PUBLIC HEALTH Flashcards

1
Q

What is Mental Health as a Definition?

A

“a state of well-being in which every individual realizes his or her own potential, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to her or his community”.

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2
Q

What are some Specific mental health problems in doctors?

A

Increased suicide rates
Increased marital dysfunction and divorce
Increased drug and alcohol problems

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of burnout?

A

o Diminished personal contact
o Work avoidance
o Increased minor illness
o Feelings of fatigue

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4
Q

What categories can influence health?

A

o Biological
o Personal lifestyle
o Health services
o The Physical and Social Environment

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5
Q

What is the Black Report 1980?

A

o Confirmed that social class health inequalities had a big part in overall mortality
o Confirmed health inequalities are widening
o Mechanisms to explain why:
▪ Artefact, social selection, behaviour, material circumstance

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6
Q

What is the Acheson Report 1988?

A

o Mortality has decreased in the last 50 years but inequalities remained or widened
o Recommendations:
▪ Evaluate all policies likely to affect health in terms of the impact on inequality
▪ Prioritise health of families with children
▪ Government should reduce income inequalities and improve living
conditions in poor households

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7
Q

What is the prevention paradox

A

Outlines that large numbers of people must participate in a preventive strategy for direct benefit to relatively few.

eg everyone wears seatblets, but only gonaa actually beenfit the small number of people that get in car crashes

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8
Q

What are the 3 doman of publinc health

A

health improvement - (tackling inequalities)

Health protection (controlling infectious diseases)

Improving services (eg Audits)

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9
Q

What are the Theories of Causation?

A

Lifecourse

Psychosocial

Materialist

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10
Q

What are some Theories of Causation?

A
  • Lifecourse:
    ▪ Critical periods have a greater impact in the life course e.g. measles in pregnancy
    ▪ Accumulation: hazards and their impacts add up e.g. hard blue-collar work
    ▪ Interactions and pathways
  • Psychosocial
    ▪ Social inequality may affect how people feel which in turn can affect body
    chemistry, focuses on the individual
  • Materialist
    ▪ Poverty exposes people to more health hazards
    ▪ Disadvantaged people are more likely to live in areas exposed to harm e.g.
    damp and pollution
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11
Q

What must consent be?

A

Consent must be:
o Voluntary
o Informed
o Made by someone with capacity

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12
Q

When is a patient unable to make a decision?

A

If the Px cannot:

o Understand the relevant information
o Retain it
o Use or weight it to make a decision
o Communicate the decision

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13
Q

What are some Risk factors for CHD?

A

o Unmodifiable = age, sex, ethnicity, genetics
o Lifestyle: smoking, diet, physical inactivity
o Clinical RF: hypertension, lipids, DM
o Psychosocial: behaviour trait, depression/anxiety, work, social support

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14
Q

What are Coronary Prone behaviours and who described them?

A

Friedman and Rosenman 1959:
o Competitive, hostile, impatient
o Type A behaviour
o Assess type A behaviour with MMPI

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15
Q

What do the Whitehall Studies show?

A

o Whitehall I:
▪ Male british civil servants over 10yr period
▪ Men in lowest grade had higher mortality than men in highest grade
▪ 3x mortality rate from all causes

o Whitehall II:
▪ 10,000 civil servants
Employment grade was strongly associated with work control and demands

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16
Q

What is required to verify death?

A

o No heart sounds or carotid pulse for one minute
o No breath sounds or respiratory effort for one minute
o No response to painful stimuli
o Pupils are fixed and dilated

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17
Q

Define Palliative Care?

A

Improves QOL of patients and families who face life threatening
illness.
Provides pain and symptom relief and spiritual and psychological support from diagnosis to the end of life and bereavement

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18
Q

Who are some providers of Palliative Care?

A

o Consultants in palliative medicine
o Clinical nurse specialists e.g. Macmillan nurses
o Social workers
o Chaplains
o Physiotherapists
o Dieticians

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19
Q

What are the building blocks of Palliative Care?

A

o Holistic
o Individualised
o Patient and family centred
o Multidisciplinary approach

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20
Q

What are the aims of Palliative Care?

A

o Promote QOL
o Promote dignity and autonomy
o Control disease symptoms

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21
Q

How can you keep alcohol related harm risks low?

A

o Do not regularly drink >14 units / week
o If you do drink 14 units spread them evenly over 3+ days
o It’s a good idea to have several alcohol-free days each week

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22
Q

What are factors that suggest substance misuse?

A

o Results in failure to fulfil role obligations e.g. work, school, home life
o May be physically hazardous e.g. driving or operating machinery
o Continued misuse despite persistent or recurrent social or interpersonal problems

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23
Q

How do you calculate the number of alcoholic units in a drink?

A
  • Number of units in a drink = (%ABV x volume in ml)/1000

8g of pure alcohol or 10ml

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24
Q

Define what 1 pack year is

How many straights is in a standard pack of cigarettes?

A

1 pack year =

1 pack, every day, for a year

its a way of gauging how much someone has smoked over their life

There are 20 cigarettes are in a standard pack of cigarrarettes

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25
Q

Define Dependence?

A

o a state in which an organism functions normally only in the presence of a drug
o Manifests as a physical disturbance when the drug is withdrawn

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26
Q

Define Tolerance?

A

o A state in which an organism no longer responds to a drug
o A higher dose is required to achieve the same effect

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27
Q

What are the effects of Alcohol on the CNS?

A

o Potentiates GABA (inhibitory neuroT in the CNS)
o Inhibits Glutamate (excitatory neuroT in the CNS)

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28
Q

Outline the Pharmacokinetics of Alcohol?

A

o Absorption:
▪ Well absorbed at small intestine.
▪ Highly lipophilic
▪ Absorption is age related and can be delayed in the elderly
▪ Half life 6 – 30 hrs.
▪ Highly protein bound

o Distribution and metabolism:
▪ Extensively metabolised by the liver.
▪ Crosses BBB
▪ Particularly active in CNS ‘grey matter’ (high blood flow)

o Elimination:
▪ Excreted in the urine mainly in the form of its metabolites.
▪ Excreted as conjugates (glucuronide or sulphate).
▪ Nil biliary excretion.

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29
Q

How is Wernicke’s Encephalopathy Treated?

A

Treated with Pabrinex, (and thiamine)

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30
Q

How is Alcohol Withdrawal Treated?

A

TREAT WITHDRAWAL WITH BENZODIAZEPINES

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31
Q

What is the Primary Prevention to control STIs in the community?

A

o Primary prevention = reducing the risk of acquiring STI

▪ Awareness campaigns e.g. “Sex. Worth talking about”
▪ Vaccination e.g. HBV, HPV
▪ One to one risk reduction discussions
▪ “keys cash condom” poster
▪ Pre and post exposure prophylaxis

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32
Q

What are some Secondary Control Strategies to control STIs in the community?

A

o Secondary prevention = find and treat undetected cases of infection

▪ Easy access to STI/HIV tests/treatment
▪ Partner notification (contact tracing)

▪ Targeted screening:
* Antenatal screening for HIV and syphilis
* National chlamydia screening programma
* HIV home testing kds

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33
Q

What are some Tertiary Preventions of STIs?

A

o Tertiary prevention = reducing morbidity / mortality

▪ Antiretrovirals for HIV
▪ Prophylactic ABX for PCP
▪ Acyclovir for suppression of genital herpes

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34
Q

What are some complications of STIs in Women?

A

o Pelvic inflammatory disease
o Ectopic pregnancy
o Infertility
o Neonatal transmission

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35
Q

Why do some populations/religions carry out Female Genital Mutilation (FGM)?

A

o Seen as being ‘pure’
o Unable to marry without it being performed

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36
Q

What are complications of FGM?

A

o Bleeding
o Wound infection incl. tetanus, HIV, HBV
o Pain, death
o LUTS, period problems
o Anxiety
o PTSD
o Withdrawal

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37
Q

What are some Infective conditions that Migrants may present to their GP with?

A

o Hepatitis viruses
o TB
o Malaria
o HIV
o Parasitic infections

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38
Q

What are some mental health problems that War Refugees may Suffer with following immigration?

A

o PTSD
o Depression
o Suicidal thoughts, anxiety
o Somatisation e.g. chronic pain, dizziness, chronic fatigue, headache

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39
Q

What are some signs for Occupational Asthma?

A

o Typical history = improve away from work / when on holiday
o Peak flow diary
o Look for a dip of >20% when at work
o Workplace challenge testing

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40
Q

What are some Problems with Teamwork?

A

o Lack of teamwork
o Lack of leadership
o Lack of effort
o Lack of communication
o Lack of challenge

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41
Q

What is SBARR Communication?

A

o Situation
o Background
o Assessment
o Recommendation
o Response / review

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42
Q

Outline the tradition hierarchy of evidence, form top to bottom - it ranks how reliable different types of study design are

A

Systematic reviews/metanalysis
Randomised control trail
Cohort studies
Case control studies
Case series/reports

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43
Q

What is a meta analysis?

A

examination of data from a number of independent studies of the same subject, in order to determine overall trends.

” a study of studies”

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44
Q

What Do Antigenic Drift and Shift Cause?

A
  • Antigenic drift → seasonal epidemics
  • Antigenic shift → pandemics
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45
Q

What is the difference between an outbreak, Epidemic and Pandemic?

A
  • Outbreak = 2+ linked cases
  • Epidemic = more cases in a region or country
  • Pandemic = spans international boundaries
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46
Q

What is the characteristic presentation of Influenza?

A

Influenza characterised by upper and lower RT symptoms + fever, headache, myalgia, weakness

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47
Q

What are the risk factors for Drug Use and Misuse?

A

o Quantity and frequency of use
o Knowledge of what they’re using e.g. strengths, purity etc
o Poly drug use
o Propensity for risky behaviour
o Co – existing problems e.g. mental and physical health, housing, employment, family

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48
Q

What are some side effects of drug misuse?

A

o Overdose and temporary psychotic states, unpredictable behaviour
o Sudden pyrexia, tachyC, coma
o Hallucination and vomiting
o Aggression and violence
o Intense comedown

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49
Q

What are some family risk factors for Drug Abuse?

A

o FHx of substance misuse
o Family management problems e.g. poor parenting
o Family conflict / domestic abuse
o Being in care

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50
Q

What are some Social/Community Risk factors for Drug Abuse?

A

o Low academic attainment and commitment
o Availability of drugs
o Community norms favourable to drug use
o Community disorganisation
o Transitions / mobility
o Low neighbourhood attachment

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51
Q

What are some individual Risk factors for Drug Abuse?

A

o Risk taking
o Rebelliousness
o Friends who use drugs
o Experience of trauma e.g. abuse, loss, poor parenting

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52
Q

What is Physical Dependence?

A

o The body adapts to presence of the substance and over time needs more for the same effect (tolerance)
o Stopping leads to withdrawal symptoms e.g. stomach cramps, muscle aches

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53
Q

What is Psychological Dependence?

A

o Feeling that life is impossible / challenges cannot be faced without the drug
o Emotional effect: feelings of fear, pain, shame, guilt, loneliness if not on drug

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54
Q

What are the features of the National Drug Strategy 2017?

A

o Reduce demand
o Restrict supply
o Building recovery in communities
o Family / community involvement
o Payment by results
o Abstinence focused with emphasis on recovery and peer support

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55
Q

What is the Alcohol Harm Paradox?

A
  • Alcohol harm paradox: research suggests that low SES groups drink less alcohol than high SES groups but experience more alcohol related harm
56
Q

What is a risk if pregnant women drink alcohol?

A

Foetal Alcohol Syndrome:

o Pre and post-natal growth retardation
o CNS abnormalities e.g mental retardation, irritability, incoordination, hyperactivity
o Craniofacial abnormalities
o Defects of eyes, ears, mouth, CVS, GUT, skeleton

57
Q

What are the Signs and Symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal?

A

o Tremors (‘the shakes’)
o tachycardia
o Hypertension
o Seizures
o Hallucinations
o Delirium

58
Q

What are the Chronic effects of Alcohol Excess?

A

o Dementia
o Cerebellar degeneration
o Fatty liver
o Cirrhosis
o Liver cancer
o HTN, CHD

59
Q

What are the Psychosocial Effects of Excessive Alcohol Consuption?

A

o Violence, rape, depression or anxiety
o Problems at work
o Criminality
o Social disintegration / poverty
o Driving incidents/offences

60
Q

What are some Primary Prevention Strategies for Alcohol Excess?

A

o ‘Know your limits’ binge drinking campaign
o Drinkaware alcohol labelling
o ‘THINK!’ drunk driving campaign
o Restriction on alcohol advertising by Ofcom
o TV ad campaigns
o Minimum pricing

61
Q

What are some Screening tools for Alcoholism?

A

CAGE Questions:
Have you ever been told you should CUT down how much you drink?
Have you ever been ANNOYED by people telling you to Cut down?
Have you ever felt GUILTY about how much you drink?
EYE OPENER - Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning/ to settle yourself

62
Q

Types of screening - outline the Seedhouse ethical grid

A

The Seedhouse grid is an ethical tool used by healthcare professionals to consider possible. actions to take when faced with a difficult situation.

It helps one explore the dilemma and. competing interests

Consits of four layers, each look at 4 difference categories of issues

63
Q

Outline the first 2 inner layers of the seedhouse ethical grid

A

1st - whether the intervention is going to create autonomy, respect autonomy and treat all equally?

2nd - Duties and motives. Is the intervention consistent with moral duties; keeping promises, telling the truth, minimising harm and maximising benefit?

64
Q

Outline the second outer 2 layers of the seedhouse ethical grid

A

3rd - Consequentialist layer. Is the intervention going to provide the greatest benefit for the greatest number? Who will benefit, society, individuals, a group?

4th Is the intervention likely to be affected by external considerations e.g. risks, law, use of resources

AMCL

65
Q

What are the headings which make up the four quadrants approach to clinical ethical analysis?

A

Medical indications.
Patient preferences: respect for autonomy.
Quality of life.
Contextual features.

MP QC

66
Q

What are some Notifiable Diseases to PHE?

A

o Acute encephalitis
o Acute meningitis
o Acute infectious hepatitis
o Anthrax
o Cholera
o Legionnaires disease
o Malaria
o Measels
o SARS
o Smallpox
o TB

67
Q

Why is Diabetes a Public Health issue?

A

o Mortality: common underlying cause of death
o Disability: blindness, renal failure, amputation etc.
o Co-morbidity: other physical and mental health conditions
o Reduced QOL

68
Q

Why is Diabetes on the rise?

A

o Sedentary job, sedentary leisure activities
o Diet high in calorie dense food/low in fruit and veg, pulses and wholegrain

o Obesogenic environment
▪ Physical e.g. TV remote, lifts, car culture
▪ Economic e.g. cheap TV watching, expensive fruit and veg
▪ Sociocultural environment e.g. safety fears, family eating patterns,

69
Q

What are factors that Maintain Obesity?

A

o Physical / physiological: more weight = more difficult to exercise e.g. arthritis, stress incontinence
o Psychological = low self esteem and guilt, comfort eating
o Socioeconomic: reduced opportunities, employment, relationships, social mobility

70
Q

What is primary prevention of obesity?

A

o Sustained increase in physical activity
o Sustained change in diet
o Sustained weight loss

71
Q

What are some diabetes Screening tests?

A

o Random capillary blood glucose
o Random venous blood glucose
o Fasting venous blood glucose
o Oral glucose tolerance test
o HbA1c

72
Q

What are some factors affecting Patient Compliance?

A

o Socioeconomic e.g. long distance from treatment setting
o Health system e.g. supply of medication
o Condition e.g. memory impairment
o Therapy e.g. complex treatment regimes
o Patient e.g. disbelief / denial of diagnosis

73
Q

When Can Confidentiality Be Broken?

A

o They are a risk to the public e.g. intend to commit a crime
o If they have given conseerrnt
o If it is required by law e.g. notifiable disease, ordered by a judge

74
Q

What is Anorexia Nervosa?

A

o Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, developmental trajectory and physical health

75
Q

What are some thought processes of Px with Anorexia Nervosa?

A

o Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight
o Undue influence of body weight/shape on self esteem
o Denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight
o May be restricting or binge eating / purging subtype

76
Q

What is Bulimia Nervosa?

A

o Recurrent episodes of binge eating characterized by both of:
▪ Eating in a discrete amount of time large amounts of food
▪ Sense of lack of control over eating during an episode

o Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain (purging)

77
Q

What is Binge Eating Disorder?

A

o Recurrent episodes of binge eating, episodes associated with 3+ of the following:
▪ Eating much more rapidly than normal
▪ Eating until feeling uncomfortably full
▪ Eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry
▪ Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating
▪ Feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed or very guilty afterwards

78
Q

What are some Risk factors for eating disorders?

A

non-specific:
genes,
temperament,
family interaction,
social pressure,
trauma

79
Q

What is important to look out for in Px with Eating Disorders?

A

o Severe restriction of food/fluid
o Electrolyte imbalance
o Bone deterioration
o Physical damage e.g. oesophageal tears, blood in vomit
o Alcohol/drug taking

80
Q

What are some urgent signs of Eating disorder damage?

A

o Muscular weakness
o Problems in breathing
o Deterioration of consciousness
o Cardiac signs e.g. tachyC, bradyC, hypoT
o Rapid weight loss, risky behaviours

81
Q

What are some treatments for Eating Disorders?

A

o CBT, family therapy, specialist support

82
Q

What is the chain of Transmission?

A

Host → person to person spread → reservoir (soil, water, people) → portal of exit (coughing faeces) → agent → mode of transmission → portal of entry → host

83
Q

What is the second leading cause of death among children under 5 globally?

A

Diarrhoea

84
Q

What should you do if you suspect a C. diff infection?

A

SIGHT
o Suspect C. diff as a cause of diarrhoea
o Isolate the cause
o Gloves and apron
o Hand washing
o Test stool for toxin

85
Q

Where are Norovirus Outbreaks common?

A

o Schools
o Cruise ships
o Restaurants
o Hospitals

86
Q

What are the 2 main types of back pain?

A

May be simple (mechanical) or nerve root (neurological)

87
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Simple Back Pain?

A

Simple back pain presents between 20-55, normally lumbrosacral, pain is mechanical in nature, 90% recover from acute attacks within 6/52

88
Q

What is the Epidemiology of Neurological Back Pain?

A

o Numbness or paraesthesia can accompany pain, reflex changes
o 50% recover from acute attack within 6 weeks
o Red flags: very old or young, violent trauma, constant/progressive pain, systemic upset, widespread neurology, structural deformity

89
Q

What proportion of adults are obese?

A

2/3rds

90
Q

What are some physical Effects of Obesity?

A

o High cholesterol and blood pressure
o Pre-diabetes
o Bone and joint problems
o Breathing problems
o Risk of premature mortality
o RF for heart disease, stroke, cancer, liver disease, infertility, depression, sleep
apnoea, asthma, DM

91
Q

Who is at higher risks of Obesity?

A

More common among people from more deprived areas, older age groups, disabled people

92
Q

What are some social interventions to lower obesity?

A

o Wider level e.g. change4life, 5-a-day
o Environment e.g. more cycle paths, less car parking
o Public policy e.g. sugar tax, minimum alcohol pricing

93
Q

What is Patient Centred Medicine?

A

Patient centred care encourages focus on the patient as a whole and shared control of health decisions, better compliance and health outcomes

94
Q

What are the key principles of Patient Centred Medicine?

A

o Improve communication
o Increase patient understanding
o Understand patient perspective
o Provide information
o Assess adherence
o Review medication regularly

95
Q

How must consent be obtained?

A
  • Consent must be voluntary, informed and made by someone with capacity
  • Patients must be told what a treatment is, how it’s done, risks, benefits and alternatives
    o Proper consent reduces negligence claims
96
Q

What is Human Error?

A

A failure of a planned action or a sequence of mental or physical actions to be
completed as intended, the use of a wrong plan to achieve an outcome

97
Q

Outline the types of error

A

Omission - didn’t do something that needed to be done
Commission - doing something actively bad

Negligence - done the action needed, but not to the right standard

Skill based - doing something beyond your capabilities

98
Q

What is the Swiss Cheese Model of Error?

A

o Each slice is a level of defence, holes are latent conditions/poor design/poor
management decisions
o If many holes line up it gives a patient safety incident
o Examples of level defence:
▪ Checking drugs before administration
▪ Preop checklist
▪ Marking surgical site before operation

Describes 1 problem - if the holes align - the it leads to another/major incident

99
Q

What are Never Events?

A

o Serious largely preventable patient safety incidents
o Should not occur if the available preventative measures have been implemented
o Intolerable and inexcusable

100
Q

Give some examples of Never Events?

A

▪ Wrong site at surgery
▪ Wrong implant
▪ Retained object in surgery
▪ Overdose of serious drugs

101
Q

How long into pregnancy can abortion take place?

A

Abortions generally can take place until 24 weeks of pregnancy
o May take place later e.g. if there’s a risk to life or problems with the baby’s
development

102
Q

What is Compliance?

A

The extent to which the patient’s behaviour coincides with medical or health advice

103
Q

What are the disadvantages of compliance?

A

▪ It is passive: the patient MUST follow the doctor’s orders
▪ It assumes the doctor knows best
▪ It ignores problems patients have in managing their health

104
Q

What is Adherence?

A

The extent to which the patient’s actions match agreed recommendations, more patient centred

105
Q

What are the key principles of Adherence?

A

▪ Improve communication
▪ Increase patient involvement
▪ Understand the patient’s perspective
▪ Provide and discuss information
▪ Assess adherence
▪ Review medicines

106
Q

What is Concordance?

A

Expectation that patients will take part in treatment decisions and have a say in the consultation, it is a negotiation between equals

107
Q

What are some barriers to Concordance?

A

▪ Patient may not want to engage in discussions with their doctor
▪ May lead to worry
▪ Patients may just want the doctor to tell them what to do
▪ Time, resources, organisational constraints
▪ Challenging, patient choice may differ significantly from medical advice

108
Q

What are the advantages of good doctor patient communication?

A

o Better health outcomes
o Higher compliance to therapeutic regimens
o Higher patient and clinical satisfaction
o Decrease in malpractice risk

109
Q

What are some barriers to Good communication?

A

o Language barriers
o Deafness / blindness
o Medical jargon

110
Q

How can Endogenous Infections be prevented?

A

o Good nutrition and hydration
o Antisepsis
o Control underlying disease
o Remove lines and catheters
o Reduce antibiotic pressure e.g. short courses

111
Q

What can cause delerium?

A

UTI
Opiates
Alcohol Withdrawal
Hypoglycaemia
Hypoxia

112
Q

What are some features of Delerium?

A

o Acute onset
o Impaired attention
o Decreased consciousness
o Usually reversible
o Often accompanied by physical illness
o Hospital acquired

113
Q

What is the WHO definition of health

A

Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

114
Q

What is the biopyschosocial model of health?

Who

A

The biopsychosocial model of wellness and medicine examines how the three aspects – biological, psychological and social – occupy roles in relative health or disease. The BPS model stresses the interconnectedness of these factor

115
Q

What is the biomedical model of health?

A

Health is merely the state of no disease

116
Q

Outline the 4 elements of the sick role

A

(1) exemption from normal social role responsibilities,
(2) the privilege of not being held responsible for being sick,
(3) the desire to get better and
(4) the obligation to find proper help and follow that advice.

117
Q

What do you need to consider when someone taking long term steroids is sick?

A

Sick day rules are really important in anyone taking long term steroids -
patients must double the dose when they are sick!

118
Q

What is primary prevention

A

Stopping disease happenig in the first place

119
Q

What is secondary prevention

A

Stopping something before symptoms start

(pre clinical)
eg taking statin for high BP

120
Q

What is tertiary prevention

A

Stopping clinical disease from getting worse

121
Q

What are the 4 types of risk factors

A

Lifestyle (eg smoking)
Clincial (high BP)
Enviromental (air pollution)
Physcosocial (stress, insecrue job)

122
Q

Ethics: what are the 4 principles?

A

Autonomy - respect the patient’s choices. (deontological)
Beneficence - do good. (Utilitarian)
Non-maleficence - do no harm. (Deontological)
Justice. (Utilitarian)

123
Q

Ethics: what is deontology?

A

Features of the act determines worthiness. Deontology teaches that acts are right or wrong, people have a duty to act accordingly. Do unto others as you would be done by.

124
Q

Ethics: categorical imperatives are a type of deontology. What are categorical imperatives?

A

A rule that is true in all circumstances. You should act in such a way that you would be willing for it to become universal law that everyone follows in the same situations.

125
Q

What are the challenges of deontology?

A

Consequences aren’t looked at.
2. Duties can conflict.

126
Q

What are virtue ethics?

A

Virtue ethics focus on the character of the person acting, are they integrating reason and emotion? An act is only virtuous if the person has the right mind set/intentions. Virtues are acquired.

127
Q

What are the challenges of virtue ethics?

A

Virtue ethics don’t focus on consequences. They are culture specific and too broad for practical application. It’s not always clear how to solve a moral dilemma using virtue ethics.

128
Q

describe positive predictive value?

A

Proportion of positive results that are true positives

129
Q

Describe Negative predictive value

A

proportion of negative results that are true negatives

130
Q

What are utilitarian ethics (consequentialism)?

A

An act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences. Maximise good and minimise harm.

131
Q

What are the challenges of utilitarian ethics (consequentialism)?

A

Treats minorities unfairly to promote the happiness of a majority.

132
Q

What are the driving rules for

TIA
Syncope
Seizure

A

TIA - Do not need to inform DVLA - One month

First unprovoked seizure, no abnormalities - 6 months
Syncope - don’t drive for 6 months
Known epileptic Seizure -12 months since last seizure

133
Q

Define case control study

A

Patients who have developed a disease are identified and their past exposure to suspected aetiological factors is compared with that of controls who do not have the disease

PAST

134
Q

Define RCT

A

A study in which people are randomly assigned to 2 (or more) groups to test an intervention. One group has the intervention being tested, the other has an alternative intervention or no intervention at all. The groups are followed up to see how effective the experimental intervention was

135
Q

Define cross sectional study

A

Where you collect data from many different individuals at a single point in time. You observe variables without influencing them. AT PRESENT

136
Q

Define cohort study

A

A type of epidemiological study in which a group of people with a common characteristic is followed over time to find how many reach a certain health outcome of interest - FUTURE

137
Q

If a person’s absolute risk of heart attack is 0.3 without treatment and drops to 0.25 with treatment, what is their
a) absolute risk reduction?
b) relative risk reduction

A

Absolute risk reduction = absolute risk of events in the control group –
absolute risk of events in the treatment group. 0.3-0.25 = 0.05 = 5%

Relative risk = 0.3 - 0.25 = 0.05
0.05/0.3 = 0.1667, or 16.7