, SCLC or NSCLC?

A

SCLC has a poorer prognosis than NSCLC, as SCLC patients will likely have disseminated disease at the point of first presentation.

256
Q

What is the treatment for SCLC?

A

Often Diagnosed late and Px have metastatic disease:

Therefore
chemoradiotherapy with platinum-based agents, e.g. cisplatin
palliative care

257
Q

What is the treatment for NSCLC?

A

Early: Surgical Excision + adjuvant therapy - lobectomy/ pneumonectomy/ Segmentectomy

Late/Metastatic:
palliative treatment with immunotherapy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy

(Nb. NSCLC has poor response to chemotherapy)

258
Q

What are some local obstruction complications for lung cancer?

A
  • Local obstruction:
    • Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsypresents with a hoarse voice. It is caused by the cancer pressing on the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it passes through the mediastinum.
    • Phrenic nerve palsydue to nerve compression; causes diaphragm weakness and presents as shortness of breath.
    • Superior vena cava obstruction caused by direct compression of the tumour on the superior vena cava. It presents with facial swelling, difficulty breathing and distended veins in the neck and upper chest. “Pemberton’s sign” is where raising the hands over the head causes facial congestion and cyanosis. This is a medical emergency.
    • Horner’s syndromeis a triad of partial ptosis, anhidrosis and miosis. It is caused by aPancoast’s tumour(tumour in thepulmonary apex) pressing on thesympathetic ganglion.

Pneumothorax

259
Q

What are some parnaeoplastic complications of SCLC?

A
  • Syndrome of inappropriate ADH(SIADH) caused byectopic ADHsecretion by asmall cell lung cancerand presents withhyponatraemia.
  • Cushing’s syndromecan be caused byectopic ACTHsecretion by asmall cell lung cancer.
  • Hypercalcaemiacaused byectopic parathyroid hormonefrom asquamous cell carcinoma.
  • Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy: causes inflammation of the bones and joints in the wrists and ankles, and clubbing of the fingers and toes
  • Limbic encephalitis: small cell lung cancer causes the immune system to make antibodies to tissues in the brain, specifically the limbic system, causing inflammation in these areas. This causes short term memory impairment, hallucinations, confusion and seizures. It is associated with anti-Hu antibodies.
  • Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome: small cell carcinoma prompts the body to produce autoantibodies which bind and destroy neurons
260
Q

What are the common causes of secondary lung cancer? What specific signs can you see on xray from them?

A

CRESP:
C = choriocarcinoma
R = renal cell carcinoma
E = endometrial carcinoma
S = Synovial sarcoma
P = Prostate carcinoma

These will often give rise to CANNONBALL metastases, or SNOWSTORM pattern

Cannonball- multiple large, well circumscribed round pulmonary metastases

261
Q

Normal Physiology - what does a shift to the left of the O2 Hb disassociation curve mean? What can cause this curve to shift to the left?

A

Further left you go: <== More affinity to O2, picks up O2 easier, harder to dissociate O2

Factors that drive curve more left: (Haemoglobin has MORE AFFINTY FOR O2 - LEFT FOR LOCKS IN O2 more )

Higher pH (More alkaline),
Decrease in CO2,
Decrease in Temperature,
Foetal Haemoglobin,
Carbon Monoxide ,
methemoglobinemia = elevated methaemoglobin - (haemoglobin with iron in Fe3+ state, that cannot bind to O2 like normal Hb with Fe2+)

262
Q

Normal Physiology - what does a shift to the right of the O2 Hb disassociation curve mean? What can cause this curve to shift to the right?

A

Further right you go ==> Less affinity for O2, dissociates more easily.

Factors that drive curve to the right: (Haemoglobin will have LESS AFFINITY FOR O2)
Decrease in pH (more acidic) , More CO2, Increase in Temperature

263
Q

What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) causes the majority of cases of bronchiolitis.

264
Q

What is a Mesothelioma?

name some other parts of the body that have mesothelium

A

A malignant neoplasm of the mesothelial cells of the pleura

Other sites include mesothelial cells of peritoneum, pericardium and tunica vaginalis of testes

265
Q

What is the primary cause of mesothelioma?

A

asbestos exposure, with the development of the malignancy occurring 20-40 years after exposure (after a long latent period).

266
Q

Briefly outline the pathophysiology behind mesotheliomas. What do these tumours express?

A

asbestos fibres make their way to the mesothelium and can get tangled up with the cell’s chromosome, causes DNA damage and modification in gene expression

Can also activate neutrophil and macrophages.

These growths start to express a lot of calretinin, a calcium-binding protein, involved in regulating calcium levels within the cell.

267
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Mesothelioma?

A
  • Signs
    • Finger clubbing
    • Reduced breath sounds
    • Stony dull percussion: suggests a pleural effusion
    • Ascites: if peritoneal disease is present
    • Signs of metastases: e.g. lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly, bone pain/ tenderness, abdominal pain/obstruction
  • Symptoms
    • Shortness of breath
    • Cough
    • Pleuritic chest pain or chest wall pain
    • Bloody sputum: if blood vessels are affected
    • Constitutional symptoms:
      • Fatigue, fever, night sweats, weight loss
268
Q

What investigations would do for a mesothelioma

A
  • CXR:unilateral pleural effusion, reduced lung volumes, pleural thickening, lower zone interstitial fibrosis for asbestos
  • Contrast-enhanced CT chest:performed following a suspicious
    CXR and may demonstrate**pleural thickening, pleural plaques and enlarged lymph nodes

Gold standard - biopsy
Stain with selective markers that are positive in mesotheliomas, such as calretinin - fried egg shape

269
Q

What is the treatment for Mesothelioma?

A

Surgery (if operable) otherwise Palliative:
Extrapleural pneumonectomy
Pleurectomy with decortication
Rarely curative

+/- Chemotherapy:
Cisplatin
Pemetrexed

+/- Radiotherapy

270
Q

Define Dyspnoea?

A

A symptom of difficult or laboured breathing

271
Q

What is the MRC Dyspnoea Scale?

A

Assess degree of baseline functional disability due to Dyspnoea

Grade 0: I only get breathless with strenuous exercise

Grade 1: I get short of breath when hurrying on level ground or walking up a slight hill

Grade 2: On ground level I stop for breath when walking at own pace

Grade 3: I stop for breath after walking about 100 yards or after a few minutes on level ground

Grade 4: I am too breathless to leave the house or I am breathless when dressing/undressing

272
Q

What are the main acute respiratory causes of Dyspnoea?

A

COPD
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Bronchiectasis

273
Q

What are the main cardiac causes of Dyspnoea?

A

ACS
Stable angina
Chronic HF
Pericarditis

274
Q

What are some less common respiratory causes of Dyspnoea?

A

Pleural Effusion
Lung Cancer
Interstitial Lung Disease (pneumonoconiosis)

275
Q

What are some other systemic causes of Dyspnoea?

A

Musculoskeletal
Anxiety
Metabolic acidosis:
- DKA
- Acute renal failure

276
Q

What is Acute Epiglotitis?

A

Epiglottitis refers to inflammation and localised oedema of the epiglottis, which can result in potentially life-threatening airway obstruction.

277
Q

What is the most common cause of Epiglottitis? What is its classificiation?

A

Haemophilus Influenza B - (gram-negative coccobacillus)

Other organisms have become more common in the developed world, such asStreptococcus pneumoniaeandStreptococcus pyogenes.

278
Q

What are the risk factors for Epiglottitis?

A

Peak age 6-12 (can occur at any)
Male gender
Unvaccinated
Immunocompromised

now far less common due to the introduction of HiB vaccine

279
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of Epiglottitis?

A

Rapid Onset:
Dysphagia
Dysphonia (stridor)
Drooling
Distress

Stridor
Tripod Position: A sign of respiratory Distress
Lean forward, mouth open, tongue out = max air in)
Pyrexia

280
Q

What is the primary investigation of Epiglottitis?

A

If acutely unwell then NO Ix but immediate Tx

Laryngoscopy:diagnostic and will demonstrate swelling and inflammation of the epiglottis

Lateral neck radiograph:securing the airway is the priority but, once done, an x-ray can be performed looking for thethumb sign (soft tissue shadow that looks like a thumb pressed into the trachea);

281
Q

What is the management for epiglottitis?

A

EMERGENCY
First Line:
- Secure airway, Endotracheal intubation
- Nebulised adrenaline
- IV antibiotics - Amoxicillin, Co-Amoxiclav, Erythromycin, Doxycycline

Second Line:
- Dexamethasone

282
Q

What is croup also known as? who is commonly affected by it

A

Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a viral upper respiratory tract infection.

Children between 6 months and 2 years old are most commonly affected

283
Q

What are the causes of Croup?

A

Main cause: Parainfluenza virus

Influenza
Adenovirus
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

284
Q

What is the presentation of Croup?

A

Usually improves in <48 hours

Increased work of breathing
“Barking” cough, occurring in clusters of coughing episodes
Hoarse voice
Stridor
Low grade fever

285
Q

What is the treatment of Croup?

A

Oral Dexamethasone (single dose 150mcg/kg)

Remember cause is viral!

286
Q

What is Whooping Cough?

A

Upper respiratory tract infection caused by Bordetella pertussis

(Gram negative aerobic coccobacillus)

287
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Whooping cough?

A

The bacterium contains a surface protein, filamentous haemagglutinin adhesin, which binds to the sulfatides found on cilia of epithelial cells.

Once anchored, the bacterium produces tracheal cytotoxin, which stops the cilia from beating., and Pertussis toxin which inhibits alveolar macrophages
This prevents the cilia from clearing debris from the lungs, so the body responds by sending the host into a coughing fit.

288
Q

What are the stages of whooping cough presentation?

A

Catarrhal stage (1-2 weeks):
- Dry, unproductive cough
- Low-grade fever
- Conjunctivitis
- Coryzal symptoms

Paroxysmal stage (1-6 weeks):
- Coughing fits: typically consist of a short expiratory burst followed by an inspiratory gasp, causing the ‘whoop’ sound - Whoop sound caused sharp inhalation of breath during coughing bout
- Post-tussive vomiting

Convalescent stage (lasts up to 6 months):
Gradual improvement in symptoms

289
Q

What are the investigations of Whooping cough?

A

Nasopharyngeal swab/aspirate:
Culture/PCR

Anti-pertussis toxin immunoglobulin G (IgG) serology

290
Q

What is the treatment for Whooping cough?

A

Notify PHE
Hospital admission if severe

Antibiotics: if Cough Sx is within 21 days
Macrolids - Clarithromycin, Azithromycin

School work absence: highly contagious

291
Q

What are the complications of Whooping cough?

A

Pneumonia
Encephalopathy
Otitis media
Injuries from coughing - pneumothorax
Seizures.

292
Q

What is the main pathophysiology of type 1 respiratory failure?

A

Type 1 respiratory failure occurs when the respiratory system cannot adequately provide oxygen to the body, leading to hypoxemia.

293
Q

What is Type 1Respiratory Failure?

A

Type 1 = 1 change (O2)

pO2 (partial O2 pressure) is low
pCO2 (partial CO2 pressure) is low or normal

294
Q

What condition is the most common cause for Type 1 Respiratory failure?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

295
Q

What is the main pathophysiology of type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Type 2 respiratory failure occurs when the respiratory system cannot sufficiently remove carbon dioxide from the body, leading to hypercapnia

296
Q

What is Type 2 Respiratory Failure?

A

Type 2 = 2 changes (O2 & CO2)

pO2 is low
pCO2 is high

297
Q

What is the most common cause of Type 2 Respiratory Failure?

A

Hypoventilation: Caused by
COPD
Neuromuscular weakness
Obesity
Chest wall deformity
Reduced respiratory drive (opiates)

298
Q

What are the signs of Hypercapnia seen in type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Bounding pulse
Flapping tremor (asterixis)
Confusion
Drowsiness
Reduced consciousness

299
Q

What is DLCO a measure of?

A

diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)

Transfer Coefficient of oxygen/CO

the ability of the lungs to transfer gas from inhaled air to the red blood cells in pulmonary capillaries

300
Q

How is DLCO measured?

A

Can calculate by inspiring a small amount of carbon monoxide (not too much since can kill)
hold breath for 10 seconds at total lung capacity (TLC) then the gas transferred is measured

301
Q

What causes a high DLCO?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage - can absorb O2 very efficiently due to bleeding resulting in more red blood cells being available

302
Q

What causes a low DLCO?

A

Severe emphysema
Fibrosing alveolitis
Anaemia
Pulmonary hypertension
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
COPD

303
Q

What is Goodpasture’s Syndrome?

A

An autoimmune disease characterised by Anti-GBM autoantibodies that attack the lungs and kidneys.
A type of Pulmonary Vasculitis

304
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind Goodpastures - What antibodies bind to what in collagen? What does this do?

A

n Goodpasture syndrome, autoantibodies bind to a specific part of the α3 chain that is usually hidden deep within the folded triple helix of Type IV collagen. (makes the basement membrane if you can remember phase 1)

This is a type II hypersensitivity reaction - autoantibodies, usually IgG but rarely IgM or IgA, bind to the the α3 chain, and activate the complement system

305
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Goodpastures disease?

A

Symptoms
Typically starts with upper respiratory tract infection e.g. sneezing, nasal discharge, nasal congestion, runny nose
Fever
Cough
Tiredness

Signs
Intermittent haemoptysis
Anaemia – may result from persistent intrapulmonary bleeding
Acute glomerulonephritis

306
Q

What are some investigations for Goodpastures

A

Anti-GBM antibodies in blood
CXR – transient patchy shadows/pulmonary infiltrates due to pulmonary haemorrhage often in lower zones
Kidney biopsy – crescentic glomerulonephritis

307
Q

Whats the management for Goodpastures Syndrome

A

Corticosteroids – prednisolone
Plasmapheresis – remove blood and clean to remove anti-GBM antibodies before inserting it back
Bilateral nephrectomy – in severe/unresponsive cases

308
Q

What is pharyngitis?

A

Inflammation of the pharynx with exudate production

309
Q

What are the causes of pharyngitis?

A

Viral- EBV and adenovirus. (rhinovirus causes tonsillitis)

Bacteria- group A Strep (S.pyogenes)

Staph aureus is most common for recurrent tonsillitis, due to antimicrobial resistance

310
Q

What must be ruled out if someone (especially a child) has pharyngitis?

A

Rheumatic fever (typically 2-4 weeks post S.pyogenes infection)

311
Q

What is the treatment for pharyngitis?

A

Viral is self-limiting
Bacterial- amoxicillin/flucloxacillin

312
Q

What is otitis media? How does it happen?

A

Infection and inflammation of the middle ear.

The bacteria enter from the back of the throat through the eustachian tube. Bacterial infection of the inner ear is often preceded by a viral upper respiratory tract infection.

313
Q

Normal physiology - where is the middle ear, and what is found in it?

A

The middle ear is the space that sits between the tympanic membrane (ear drum) and the oval and round windows that connect to the inner ear.

Contains The 3 auditory ossicles, the malleus, incus and stapes, and its where the eustachian tube connects to the ear

It is a very common site of infection in children.

314
Q

What are the causes of otitis media?

A

Bacteria- Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common), haemophilus influenzae, and staphylococcus aureus

Viral- Respiratory syncytial virus, rhinovirus, adenovirus

315
Q

What is the diagnostic finding for otitis media? What are some signs and symptoms of it

A

Otoscopy examination will reveal a bulging, red/cloudy tympanic membrane

  • Ear pain often associated with holding, tugging or rubbing of the ear in children
  • Reduced hearing
  • Recent upper respiratory tract infection
  • Balance issues and vertigo: if infection affects the vestibular system
  • Non-specific symptoms
    • Fever
    • Irritability and poor feeding
    • Vomiting
    • Sore throat
316
Q

What is the treatment for otitis media?

A

Will usually resolve within 3-7 days
Can give amoxicillin
2nd line would be Co-amoxiclav

317
Q

What causes sinusitis

A

Viral infection (Rhinovirus, parainfluenza virus, and influenza virus) is the most common. (As per causes URTI)

Can be caused by bacterial infection (Streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae and staphylococcus aureus)

318
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of sinusitis?

A

Symptoms
Fontal headache
Facial pain
Fever

Signs
Purulent nasal discharge
Tenderness

319
Q

What is the treatment for Viral sinusitis?

A

Self limiting
Usually lasts <10 days and has non-purulent discharge

320
Q

What is the Centor Criteria? What does it determine?

A

The Centor criteria give an indication of the likelihood of a sore throat being due to bacterial infection. The criteria are:
Tonsillar exudate
Tender anterior cervical adenopathy
Fever over 38°C (100.5°F) by history
Absence of cough.
If 3 or 4 of Centor criteria are met, the positive predictive value is 40% to 60%.
The absence of 3 or 4 of the Centor criteria has a fairly high negative predictive value of 80%.

321
Q

Side effects of TB medication - Give some side effects of
Rifampicin

A

Haematuria

322
Q

Side effects of TB medication - Give some side effects of Isoniazid

What disease can it also trigger?

A

Peripheral Neuropahty,

Can also be a trigger for SLE

323
Q

Side effects of TB medication - Give some side effects of Pyrazinamide

A

Hepatitis, Also gout, and joint pain

324
Q

Side effects of TB medication - Give some side effects of Ethambutol

A

– Eye problems e.g. uveitis

325
Q

How long should you give each of the TB medications for?

A

Note RI = 2 months, PE = 6 months

326
Q

What prophylactic medication can be given to those at a very high risk of TB? aka given to family members of someone who has with TB

A

one off dose of ciprofloxacin

327
Q

How do LABAs take longer to work than SABAs?

A

They are lipophilic - so take longer to act as a bronchodilator

328
Q

What are the classic symptoms of a Pulmonary embolism?

A

the classic symptoms of a pulmonary embolism are
pleuritic chest pain (worse on deep breaths),
shortness of breath
and haemoptysis

329
Q

What is a Pulmonary Embolism?

A

Obstruction of the pulmonary vasculature, secondary to an embolus.

330
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind a PE, and what it leads to

A

Embolus enters Right heart via IVC

This causes occlusion of small blood vessels

Causes V/Q mismatch as blood cannot gas exchange.
Causes Hypoxic vasoconstriction and reactive bronchoconstriction.

Narrows airways leading to Dyspnoea

Hypoxic vasoconstriction increases pulmonary vascular resistance causing Pulm HTN.
This causes RV heart strain and hypertrophy.
Eventually this leads to RHF
(Cor Pulmonale)

331
Q

What are the risk factors of a PE?

A

Anything affecting Virchow’s Triad:

Endothelial Injury:
Smoking, HTN, Trauma

Venous Stasis:
Immobility, Post surgery, AF, Obesity

Hypercoagulability - Oral contraceptive pill, Polycythaemia, Malignancy

332
Q

What are the signs of PE?

A

Hypotension
Tachypnoea
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate
Low grade fever
Haemodynamic instability causing hypotension
Raised JVP
Hypoxia

333
Q

How is PE diagnosed?

A

WELLS Score:
<4 Unlikely PE - perform D-dimer. - if >500ng/ml then perform CT Pulmonary Angiogram.

> 4 Likely PE - Perform CTPA (GS): Will diagnose PE clot.

334
Q

What kind of things does the Wells score look at?

A

Active Cancer

paralysis/recent plaster immoblisation of leg
Recenlty bedridden or major surgery
Local tenderness along distribution of venous system

Entire leg swollen/calf swelling
Pitting oedma
Previous DVT
All of these score +1 point

Alternative diagnosis at least as likely as a DVT = -2 points

335
Q

What are other investigations are done for a PE?

A

ECG: S1Q3T3
CHEST XRAY NORMALLY NORMAL IN A PE

CTPA - GS diagnostic

Bloods:
D-Dimer
Anti-phospholipid Abs - in unprovoked DVT/PE

336
Q

What would you see on an ECG for someonne with a PE?

A

ECG: S1Q3T3

Deep S waves in lead I
Deep Q waves in lead III
T waves inverted in Lead III
RBBB V1-3 & Sinus Tachycardia

337
Q

What is the treatment of PE is the Px is haemodynamically stable, and what about if the pt is haemodynamically unstable?

A

Anticoagulants:
1st Line:
DOAC (Rivaroxaban, Apixaban)
(LMWH if DOAC CI) eg dalteparin,

2nd Line: Warfarin

If unstable/severe -
Thrombolysis (clot busting) - Alteplase

If fails - Catheter embolectomy

338
Q

What can be used as prophylaxis for a PE

A

Compression Stockings
Regular walking
SC LMWH - dalteparin,

339
Q

if you are to swallow a foreign object, where in the lungs is it most likely to end up?

A

Right lower lobe of the lung

most vertically transposed

340
Q

How does Peak flow measurements differ at different times of the day?

A

Morning lower, evening higher. Diurnal variation