NEUROLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Recap - Outline the main roles of the
a) Frontal lobe
b) Temporal Lobe
c) Parietal Lobe
d) occipital lobe

A

Frontal - decision making, movement, executive function, personality.

Temporal - hearing (primary auditory cortex), memory and language, smell, facial recognition

Parietal - Sensory info

Occipital lobe - Vision

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2
Q

Recap - What are the main responsibilities for the
a) Brainstem
b) Cerebellum

A

brainstem - controls Heart and breathing rate, Blood pressure and GI function, as well as consciousness

Cerebellum - Muscle coordination, and balance

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3
Q

What are a collection of cell bodies in the CNS called?
What about the PNS?

A

Central nervous system (CNS) = brain and spinal cord
Collections of cell bodies in the CNS are called nuclei (singular = nucleus)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS) = nervous system outside the CNS
12 pairs of cranial nerves: head and neck*
31 pairs of spinal nerves
Collections of cell bodies in the PNS are called ganglia (singular = ganglion)

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4
Q

Key Tracts of brain - outline the course of the Dorsal column pathway (DCML).

What does it convey, and what 2 things can it be split into?

A

Touch, proprioception, vibration
Sensory primary axons ascend in the ipsilateral dorsal columns: either

Cuneate fasciculus – info from the UL
Gracile fasciculus – info from the LL

Synapse with 2nd neuron in the cuneate (UL) or gracile (LL) nucleus
Axons decussate in the medulla then ascend
Synapse with 3rd neuron in thalamus
Axons project to the somatosensory cortex

Lesions in the cord: ipsilateral loss of / impaired fine touch and proprioception

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5
Q

Recap - what are the two arteries that supply the brain?

A

Internal carotid
Vertebral arteries

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6
Q

What does the internal carotid artery branch off to supply?

A

branches off to create the Anterior cerebral artery, as well as posterior communicating artery to join the circle of Willis

After this the ICA continues on as the Middle cerebral artery, which supplies the lateral portions of the cerebrum.

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7
Q

What does the posterior cerebral artery go on to supply? What is it a branch of?

A

Supplies occipital lobe, posteromedial temporal lobes, midbrain, thalamus,

It is the terminal branch of the basilar arteries,

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8
Q

What does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

· MIDDLE CEREBRAL ARTERY—(huge artery) supplies majority of lateral surface of the hemisphere and deep structures of anterior part of cerebral hemisphere.

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9
Q

What does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

· ANTERIOR CEREBRAL ARTERY (supplies and runs over Corpus Callosum and supplies Medial aspects of Hemispheres (anteromedial aspects of the cerebrum)

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10
Q

After entering the cranium through the foramen magnum, what branches does the vertebral artery give off? What do the 2 vertebral arteries then go on to do?

A

Give off Spinal arteries, supply the entire length of spine
Gives off The Posterior Inferior cerebellar artery - supplies cerebellum
also gives off a menigeal branch

But after this two vertebral arteries converge to form the basilar artery

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11
Q

What arteries branch off the basilar artery?

A

Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) - Both to supply the cerebellum
The Pontine arteries

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12
Q

What are the Two types of:

a) Strokes the in brain
b) Ischaemic events in the brain

A

Two kinds of stroke are ischaemic (85%) and haemorrhagic (15%)

The two types of ischaemic events in the brain are a Cerebral infarction (an ischaemic stroke) or a Transient ischaemic attack (TIA)

a TIA is not considered to be an actual stroke

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13
Q

Define what a stroke is:

A

a clinical syndrome, caused by cerebral infarction or haemorrhage, typified by rapidly developing signs of focal and global disturbance of cerebral functions lasting more than 24 hours or leading to death”

It is also referred to as a cerebrovascular accident

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14
Q

Define what an ischaemic stroke is

A

Reduction in cerebral blood flow due to arterial occlusion or stenosis. Typically divided into lacunar (affecting blood flow in small arteries), thrombotic and embolic

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15
Q

What are the different types of origin of ischaemic strokes?

A

Thrombus formation or embolus, for example in patients with atrial fibrillation
Atherosclerosis/Atherothromboembolism e.g. from carotid artery
Shock
Vasculitis

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16
Q

What is a Lacunar stroke? What happens in it. (it is a type of ischaemic stroke)

A

Lacunar stroke - Involves the Lenticulstriate arteries, small branches directly of the middle cerebral artery - more vulnerable to hypertension

—> Under high blood pressure they undergo Hyaline arteriosclerosis (where proteins are forced into the intima wall)

Damaged brain forms cysts - look like lakes under microscope hence name lacunar

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17
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a lacunar stroke

A

Depends on the area affected

One of:
Sensory loss
Weakness (unilateral)
Ataxic hemiparesis
Dysarthria
Motor speech problems

Can happen in:
Internal capsule
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Pons

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18
Q

Outline the pathology behind an ischaemic stroke of atherosclerotic origin

A

Basically formation of atherosclerotic plaque

Irritants damage the endothelium, damage becomes a site for atherosclerosis

A plaque forms, made of fats, cholesterol, proteins, calcium and immune cells encased in a fibrous cap.

If cap ruptures, (interestingly smaller plaques are more dangerous as they have weaker caps that are more prone to being ruptured), then
Soft core is thrombogenic and platelets adhere to the exposed collagen, creating a clot, Known as an Atherothromboembolism

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19
Q

Outline the pathology behind an ischaemic stroke of emboli origin.

A

Blood clot from elsewhere in the body, typically from atherosclerosis or from the heart
Cardiac emboli from AF, MI or infective endocarditis 🡪 blood stasis, forming a blood clot.

Only emboli in the systemic circulation/aka left side of heart can cause an embolic stroke.

Emboli in right side of heart will go to the lung, *unless a patient has a Septal defect- they can travel through the septal defect and go up to brain

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20
Q

Outline the pathology behind an ischaemic stroke due to shock. What are watershed infarcts

A

A rapid drop in blood pressure/perfusion to brain means that areas in the brain furthest from arterial blood supply - Known as Watershed zones Can undergo infarction.

Watershed infarcts are unique ischemic lesions which are situated along the border zones between the territories of the major cerebral arteries.

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21
Q

Causes of ischaemic strokes - Where are the “Watershed zones” of the brain?

A
  • Cortical border zone infarction: border of ACA/MCA and MCA/PCA
  • Internal border zone infarction: borders of penetrating MCA branches,orborders of the deep branches of the MCA and ACA (resulting in deep white matter infarction)
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22
Q

Name some risk factors for a stroke

A
  • Hypertension
  • Age: the average age for a stroke is 68 to 75 years old
  • Smoking
  • Diabetes
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Vasculitis
  • Family history
  • Haematological disease: such as polycythaemia, Sickle cell anaemia
  • Medication: such as hormone replacement therapy or the combined oral contraceptive pill
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23
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery?

A

1. Lower limb weakness and loss of sensation to the lower limb.
2. Gait apraxia (unable to initiate walking).
3. Incontinence.
4. Drowsiness.
Decrease in spontaneous speech.

Contralateral hemiparesis (weakness of one side of the entire body) and sensory loss with lower limbs > upper limbs

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24
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the middle cerebral artery?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis with upper limbs > lower limbs
Facial drop
sensory loss with upper limbs > lower limbs

Homonymous hemianopia

Hemineglect syndrome: if affecting the ‘non-dominant’ hemisphere; patients fail to be aware of items to one side of space

Aphasia: if affecting the ‘dominant’ hemisphere (the left in 95% of right-handed people) as Brocas/Wernickes areas supplied by MCA)
Aphasia is the medical term for full loss of language, while dysphasia stands for partial loss of language.

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25
Q

What is locked in syndrome? A stroke effecting which artery would lead to this, and what part of the brain is affected in this?

A
  • A condition whereby the patient is fully aware but cannot move or communicate verbally due to almost complete paralysis - All voluntary muscles are generally affected, except for vertical eye movements and blinking

It may be caused by a stroke affecting thebasilar artery, thusdenying blood to the pons

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26
Q

What is a homonymous hemianopia?

A

a visual field defect involving either the two right or the two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes.

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27
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the Posterior cerebral artery?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
1. Visual field defects.
2. Cortical blindness.

Contralateralloss of pain and temperature due to spinothalamic damage

Visual agnosia - An inability to recognise or interpret visual information
Prosopagnosia - An inability to recognise a familiar face.

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28
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a ischaemic stroke in the vertebral basilar arteries?

A
  • Cerebellarsigns
  • Reduced consciousness
  • Quadriplegiaorhemiplegia

quadriplegia,
disturbances of gaze and vision,
lockedin syndrome (aware, but unable to respond

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29
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in Weber’s syndrome (midbrain infarct; branches of posterior cerebral artery)

A

(midbrain infarct) Oculomotor palsy and contralateral hemiplegia

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30
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in Lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion)

A

Ipsilateral facial loss of pain and temperature

Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome
(decreased pupil size, a drooping eyelid and decreased sweating on the affected side of the face)

Ipsilateral cerebellar signs

sudden vomiting and vertigo
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

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31
Q

What is the ROSIER scale? What is it used for?

A

Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale is a variation of FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) and is used to differentiate acute stroke from stroke-mimics

A stroke is possible if the score is > 0 and requires an urgent non-contrast CT head. Once hypoglycaemia has been excluded, assess the following:

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32
Q

What is the first line investigation to do for a stroke, what would you see?

A

CT scan ASAP
Distinguishes ischaemic from haemorr

hypoattenuation (darkness) of the brain parenchyma
loss of grey matter-white matter differentiation, and sulcal effacement
hyperattenuation (brightness) in an artery indicates clot within the vessel lumen

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33
Q

What are some other investigations you would do for a Stroke

A
  • ECG:assess for AF, MI
  • Bloods:
    • Screen for risk factors includingHba1c, lipids, clotting screenand rule out stroke mimics such ashypoglycemia and hyponatraemia
    • In younger patients, consider ESR, autoantibody and thrombophilia screen (ESR raised in vasculitis)
  • CT angiogram (CTA):identifies arterial occlusion and should be performed in all patients who are appropriate for thrombectomy
  • MRI head:MRI is an alternative to non-contrast CT head; MRI is more sensitive but CT is safer and easier to obtain
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34
Q

What is the management for an Ischaemic stroke?

A

Maintain stable blood glucose levels, hydration status and temperature

Blood pressure should not be lowered too much during a stroke because this risks reducing the perfusion to the brain.

  • Thrombolysis: alteplase given if < 4.5 hours of symptom onset and haemorrhage excluded on imaging

Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks

Prophylaxis - Lifelong clopidogrel (75mg, an Antiplatelet)

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35
Q

What is the function of Alteplase? What is it?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator that rapidly breaks down clots and can reverse the effects of a stroke if given in time.

Plasminogen is inactive form of enzyme plasmin

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36
Q

What would you give in the management of a stroke in someone with AF?

A

Warfarin/DOAC, it’s superior to aspirin in Atrial fibrillation / mural thrombus

Warfarin blocks one of the enzymes (proteins) that uses vitamin K to produce clotting factors. This disrupts the clotting process, making it take longer for the blood to clot

DOAC - eg rivaroxaban inhibit Thrombin

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37
Q

What are some differentials for a stroke/ what are some stroke mimics

A
  • Stroke mimics e.g.
    • Hypoglycaemia
    • Hyponatraemia
    • Hypercalcaemia
    • Uraemia
    • Hepatic encephalopathy
    • Brain tumours
    • Seizures
    • Complicated migraine
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38
Q

What is average age for a stroke?

In what populations is it highest in?

A
  • Stroke is the third leading cause of mortality in the US and the UK
  • The average age for a stroke is 68 to 75 years old
  • Stroke rates are higher in Asian and black African populations than in Caucasians
  • M>F
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39
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Sudden onset focal neurological deficit.

Older definition:
symptoms of a stroke that resolve within 24 hours.

New definition:
transient neurological dysfunction secondary to ischaemia without infarction.
Either time based or tissue based

DOES NOT CAUSES ACUTE INFARCTION

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40
Q

What are some risk factors for getting a TIA

A
  • Increasing age
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Carotid stenosis
  • Thrombophilic disorders e.g. antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Sickle cell disease
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41
Q

What are the 5 main aetiologies that can lead to a TIA

A

Atherothromboembolism
From Carotid artery – main cause - listen for a carotid bruit

Cardioembolism
In Atrial Fibrillation
After an MI
Valve disease/prosthetic valve

Hyperviscosity: eg polycythaemia, sickle-cell anaemia, myeloma.

Vasculitis eg cranial arteritis, PAN, SLE, syphilis, etc.

Dissection: a rare cause of cerebral ischaemia from tearing of the intimal layer of an artery (typically carotid).This leads to an intramural haematoma that compromisescerebral blood flow.

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42
Q

What artery is commonly the route of a TIA?

A

90% = ICA

10% = Vertebral

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43
Q

What are the symptoms of a TIA in the internal carotid artery?

A

Depends on the site of the TIA:

ACA - weak/numb contralateral leg

MCA - weak/numb contralateral side of body, face drooping w/forehead spared, dysphasia (temporal)

PCA -Homonymous hemianopia: visual field loss on the same side of both eyes
Hemisensory loss
Amaurosis fugax

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44
Q

What are the symptoms of a TIA in the vertebral/ basilar arteries

A

Diplopia – double vision
Vertigo
Vomiting
Choking and dysarthria
Ataxia
Hemisensory loss

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45
Q

TIA scoring - what score can help stratify which patients are at a higher risk of a stroke following a TIA?

A

ABCD2 score – risk score of strokes (max score is 7)

A – Age – > 60 (1 point)
B – Blood pressure (at presentation), 140/90 or more (1 point)

C – Clinical features: Unilateral weakness (2 points), Speech disturbance without weakness (1 point)

D – Duration, 60 minutes or longer (2 points), 10-59 minutes (1 point)
D – Presence of diabetes (1 point)

High risk:
ABCD2 score of 4 or more, AF is present, More than TIA in one week or a TIA whilst on anti-coagulation

Low risk:
None of the above
Present more than a week after their last symptoms have resolved

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46
Q

What are the primary investigations for a TIA

A

The Face Arm Speech Time Test (FAST test): check for/ ask about facial weakness, arm weakness, speech difficulty
- ECG: rule out AF as an underlying cause
- Auscultation: listen for carotid bruit

  • Bloods:
    • PT time/INR - in case thrombolytic therapy is needed
    • To exclude hypoglycaemia/hyponatraemia
    • FBC – looking for polycythaemia

CT scan - Request an urgent CT scan of the head
Carotid doppler – look for stenosis
CT angiography – look for stenosis

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47
Q

What is the management for a TIA?

A

Immediate management
Immediate loading dose: Aspirin 300mg
Refer to specialist – to be seen within 24h of symptom onset

Antiplatelet therapy
Standard treatment is Aspirin 75mg daily
With modified-release Dipyridamole
OR Clopidogrel daily

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48
Q

What is the acute management for a TIA?

What procedure is done?

A
  • Antiplatelet:initiallyaspirin 300mg - the first-line, immediate management, if aspirin not appropriate, give an Clopidergol

REFER TO STROKE SPECIALIST*

Carotid endarterectomy:surgical procedure to remove the blockage, Done within 2 weeks stenosis of > 70% on Doppler is an indication for urgent endarterectomy

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49
Q

What further managment can you provide for a TIA, after the acute antiplatelets?

A

A High intensity Statin - atorvastatin : 20-80 mg orally once daily

An anticoauglant for AF - eg A low molecular weight heparin eg dalteparin, or
A direct thrombin inhibitor or factor Xa inhibitor - rivaroxaban

Give aspirin 300mg OD for 2wks, then switch to clopidogrel 75mg OD.

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50
Q

What are the main complications of a TIA?
How can you distinguish between a TIA and a Stroke?

A

Increased risk of stroke
Increased risk of underlying CVD

You cant distinguish until after recovery
TIA Sx resolve usually within/<24 hours
Stroke Sx last more than 24 hours

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51
Q

What is a Haemorrhagic Stroke?

A

Ruptured blood vessel leading to reduced blood flow to the brain

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52
Q

What is seen in Wernicke’s Aphasia?

What artery is blocked in wernickes aphasia?

A

history of fluent, yet confused speech.
Wernicke’s aphasia can be caused by a blockage in the inferior division of the left Middle Cerebral Artery

Therefore, a patient with Wernicke’s aphasia will talk fluently. However, the content will not make sense.

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53
Q

What is seen in Brocas Aphasia?

What artery is blocked in Brocas aphasia?

A

causes non-fluent speech. Patients often have word-finding difficulties. However, comprehension remains intact.

Broca’s area is within the frontal lobe = often affected by infarction of the left superior division of middle cerebral artery.

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54
Q

What are the subtypes of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Intracerebral: bleeding within the brain parenchyma

Subarachnoid: bleeding into the subarachnoid space, between the pia mater and arachnoid mater of the meninges

Intraventricular: bleeding within the ventricles; prematurity is a very strong risk factor in infants

An intracerebral haemorrhage that involves just the brain tissue is called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage, whereas if the blood extends into the ventricles of the brain which store cerebrospinal fluid, it’s called an intraventricular haemorrhage.

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55
Q

What are the main aetiologies of a primary haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Hypertension
- Arteriovenous malformations: blood vessels that directly connect an artery to a vein. Over time these abnormal vessels dilate and can rupture
- Vasculitis
- Vascular tumours - aka Haemangioma
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy: a degenerative disease where abnormal protein deposits in the walls of arterioles making them less compliant
Head trauma

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56
Q

Outline the 2 main ways that hypertension can lead to a haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Arteriosclerosis: stiffening of vessels prone to rupture
  • Microaneurysms: called Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms, most likely to be found on small arteries
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57
Q

How can a haemorrhagic stroke be secondary to an ischaemic stroke?

A

Ischaemia causes brain tissue death.

If there is reperfusion, there’s an increased chance that the damaged blood vessel might rupture. Bleeding into dead tissue is called haemorrhagic conversion.

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58
Q

Outline the pathology that a haemorrhagic stroke leads to.

A

pool of blood which increases pressure in the skull and puts direct pressure on nearby tissue cells and blood vessels

downstream tissue from bleed are also deprived of oxygen-rich blood. Healthy tissue can die from both the direct pressure and the lack of oxygen

Increased ICP can also lead to
CSF obstruction, - Hydrocephalus
Midline shift
Tentorial herniation

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59
Q

Pathologies of Brain haemorrhages -define
Midline shift
Tentorial herniation

A

Midline shift is a shift of the brain past its centre line it is commonly associated with a distortion of the brain stem

Tentorial herniation is the movement of brain tissue from one intracranial compartment to another

Midline shift is often associated with high intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be deadly. In fact, midline shift is a measure of ICP; presence of the former is an indication of the latter.

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60
Q

What are some general clinical manifestations of a haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Similar to an ischaemic stroke - brain region specific
- Headache
- Weakness
- Seizures
- Vomiting
- Reduced consciousness

  • Anterior or middle cerebral artery stroke: numbness and sudden muscle weakness.
  • Broca’s area or Wernicke’s area stroke: slurred speech or difficulty understanding speech, respectively.
  • Posterior cerebral artery stroke: vision disturbances.
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61
Q

What are some manifestations that can point to a haemorrhagic stroke, over ischaemic?

A

Pointers to haemorrhage:

Sudden loss of consciousness
Severe headache
Meningism- the clinical syndrome of headache, neck stiffness and photophobia, often with nausea and vomiting - can be caused by raised ICP
Coma

These are unreliable, a CT scan is needed for differentiation

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62
Q

What are the investigations for a intercranial haemorrhage?

A

Request an immediate non-contrast CT scan of the head - will see hyperattenuation (brightness), suggesting acute blood, often with surrounding hypoattenuation (darkness) due to oedema

  • Angiography: visualise the exact location of haemorrhage
  • Check FBC and clotting
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63
Q

What is the management for an intercranial haemorrhage?

A
  • Consider intubation, ventilation and ICU care if they have reduced consciousness
  • Correct any clotting abnormality - STOP ANTICOAGULANTS IF PT IS ON THEM

Correct severe hypertension but avoid hypotension
Craniotomy, or stereotactic aspiration

Drugs to relieve ICP - IV MANITOL

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64
Q

Treatment for intracerebral haemorrhagic stroke - How does mannitol work?

A

elevates blood plasma osmolality, resulting in enhanced flow of water from tissues, including the brain and cerebrospinal fluid, into interstitial fluid and plasma

Mannitol hinders tubular reabsorption of water and enhances excretion of sodium and chloride by elevating the osmolarity of the glomerular filtrate.

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65
Q

Treatment for intracerebral haemorrhagic stroke - outline what happens in
a) Craniotomy
b) Stereotactic Aspiration

A
  • Craniotomy: part of the skull bone is removed to drain any accumulated blood and relieve pressure. Good for if the bleed is close to the surface of the skull
  • Stereotactic aspiration: aspirate off blood and relieve intracranial pressure, guided by CT scanner. Good for bleeding that is located deeper in brain tissue
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66
Q

Normal physiology - name two things found in the subarachnoid space

A

Cerebral Spinal fluid
The Circle of Willis

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67
Q

Normal physiology - what artery is found above the dura?
What is found in the subdural space

A

Middle meningeal artery is in the extradural space above the Dura mata
Bridging veins are found within the subdural space

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68
Q

normal physiology - what are the two layers of dura mater, and what is in between them?

A

The dura mater is composed of two layers: the periosteal/endosteal layer and the meningeal layer. The dural venous sinuses are between these two layers

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69
Q

Define what a Subarachnoid haemhorrhage

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage characterised by blood within the subarachnoid space.
Space between arachnoid mater & pia mater

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70
Q

What is the typical age people will have a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
How many people die straight away/soon after?

A

Typical age 35-65
Make up 5% of strokes

~50% of people die straight away or soon after
10-20% more die from rebleeding within weeks
Half the survivors are left with significant disability

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71
Q

What are some risk factors for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension
Known aneurysm
Previous aneurysmal SAH
Smoking
Alcohol
increasing age
Family history
Polycystic Kidney Disease
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome & Marfan syndrome

Associated with Berry aneurysms

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72
Q

What are the 3 main causes of a Subarachnoid Haemorrhage?

A
  • Trauma
  • Atraumaticcases are referred to asspontaneousSAH - often due to a saccular cerebral (Berry) Aneurysm - 70-80% of SAH cases
    Arteriovenous malformation(AVM) - abnormal connections between artery and vein can dilate and cause rupture - 15% of SAH cases

Can be Idiopathic

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73
Q

How can Polycystic Kidney disease lead to increased likelihood of aneurysms and hence Subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A

Polycystin help regulates cell growth and division (proliferation), by allowing Ca2+ into cells

PKD means there is a reduction in polycystin, which means that the wall of the blood vessels get bigger and bigger, getting stretched, leading to aneurysm formation

Also PKD can also cause hypertension, which can further increase risk of subarachnoid haemorrhages

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74
Q

Where are Berry Anerusyms most likely to occur?

A

Arise at points of arterial bifurcation within the Circle of Willis; the junction between the anterior communicating and anterior cerebral arteries is the most common location

Most common in anterior half of brain

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75
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind a subarachnoid haemhorrage.

A

Rupture of blood vessel - leads to a rise in ICP,

Pressure on healthy tissues can make them die, as well as brain tissue not getting blood it needs due to bleed - Ischaemia

Vessels being bathed in a pool of blood can cause vasospasm - will further reduce the supply of blood flow to the brain

Also can irritate the meninges, which can lead to scarring which can obstruct CSF outflow ==> Hydrocephalus

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76
Q

What are some symptoms of an subarachnoid haemhorrage?

A
  • Headache
    • Severe, sudden onset
    • Occipital
    • ‘Thunderclap’ headache
  • Meningism: photophobia and neck stiffness - due to Meningies irritation
  • Vision changes
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Speech changes
  • Seizures
  • Weakness
  • Confusion
  • Coma
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77
Q

What are some signs of a Subarachnoid haemhorrhage?

A
  • Neck stiffness
    • Budzinski’s Sign - Flexion of neck = Flexion of Knees
    • Kernig sign - Knee cannot be fully extended with hip flexed at 90 degrees
    • Focal neurological deficit - eg if affecting Posterior cerebral artery - Oculomotor palsy
    • Increased BP

Papilledema

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78
Q

What are some differentials for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Migraine
Meningitis
Corticol vein thrombosis
Carotid/vertebral artery dissection

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79
Q

What investigations would you do for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

urgent Non Contrast CT head
ASAP
Detects >95% of SAH in first 24 hours - Subarachnoid and/or intraventricular blood, hyperdense areas in the subarachnoid space
“Star” shaped sign

ECG - Arrhythmias and ischaemic changes, Prolonged QTc, ST segment/T-wave abnormalities.

Lumbar puncture – if CT normal but SAH still suspected
Findings - RBCs or xanthochromia (yellow pigmentation due to degradation of haemoglobin to bilirubin)

Electrolytes - Moderate hyponatraemia
ABG – to rule out hypoxia

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80
Q

What is the non surgical management for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Immediately refer to neurosurgeon

Nimodipine - Ca2+ antagonist, (CCB) Reduces vasospasm and therefore cerebral ischaemia

Re-examine CNS often

IV fluids -Maintain cerebral perfusion
Ventricular drainage for hydrocephalus

If features of raised intracranial pressure: consider intubation with hyperventilation, head elevation (30°) and IV mannitol

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81
Q

What is the surgical management for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

first-line endovascular coilingof the aneurysm -reduces blood circulation to the aneurysm inserting one or more microsurgical detachable platinum wires, into the aneurysm until there is no more blood flow occurring. Usually enter through leg.

Second-line issurgical clippingvia craniotomy - opening in the skull is created to reach the aneurysm. Then small metal clip on the neck (opening) of the aneurysm to obstruct the flow of blood.

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82
Q

What is the 6 month prognosis for a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

At 6 months, 25% of patients are dead and 50% are moderately to severely disabled.

Importantpredictors of 30-day mortalityinclude age, level of consciousness on admission and the amount of blood visible on CT.

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83
Q

What is the difference between Haematoma and haemorrhage?

A

A hematoma is when some blood that has seeped out of blood vessels collects under the skin. A hemorrhage is active bleeding from a broken blood vessel.

Therefore a haemorrhage can cause a haematoma.

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84
Q

Define what an Extradural/ Epidural Haemorrhage is.

A

A bleed ABOVE the dura mater, between the outer endosteal of the dura and the skull.

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85
Q

What is the epidemiology of a extradural haematoma?

A

Mostly in young people

Rare in small children, Due to plasticity of skull
Rare in >60s, as Dura is more tightly adherent to skull
More common in males

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86
Q

What are some general risk factors for an extradural haematoma? What is the most common cause of it?

A
  • Head injury
  • Hypertension
  • Aneurysms
  • Ischaemic stroke can progress to haemorrhage
  • Brain tumours
  • Anticoagulants such as warfarin

HEAD INJURY IS BY FAR THE MOST COMMON CAUSE

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87
Q

Where is the most common site for an extradural haematoma? Why is this?

A

The most common site where the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones join together, CALLED THE PTERION ===>
This section of the skull is relatively thin and it’s located right above the middle meningeal artery.

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88
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind what happens in an extradural haematoma.

A

Once a meningeal artery is torn, blood will pool between the skull and the external layer of the dura mater, separating it from the inner surface of the skull.

This blood cannot cross the suture lines where the dura mater adheres more tightly

A large epidural haematoma can cause a midline shift = displacement of the whole brain towards the opposite side of the skull.

When there’s active bleeding, it’s called a haemorrhage, and the collection of blood that results is called a haematoma.

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89
Q

Define what a lucid interval is, as sometimes seen in an extradural haematoma.

A

lucid interval which is when several hours pass before the onset of symptoms, if blood is accumulating slowly. Here patient will have mild/little symptoms just after trauma and then decline

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90
Q

What can a rise in ICP lead to in an Extradural haematoma? What are the two types of this

A

Can cause brain to herniate =

Either a Supratentorial herniaton, as cerebrum is Pushed against skull or tentorium, can lead to an ischaemic stroke

or Infratentorial herniation, as cerebellum is pushed up against brainstem - can affect consciousness, resp and heart rate.

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91
Q

What are the clincal manifestations of an extradural haematoma?

A

Characteristic history, Head injury
- Reduced GCS: loss of consciousness after the trauma due to concussion
- There might be a lucid interval after initial trauma if there is a slower bleed. This is followed by rapid decline.
- Headaches
- Vomiting
- Confusion
- Seizures
- Pupil dilation if bleeding continues
- May be focal neurological symptoms e.g. muscle weakness, hemiparesis, abnormal plantar reflex (upgoing plantar) or sensory problems

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92
Q

What investigations would you do for a extradural haematoma?

A

CT scan – shows biconvex hyperdense haematoma that is adjacent to the skull:
Blood forms rounded/biconvex shape as the tough dural attachments to the skull keep it more localised - Don’t cross suture lines

Skull X-ray – may be normal or show fracture lines crossing the course of the middle meningeal artery
Skull fracture increases the extradural haemorrhage risk so do an urgent CT on anyone with suspected skull fracture

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93
Q

What is the management of an extradural haematoma?

A

Refer to neurosurgeon -
- Clot evacuation
- Craniotomy: part of the skull bone is removed in order to remove accumulated blood below.
- Followed by ligation of the vessel.

  • Consider intubation, ventilation and ICU care if they have reduced consciousness
  • Correct any clotting abnormality
  • Correct severe hypertension but avoid hypotension
    Stabilise patient – ABCDE management
    IV mannitol – to reduce ICP
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94
Q

Look at this picture

A
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95
Q

What is a subdural haematoma?

A

A subdural haematoma (SDH) is a collection of blood that forms in the subdural space, the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, due to Rupture of the bridging veins

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96
Q

normal physiology - describe the venous drainage of the brain, in respect the meningeal layers involved.

A

Deoxygenated blood drains into superficial cerebral veins, or bridging veins, that sit in the subarachnoid space (along with cerebral arteries)
- These veins travel through the arachnoid mater, pass through the subdural space and penetrate the inner layer of the dura mater to drain into the Dural venous sinuses located between the two layers of the dura mater. (the inner meningeal layer and the outer endosteal layer)
- Eventually the blood in the venous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein and returns to the heart.

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97
Q

What two things make up the Leptomeninges? What is found between them?

A
  • The pia and arachnoid maters, are also called leptomeninges.
  • Between the leptomeninges, there’s the subarachnoid space, which houses cerebrospinal fluid. CSF is a clear, watery liquid which is pumped around the spinal cord and brain, cushioning them from impact and bathing them in nutrients.
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98
Q

What are the main causes for a subdural haematoma?

A

Rupture of bridging veins, usually caused by:

  • Brain atrophy: in the elderly the brain shrinks in size which means that the bridging veins are stretched across a wider space where they are largely unsupported
  • Alcohol abuse: caused the wall of the veins to thin out, and make them more likely to break.
  • Trauma/ injury e.g.
    • Falls
    • Shaken baby syndrome
    • Acceleration-deceleration injury: speeding on the road and then suddenly slamming the brakes
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99
Q

What are some risk factors for a subdural haematoma?

A
  • Head injury
  • Brain atrophy
  • Alcohol abuse
  • Hypertension
  • Aneurysms
  • Ischaemic stroke can progress to haemorrhage
  • Brain tumours
  • Anticoagulants such as warfarin

Epileptics, as they can hit their head when having a siezure

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100
Q

Outline the pathophysiological course of a subdural haematoma.

A

bridging veins are under low pressure = bleeding can be slow = delayed onset of symptoms.

Weeks/months later, haematoma starts to autolyse, (broken down by own enzymes) = increase in oncotic pressure so Water sucked in, haematoma enlarges.

Gradual rise in ICP over weeks, as haematoma grows
A large subdural haematoma on one side of the skull can cause a midline shift, or can cause brain to herniate

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101
Q

How can a subdural haematoma be classified?

A

An acute subdural haematoma causes symptoms within 2 days, a subacute subdural haematoma causes symptoms between 3 and 14 days, and a chronic subdural haematoma causes symptoms after 15 days.

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102
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of a subdural haematoma

A
  • Reduced GCS: loss of consciousness right after the injury or in the ensuing days to weeks as the haematoma increases in size.
  • Headaches
  • Vomiting
  • Seizures
  • Sometimes there can be focal neurological symptoms e.g. muscle weakness, unequal pupils, hemiparesis or sensory problems

Confusion
May fluctuate
Insidious physical & intellectual slowing
Personality change
Unsteadiness

They often cannot remember the traumatic injury as it was long ago

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103
Q

What is the investigations for a Subdural haemorrhage?

A
  • Immediate NON CONTRAST CT head to establish the diagnosis. Shows clot and midline shift.

Bleeding is between the dura and arachnoid so subdural haematomas follow the contour of the brain and form a crescent-shape and cross suture lines. This is different to an epidural haemorrhage!

Check FBC and clotting

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104
Q

What would you see on a non contrast CT head for someone with a

Acute Subdural haematoma
Chronic subdural haematoma
Acute on chronic haematoma

A
  • Acute subdural haematoma: hyperdense mass = looks “more white” than the surrounding healthy brain tissue
  • Chronic subdural haematoma: hypodense masses = “less white” than the surrounding brain tissue.
  • Acute on chronic bleeding: combination of hyperdense and hypodense, seen in individuals who have a rebleed in the bridging veins after a chronic haematoma has already formed.
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105
Q

What is the management of subdural haematoma?

A

IV mannitol - reduce ICP
Burr hole / Craniotomy to relieve pressure

Craniotomy a large opening in the skull is created to evacuate the haematoma and relieve the associated mass effect.

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106
Q

What is Amaurosis Fugax

A

A classical syndrome of painless short-lived monocular blindness.
It is a term usually reserved for transient visual loss of ischaemic origin.

Management will depend on cause.

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107
Q

What is the aetiology of amararosis fugax?

A

temporary reduction in the retinal, ophthalmic or ciliary blood flow leading to temporary retinal hypoxia.

The most common cause of amaurosis fugax is atherosclerotic embolism, leading to a narrowing of either the carotid or retinal artery

Can also be caused by inflammation of the optic nerve (optic neuritis), nervous system (e.g. in multiple sclerosis) or in head injury.

Individuals older than 60 years of age that have had multiple episodes of transient monocular blindness could also be investigated for giant cell arteritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the large vessels of the scalp, neck, and arms.

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108
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Meningitis describes inflammation of the leptomeninges (the arachnoid and pia mater) and usually occurs due to a bacterial, viral, or fungal infection.

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109
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis?

What is the most common form of chronic meningitis?

A

Viral infection is most common
Then bacterial infection

Can also be caused by fungal/parasite infection, as well as

Autoimmune (aka Lupus)
Medication injected into CSF (Intrathecal therapy)

Fungal infection is the most common form of chronic meningitis

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110
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in neonates?

A

Escherichia coli
Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)
Listeria monocytogenes

only group where both Streptococcus Pneumoniae or Neisseria Meningitidis aren’t in the most common top 3

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111
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in infants

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae (but less common now due to vaccination)
Streptococcus pneumoniae

if in doubt, just say Streptococcus Pneumoniae or Neisseria Meningitidis)

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112
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in young adults

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

if in doubt, just say Streptococcus Pneumoniae or Neisseria Meningitidis)

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113
Q

What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in the elderly

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
Listeria monocytogenes

if in doubt, just say Streptococcus Pneumoniae or Neisseria Meningitidis)

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114
Q

Outline the classification of the two most common bacterial causes of Meningitis in adults

A

The two most common causes of meningitis in adults are both diplococci:
1. Neisseria meningitidis (gram Negative)

  1. Strep. Pneumoniae (gram Positive)
    Alpha Haemolysis on Blood agar, and Optochin sensitive
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115
Q

What are the common causes of viral meningitis?

A

-Enteroviruses (echoviruses, Coxsackieviruses, polioviruses)- most common
-Mumps in countries without routine childhood immunisation
-Herpes simplex virus

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116
Q

What are the two ways in which bacteria infect the meninges, as seen in meningitis?

A
  • Direct spread:
    Pathogen gets inside the skull or spinal column, and then penetrates the meninges, eventually ending up in the CSF. - either through overlying skin or up nose. Normally due to congenital defect like spina bifida, or acquired defect like a skull fracture
  • Haematogenous spread:Pathogen enters the bloodstream and moves through the endothelial cells in the blood vessels making up the blood-brain barrier and gets into the CSF
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117
Q

What are some signs of Meningitis?

A
  • Kernig’s sign: extension of the knee when hip is flexed at 90 degrees causes neck pain
  • Brudzinski sign: severe neck stiffness causes the hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed
  • Petechial or purpuric non-blanching rash: associated with meningococcal disease (N. meningitidis)
  • Pyrexia
  • Reduced GCS
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118
Q

What are some symptoms of meningitis?

A

FEVER
HEADACHE
NECK STIFFNESS – ‘MENINGISM’
Might not be able to touch chin to neck
Purpuric rash – only in BACTERIAL meningitis
Non-blanching plupurent rash = meningococcal septicaemia (meningitis caused by N. Menigitidis)
Photophobia and/or phonophobia
Papilloedema – swelling of optic disc on fundoscopy
Usually bilateral

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119
Q

What investigations do you do for meningitis?

A

INVESTIGATIONS AND TREATMENT SHOULD BE DONE IN PARALLEL

Treat first, investigate later – give IM benzylpenicillin
Assess GCS - if <8 then can’t maintain their own airway, 🡪 intubate

Blood cultures – BEFORE ANTIBIOTICS!!

Lumbar puncture - to obtain CSF - Diagnostic
Head CT – to exclude lesions e.g. tumour

Blood – blood cultures and PCR for S. pneumoniae and N. meningitidis.
Nose and throat swabs – are plated out onto blood and chocolate agar.
Stool – stool PCR can be used to detect enterovirus.

Serology – blood (to detect a convalescent rise in antibody).

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120
Q

What would you see on a Lumbar puncture for someone with bacterial meningitis?

A

CSF:
Appearance - Cloudy/Turbid
WCC - High neutrophils
Protein - High
Glucose - Low
Culture - bacterial organism

bacteria swimming in the CSF (cloudy) will release proteins (high) and use up the glucose (low). Immune response to bacteria is neutrophils

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121
Q

What would the results of an LP CSF sample analysis look like in Viral meningitis?

A

CSF:
Appearance - Clear
WCC - High Lymphocytes
Protein - Normal/Mildly raised
Glucose - Normal (2.8–4.2mmol/L., two thirds of blood glucose)
Culture - Negative

Viruses cant be seen (clear) don’t use glucose (normal) but may release a small amount of protein (normal/mild inc). Immune response to viruses are lymphocytes

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122
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture usually taken from?
What are some contraindications for a lumbar puncture?

A

Between L3/L4
Raised ICP
GCS <9
Focal Neurological signs
coagulopathy
Cardiovascular compromise (bradycardia and HTN),
Infection at the site of LP

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123
Q

What is the treatment for viral Meningitis?

A

Usually milder and so Supportive Tx

If HSV/VZV infection then Acyclovir

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124
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in a hospital, for those <60 and not immunocompromised?

A

IV dexamethasone, ideally administered before or with the first dose of antibiotics once in hospital. Reduces mortality and likelihood of neurological sequelae.

ceftriaxone : 2 g intravenously every 12 hours
OR
cefotaxime : 2 g intravenously every 6 hours

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125
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in a hospital, for those >60 or immunocompromised?

A

intravenous dexamethasone, ideally administered before or with the first dose of antibiotics once in hospital. Reduces mortality and likelihood of neurological sequelae.

ceftriaxone : 2 g intravenously every 12 hours
OR
cefotaxime : 2 g intravenously every 6 hours

AND (for Listeria monocytogenes cover)
amoxicillin : 2 g intravenously every 4 hours

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126
Q

What is the treatment for suspected meningitis w/ non-blanching rash present in the community?

A

Urgent/immediate IM Benzylpenicillin
Prior to immediate transfer to a hospital

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127
Q

What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis?

A

Cryptococcus Neoformans
Candida

Very rarely affects immune competent people

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128
Q

Once the pathogen causing meningitis has been identified, what antibiotic can you swith to for a

Meningococcal meningitis?
Pneumococcal meningitis?
Listeria Monocytogenes Meningitis?

A

Meningococcal meningitis - IV benzylpenicillin, or Cefotaxime
Pneumococcal meningitis - IV cefotaxime
Listeria Monocytogenes Meningitis - IV Amoxicillin and Gentamicin

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129
Q

What do you do as a GP if a patient presents to you w/ non blanching rash and you suspect meningococcal septicaemia?

What can you offer to families/close contacts of a relative with meningitis?

A

Give IM benzylpenicillin and do an immediate hospital referral

Can offer close contacts Ciprofloxacin

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130
Q

What is Encephalitis? Where does it most commonly affect?

A

infection of the brain leading to inflammation of the brain parenchyma
Most commonly affects frontal and temporal lobes of brain

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131
Q

What is the most common causes of Encephalitis?

A

Encephalitis is generally a viral infection and the viral causes are:

almost always Herpes simplex virus

but occasionally Varicella zoster virus (chickenpox), Parvoviruses, primary HIV, Mumps virus and Flaviviruses such as Japanese encephalitis virus and West Nile virus

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132
Q

What are some non viral causes of Encephalitis?

A

TB
Malaria
Neisseria meningitidis
- Fungal:
- Cryptococcus
- Parasitic:
- Toxoplasmosis - from cats

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133
Q

What are the symptoms of encephalitis?

A

Fever
Headache
Confusion
Seizures

Encephalopathy:
Behavioural changes
psychotic behaviour
mood changes

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134
Q

What are the signs of encephalitis?

A
  • Pyrexia
  • Reduced GCS
  • Focal neurological deficit, such as:
    • Aphasia
    • Hemiparesis
    • Cerebellar signs
  • May also have signs of meningitis: meningo-encephalitis
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135
Q

What cell layer is the only output of the cerebellar cortex? Loss of it will lead to what?

A

The Purkinje cell layer - loss of the purkinje cells well due to cerebellar degradation will lead to ataxia

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136
Q

What investigations would you do for Encephalitis?

What is Diagnostic

A
  • Blood tests:FBC, CRP, U&Es and blood culture
  • Throat swab:culture for viral organisms
  • HIV serology: now routinely tested in the emergency department

CT/MRI Head:
Shows evidence of unilateral encephalitis

Diagnostic - LP and CSF analysis, and PCR
CSF analysis:
Viraemia - increased lymphocytes, raised protein if viral aetiology
Consider PCR for confirmation
Cultures from CSF

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137
Q

What is the treatment of encephalitis?

A

Aim to start acyclovir within 30min of the patient arriving (10mg/kg/8h IV over 1h)
if HSV or VZV

Symptomatic treatment: eg phenytoin for seizures

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138
Q

What happens in multiple sclerosis?

A

Chronic progressive autoimmune, T-cell mediated inflammatory disorder of the CNS, against the myelin basic protein of oligodendrocytes

causes demyelination of CNS neurons (brain and spinal chord)

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139
Q

What are the risk factors for MS?

A
  • Age: most commonly diagnosed in 20-40 year olds
  • Female gender: MS is 3 times more common in females
  • Smoking
  • Vitamin D deficiency - due to lack of sunlight? so - Northern latitudes is also a risk factor
  • Family history: HLA-DR2 is implicated
  • Autoimmunity: patients often have a family history of other autoimmune disorders
  • EBV infection: the virus with the greatest link to MS
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140
Q

Normal physiology - what does myelin do and what is it produced by in the CNS and PNS?

A

Myelin is the protective sheath that surrounds the axons of neurons, allowing them to quickly send electrical impulses.

This myelin is produced by oligodendrocytes in the CNS and by schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system

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141
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind Multiple sclerosis. What happnes when the T cells get through the BBB, What is left behind on the myelin?

A

T Cells get through blood brain barrier, and get activated by Myelin = T cells can now change BBB (so has more receptors) to allow more immune cells to get through it

T cells release cytokines, damaging Oligodendrocytes, and B cells make antibodies and which allow macrophages to attack the oligodendrocytes,
Leaving behind areas of plaque/sclera on neurone

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142
Q

Pathophysiology behind MS - why do patients with this often get relapses?

A

regulatory T-cells can inhibit other immune cells, meaning at first there may be remyelination of damaged neurons - but over time this remyelination doesn’t keep up and permanent damage occurs.

A characteristic features of MS is that lesions vary in their location over time, meaning that different nerves are affected and symptoms change over time.

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143
Q

What is the most common type of Multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Relapsing-remitting:
    • The most common pattern (85% of cases)
    • Episodic flare-ups (may last days, weeks or months), separated by periods of remission. There isn’t full recovery after the flare-ups, so disability increases over time
    • 60% of patients develop secondary progressive MS within 15 years
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144
Q

Briefly outline the other types of multiple sclerosis

A
  • Secondary progressive:
    • Initially, the disease starts with arelapsing-remitting course, but then symptoms get progressively worse withnoperiods of remission
  • Primary progressive:
    • Symptoms get progressively worse from diseaseonsetwithno periods of remission
    • Accounts for 10% of cases and is more common inolder patients
  • Progressive relapsing:
    • One constant attack but there are bouts superimposed during which the disability increases even faster
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145
Q

What are some symptom of multiple sclerosis?

A

EYES:
Optic neuritis - most common presentation of MS - It involves demyelination of the optic nerve and loss of vision in one eye - PAIN WHEN LOOKING SIDEWAYS
Double Vision - due to lesions with the sixth cranial nerve (abducens nerve).

Plaques in sensory pathways from skin - Numbness, tingling, sensory loss, paraesthesia (tingling, itching burning sensation)

Plaques in autonomic nervous system- Bladder incontinence, sexual dysfunction

  • Trigeminal neuralgia: stimulation to face causes pain
    Cognitive decline - Poor concentration, critical thinking, depression

Charcot’s triad due to Cerebellar white matter demyelination

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146
Q

Symptoms of MS - what is Charcots Neurological Triad?

A

Dysarthria – due to plaques in brainstem
Difficult or unclear speech – can affect eating, talking, swallowing

Intention tremor – due to plaques along motor pathways
Muscle weakness and spasms
Tremors
Ataxia
Paralysis

Nystagmus – due to plaques in nerves of eyes
Loss of vision
Optic neuritis
Painful eye movements
Double vision

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147
Q

what is

Uhthoff’s Phenomenon
Lhermitte’s phenomenon

A

SEEN IN MS

Uhtoff’s phenomenon: worsening of symptoms following a rise in temperature, such as a hot bath/sauna/exercise

Lhermitte’s phenomenon: electric shock sensation on neck flexion (bending neck forward), caused by stretching the demyelinated dorsal column.

Uhtoff explained - Although the myelin sheath does regenerate, the new myelin is less efficient and temperature dependent - When exposed to high heat – conduction through new myelin drastically decreases

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148
Q

How is a diagnosis for Multiple sclerosis made?

A

Diagnosis - neurologist based on the clinical picture and symptoms suggesting lesions that change location over time.

Often using the McDonald Criteria. - looking for symptoms/signs which demonstrate dissemination in space (i.e. different parts of the CNS affected) and time.

Other causes for the symptoms need to be excluded

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149
Q

What investigations can point a diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis

A

MRI with contrast - Active Lesions will take up contrasts, Old ones will not ==> Can also see Demyelinated Plaques, known as Dawson’s Fingers

Lumbar puncture with CSF electrophoresis = inflammatory proteins found in the CSF not serum eg Oligoclonal IgG bands = CNS inflammation

Evoked potentials – tests how long it takes impulses to travel
delayed, visual, brainstem, auditory, somatosensory potentials

E.g. stimulate optic nerve and measure time for impulse to go from eye to occipital cortex - measures visual evoked potential
As there is demyelination, conduction will be slower

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150
Q

Outline the McDonald Criteria

A

Criteria used to diagnose MS:
Uses symptoms/signs which demonstrate dissemination in space (i.e. different parts of the CNS affected) and time.

Diagnosis is based on:
- 2 or more relapses (disseminated in space and time AND EITHER
- Objective clinical evidence of 2 or more lesionsOR
- Objective clinical evidence of one lesionWITHa reasonable history of a previous relapse

  • ‘Objective evidence’ is defined as an abnormality on neurological exam, MRI or visual evoked potentials
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151
Q

What is the management for Multiple sclerosis?

A

No cure
Acute attacks: (relapsing-remitting MS) – IV methylprednisolone 1000 mg intravenously once daily for 3 days

Plasma exchange: to remove disease-causing antibodies

Chronic
1st line (frequent relapse)
- Subcutaneous Interferon Beta

For spasticity
- Baclofen, and Botulinum toxin injections

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152
Q

Name any biological DMARDs that are used in MS

A

Beta Interferon and Monoclonal antibodes eg atemuzmab (anti-CD52), natalizumab

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153
Q

What is the management of MS, looking at symptom control?

A

Tremor – beta blocker

Mild to moderate muscle spasticity – oral medications e.g. diazepam, baclofen (GABA analogue that reduces Ca2+ influx)

Focal disabling muscle spasticity – peripheral nerve blocks, botulinum toxin - botox injections

Removal of trigger factors e.g. UTI, bed sores

Physical treatments e.g. physio, exercise to maintain strength.
Neuropathic pain – gabapentin
Depression - SSRIs

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154
Q

Normal Physiology - what are the two places where cell bodies of peripheral nerves are found?

A

For Peripheral nerves, - cell body is in the spine (spinal nerve)
Or brain (cranial nerve)

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155
Q

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune, rapidly progressive demyelinating condition of the peripheral nervous system, often triggered by infection

“Equivalent to MS for the PNS”

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156
Q

What bacteria/viruses can be known to trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome?
What vaccine is associated with increased risk?

A
  • Infections:typically gastrointestinal or respiratory:
    • Bacterial:e.g. Campylobacter jejuni (30%) and mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • Viral:e.g. Zika virus, influenza, Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus

association with the influenza vaccination (uncommon)

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157
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind Guillian-Barre Syndrome.

A

GBS is believed to be caused by‘molecular mimicry’

  • Thought that infectious organisms have the antigens that resemble myelin gangliosides on Schwann cells (PNS) 🡪 autoantibody mediated damage to myelin sheath
  • Processinvolves the production ofanti-ganglioside antibodies(anti-GMI is positive in 25% of patients)
  • The demyelination occurs in patches along the length of the axon, so it’s called segmental demyelination
  • Early on, there is remyelination but over time, there’s irreversible damage
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158
Q

What are some signs to note seen in Guillian-Barre Syndrome?

A
  • Reduced sensation in affected limbs: sensory findings on examination are usually mild
  • Symmetrical weakness in lower extremities first, progressing to the upper limbs: proximal muscles often affected earlier than distal muscles
    Autonomic dysfunction: e.g. tachycardia, hypertension, postural hypotension, urinary retention (in severe disease)
    Respiratory distress: shortness of breath,
    Ataxia with hyporeflexia (or areflexia) in affected limbs - (Absence of neurologic reflexes such as the knee-jerk reaction)
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159
Q

What are some symptoms of Guillian-Barre Syndrome?

A
  • Tingling and numbness in hands and feet: often precedes muscle weakness
  • Symmetrical, progressive, ascending weakness
  • Unsteady when walking
  • Back and leg pain: common at some point in disease course
  • Facial weakness and speech problems,
  • Double vision (due to Affected Cranial nerves)
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160
Q

Outline features of the diagnostic criteria for GBS
What are some blood tests would you do to investigate Suspected Gullian-Barre Syndrome?

A

Clinical Dx of Hx of recent infection with progressive weakness and areflexia, in >1 limb, near symmetry of symptoms.

  • Bloods:exclude other causes
    • U&Es: electrolyte abnormalities resulting in neuropathic symptoms
    • B12 and folate: deficiency associated with neurological features
    • TFTs: to exclude hypothyroidism as a cause of weakness
  • Anti-ganglioside antibodies: can be used to differentiate GBS variants, e.g. anti-GQ1b antibody in Miller-Fisher syndrome, or Anti GMI
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161
Q

What other investigations can aid to confirm the diagnosis of Guillain Barre?

A

Nerve conduction studies: findings will typically be suggestive of demyelination, e.g. reduced conduction velocity

Lumbar puncture for CSF:raised proteinwith normal WBC countis typical, although an initial normal protein level does not exclude GBS

Spirometry: to monitor respiratory function as 20% of patients require mechanical ventilation at some stage

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162
Q

What are the two options for management seen in Gullian-Barre syndrome?

A
  • IV immunoglobulins (IVIg):5 day treatment course commenced within the first 2 weeks of symptom onset,
    Contraindicated in patients with IgA deficiency as can cause severe allergic reactions

OR

  • Plasma exchange: 5 treatments of 2-3L over 2 weeks commenced within the first 4 weeks of symptom onset

Don’t do Both. No role for steroids

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163
Q

What is some additional management seen in GBS?

A
  • Thromboprophylaxis:to prevent venous thromboembolism - eg a direct oral anticoagulant, unfractionated heparin, or a low molecular weight heparin
  • Physiotherapy:for those with impaired mobility or motor disturbance
  • Intensive care support:for those who develop ventilatory failure (20%), intensive care and mechanical ventilation may be required
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164
Q

What is classically seen in Parkinsonism?

A

This is the extrapyramidal triad of:
1 Tremor. Worse at rest; often ‘pill-rolling’ of thumb over fingers

2 Hypertonia/rigidity. - (is too much muscle tone. For instance, arms or legs are stiff and hard to move) Rigidity +tremor gives ‘cogwheel rigidity’, felt by
the examiner during rapid pronation/supination.

3 Bradykinesia. Cardinal sign (slowness of movement and speed (or progressive hesitations/halts)
Involves Postural instability or shuffling gait (1)

Expressionless face.

Marche à petit pas = Walk slowly

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165
Q

What things other than Parkinson’s disease can be known to cause parkinsonism?

What drugs can lead to Parkinsonism?

A

Some drugs
Drugs -
Antipsychotics eg haloperidol - blocks dopamine receptors
metoclopramide, - antisickness, a dopamine anatagonist

Wilson’s disease
Trauma - (dementia pugilistica) - seen in boxing
Encephalitis
Carbon monoxide

studies show smoking is protective for parkinson’s!!

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166
Q

Normal physiology - what does the part of the substantia nigra that is affected in Parkinson’s do normally?

A

SN is made of two parts - Pars Reticulata and Pars Compacta

The pars compacta sends messages to the striatum via neurons rich in the neurotransmitter dopamine, forming the nigrostriatal pathway, which helps to stimulate the cerebral cortex and initiate movement.

Forms part of the basal ganglia

In addition to simply initiating movements, the substantia nigra helps to calibrate and fine tune the way that movements happen.

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167
Q

Define Parkinson’s disease

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterised by loss of dopaminergic neurones within the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNPC) of the basal ganglia (nigrostriatal pathway)

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168
Q

What is the prevalence of PD? What age is the peak onset?

A

The second most common neurodegenerative disorder after alzheimers dementia

  • It’s progressive, adult-onset disease, and it gets more common with age
  • Prevalence of 1% in those aged 60-70 and up to 1-3% in those ≥80 years old
  • M>F
    Peak onset - 55-65 years
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169
Q

Mutations of what genes have been implicated?

What are some causes of secondary Parkinson’s

A

Idiopathic condition but potentially related to genetics
Mutation in Parkin Gene, PINK1
Mutation in alpha-Synuclein gene

Secondary causes of Parkinsonism;

Vascular parkinsonism
Infections – Encephalitis
Toxin induced – Carbon monoxide, drugs, Pesticides

studies show smoking is protective for parkinson’s!!

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170
Q

Outline the basic pathophysiology of parkinson’s

A

Neurodegenerative loss of dopamine secreting cells from the pars compacta of the substantia nigra that project to the striatum 🡪 reduced striatal dopamine levels,

This means that Subthalamic nucleus will be less inhibited, so it will inhibited the Thalamus more.

Less dopamine means the thalamus will be inhibited resulting in PROBLEMS INITAIATING
MOVEMENT

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171
Q

What is the histological hallmark seen in Parkinson’s?

A

eosinophilic inclusion bodies - consisting of misfoldedα-synucleinin the dopaminergic neurones of the Pars Compacta, calledLewy bodies.

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172
Q

What are some motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Bradykinesia (hypokinesia/akinesia) – slowness or absence of movement
Resting tremor
Rigidity – stiffness and Pain (20% initially present with pain), Increased tone in limbs and trunk
Postural instability - Impaired balance – especially when trying to turn
- Other features
- Micrographia (abnormally small, cramped handwriting)
- Hypomimia (reduced degree of facial expression)

Tremor is typically asymmetrical!

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173
Q

What are some non - motor symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Anosmia (smell blindness)
  • Sleep disturbance: REM sleep is impaired
  • Psychiatric symptoms
    • Depression
    • Anxiety
    • Dementia: usually develops after motor symptoms, unlike in Lewy-body dementia
  • Constipation
    Urinary incontinence not typical
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174
Q

What do you look for when making a clinical diagnosis of someone with Parkinson’s?

A
  • PD is a clinical diagnosis: it should be suspected in a patient who has bradykinesiaand atleastoneofthe following:
    • Tremor
    • Rigidity
    • Postural instability

Tremor is typically asymmetrical!

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175
Q

What investigations can help diagnose someone with parkinson’s?

A
  • MRI brain:may help exclude other causes of neurological disease but should not be used to diagnose PD - show substantia nigra atrophy
  • SPECT (DaT scan):single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) will show reduced dopamine uptake in the basal ganglia
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176
Q

name some things that should NOT be present in Parkinson’s disease, at the beginnning.

A

Incontinence
Dementia
Symmetry
Early falls
Tremor in action

if these are present, think of differentails……

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177
Q

name 2 differentials for Parkinson’s disease, what you may see in them and how you would treat them.

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus – increase in CSF 🡪 enlarged ventricles
Will See Magnetic gait - inability to lift the feet off the floor - also incontinence, and dementia
Treatment = Surgical correction
Shunt from the ventricles to the peritoneum

Benign Essential Tremor
see next card for manifestations
Very common, can run in families
Treat with Beta-blockers

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178
Q

distinguish between the tremor of Parkinson’s disease and benign essential tremor.

A

Parkinson’s Tremor
Asymmetrical
Worse at rest
Improves with intentional movement
May have other Parkinson’s features
No Change with alcohol
Lower frequency (4-6 hertz)

Benign Essential Tremor

Symmetrical
Improves at rest
Worsens with intentional movement
No other Parkinson’s features
Improves Change with alcohol
Higher frequency (5-8 hertz)

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179
Q

What is some of the management of Parkinson’s disease?

A

1st line
carbidopa/levodopa (Co-careldopa): 100 mg orally
Most powerful drug
The higher the dose, the greater the risk of SE

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180
Q

What is the MOA of Parkinson’s disease drug, co-careldopa?

A

Increase amount of dopamine in CNS
Can’t give dopamine as it can’t cross the BBB

2 DRUGS LEVODOPA AND CARBIDOPA

Dopamine biosynthetic pathway:
Tyrosine 🡪 L-dopa 🡪 dopamine 🡪 dopamine receptor
L-dopa converted to dopamine under action of Dopa Decarboxylase in CNS

As Dopa Decarboxylase also exists outside the CNS, it is commonly combined with Carbidopa (Dopa Decarboxylase inhibitor) as it can’t cross into the CNS so it doesn’t affect dopamine production in CNS

This way the L-Dopa will only get converted into Dopamine in the CNS, not elsewhere in the body.

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181
Q

What are some common side effects of L-Dopa?

A
  • Dyskinesia:excessive involuntary movements related to levodopa use (excess dopamine)
    • Dystonia: This is where excessive muscle contraction leads to abnormal postures or exaggerated movements.
    • Chorea: These are abnormal involuntary movements that can be jerking and random.
    • Athetosis: These are involuntary twisting or writhing movements usually in the fingers, hands or feet.

Excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden onset of sleep

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182
Q

What is the issue with using levodopa to treat PD?

A

Initially works well but soon the Px becomes resistant to it and the effects wear off.

Therefore want to only use it when Sx are bad enough to prevent early resistance.

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183
Q

Parkinson differentials -
When would you see Parkinson’s Dementia?
What about Lewy Body Dementia/w Parkinsonism?

A

Parkinson Sx THEN dementia - PARKINSON’S DEMENTIA

Dementia Sx THEN Parkinson’s - LEWY BODY DEMENTIA W PARKINSONISM

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184
Q

Define chorea

A

a movement disorder that causes sudden, unintended, and uncontrollable jerky movements of the arms, legs, and facial muscles.

Chorea is seen in many diseases and conditions and is caused by an overactivity of the chemical dopamine in the areas of the brain that control movement.

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185
Q

What is Huntington’s Chorea (HD)?

A

an autosomal dominant genetic neurodegenerative condition that causes a progressive deterioration in the nervous system

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186
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Huntingtons disease?

What type of genetic disease is Huntington’s, as where is this mutation?

A

autosomal dominant - SOMEONE WITH HD HAS 50% OF PASSING IT ONTO CHILDREN

It’s a “trinucleotide repeat disorder” that involves a genetic mutation in the HTT gene on chromosome 4., that codes for the huntingtin protein.

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187
Q

Outline what is seen in the Huntingtin Protein of someone with HD.

A

ON CHROMOSONE 4

On the HTT gene - the base sequence of CAG (that codes for Glutamine) is repeated more than 35 times.

This means that patients have 36 or more glutamines in a row in the huntingtin protein.

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188
Q

pathophysiology of huntingtons - what do mutated HTT proteins go on to do in the brain?

A

Mutated proteins aggregate within the neuronal cells of the caudate and putamen (dorsal striatum) of the basal ganglia causing neuronal cell death.

Specific neurons that die are the GABAergic and cholinergic neurones in the corpus striatum = decreased ACh and GABA synthesis. Without this, levels of dopamine increase leading to excessive movement - Chorea

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189
Q

Define anticipation

What does this mean for people with huntingtons?

A

A phenomenon in which the signs and symptoms of some genetic conditions tend to become more severe and/or appear at an earlier age as the disorder is passed from one generation to the next.

Anticipation is where successive generations have morerepeatsin the gene, resulting in:

  • Earlier age of onset
  • Increased severity of disease
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190
Q

What is the penetrance of HD?

A

Full penetrance:
All genotypes of Huntington’s will express the phenotype

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191
Q

Why does anticipation occur in Huntington’s?

What is the phenomena known as?

A

The expanded CAG not only causes the HTT protein to be mutated, but also interferes with DNA replication itself

When copying the HTT gene, DNA polymerase can lose track of which CAG it’s on and so add extra CAGs.

This is called repeat expansion and happens more frequently in the production of sperm than egg.

Therefore symptoms tend to present progressively sooner when Huntington’s disease runs in men

REPEAT EXPANSION

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192
Q

When do symptoms of HD usually present?

A

Patients are usually asymptomatic until symptoms begin around aged 30 to 50. It presents with an insidious, progressive worsening of symptoms.

Sx present between 30-50 yrs

People with HD will have more severe symptoms typically around 60+ yrs

193
Q

What are the physical manifestations of Huntington’s

A
  • Chorea(involuntary, abnormal movements)
  • Eye movement disorders- Problems with initiating saccades
    Broken pursuit
  • Dysarthria: speech difficulties
  • Dysphagia: swallowing difficulties
    Ataxia - Problems with heel to toe walking

^^Due to caudate nucelus and putamen atrophy

Often additional touch of parkinsonism
Rigidity
Slowness of fine finger movements

194
Q

What are the psychiatric problems seen in Huntington’s?

A

Dementia
Memory problems
Psychiatric problems
Personality change
Depression
Psychosis

HD usually begins with these psychiatrics symptoms before advancing to physical symptoms.

195
Q

What investigation is done for HD?

A
  • Diagnosis is made in a specialist genetic centre using a genetic test for the faulty gene and identification of the number of CAG repeats.
    • This involves pre-test and post-test counselling regarding the implications of the results.
196
Q

What is the management for Huntington’s? Non pharmalogical

A
  • Post-test counselling: to help patients cope with diagnosis
  • Genetic counsellingregarding relatives, pregnancy and children
  • Involvement ofMDTin supporting and maintaining their quality of life (e.g. occupational therapy, physiotherapy and psychology)
  • Speech and language therapywhere there are speech and swallowing difficulties
  • Advanced directivesto document the patients wishes as the disease progresses
197
Q

What medical treatment is done in Huntington’s?

A

No cure, or treatment to stop progression.

Can provide Sx treatment for chorea:
- Antipsychotics (e.g. olanzapine)
- Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
- Dopamine-depleting agents (e.g. tetrabenazine)
- For depression
- Antidepressants

198
Q

What is the prognosis of HD?

What would an MRI show of late stage Huntingtons?

A

Progressive uncurable condition

Most common cause of death is due to Aspiration Pneumonia, due to swallowing difficulties

Life expectancy of 15-20 years post diagnosis

High rate of suicide

The MRI typically shows caudate nucelus and
putamen atrophy

199
Q

What is the only cellular output later in the cerebellum? Degradation of it will lead to what?

A

The Purkinje cell layer - degradation of it will lead to ataxia

200
Q

What is dementia?

A

A syndrome caused by neurodegeneration of various causes resulting in progressive reduction of cognition and difficulty with ADLs

201
Q

What is the epidemiology of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Most common Dementia
Rarely affects under 65yrs
(otherwise EOAD which accounts for around 5% of cases)

Affects more females than males

Prevalence significantly rises with age

202
Q

What are some risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Age: older age is a major risk for AD
  • Genetics: most cases of AD are sporadic (95%). Small number of inherited causes exist (<5%, autosomal dominant inheritance). Inherited causes suggested by early-onset disease.
  • Cardiovascular disease: smoking and diabetes increase risk.Exercise decreasesrisk.
  • Depression
  • Low educational attainment
  • Low social engagement and support
  • Others: head trauma, learning difficulties
203
Q

What Genes/genetic factors can increase your risk of getting Alzheimers?

A

Sporadic (95%) -
Certain alleles of apolipoprotein E (APOE) have also been identified as a risk factor. —> APOE E4 - this allele of the APOE gene is not as good at clearing beta plaques
(APOE E2 is protective, as better at clearing beta plaques)

Familial - (Cause of Early onset Alzheimer’s disease)

  • Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein (APP) and presenilin genes (PSEN1, PSEN2) have been identified as risk factor
  • APP gene is found on chromosome 21, so people with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) have 3 APP genes - Alzheimer’s is almost inevitable often <40 years
204
Q

What is the pathophysiology of AD - how do Amyloid Beta plaques form?

A

Amyloid Beta Plaques:
• Amyloid Precursor Protein (APP) - A channel protein in neurons.
• If it is broken down by the Beta secretase enzyme, the fragment is not soluble and becomes sticky, and will clump together
• ==> get in the way of neurones and their signalling
==> Plaques can trigger immune response, leading to inflammation

205
Q

What is the pathophysiology of AD - What are neurofibrillary tangles? (NFTs)

A

Beta amyloid plaque build-up outside the neurone, lead to kinase enzyme activation in Neuron
This leads to phosphorylation of the tau protein, that helps hold microtubules in cell together.

When Tau is phosphorylated it stops supporting microtubules and clumps with other Tau proteins, forming forming neurofibrillary tangles

Neurones with tangles and non-functioning microtubules can’t signal as well, and sometimes end up undergoing apoptosis

206
Q

What are some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Agnosia - cant recognise things
Apraxia - Cant do basic motor skills
Aphasia - Speech difficulties

  • Cognitive impairment
    • Poor memory
  • Agitation and emotional lability
  • Depression and anxiety
  • Sleep cycle disturbance
    Motor disturbance: wandering is a typical feature of dementia
    Poor memory
207
Q

How is activities of daily living can be affected in early and then later stages of Alzheimer’s disease.

A
  • Loss of independence: increasing reliance on others for assistance with personal and domestic activities
  • Early stages: problems with higher level function (e.g. managing finances, difficulties at work)
  • Later stages: problems with basic personal care (e.g. washing, eating, toileting) and motor function (e.g. walking, transferring)

‘Enduring’ doesn’t mean unfluctuating: cognition comes and goes, allowing poetic insights, as in Iris Murdoch’s poignant self-diagnosis: ‘I am sailing into the dark’.

208
Q

What investigations can you do for suspected Alzheimers?

A

Cognitive assessment: e.g. mini mental state examination (MMSE), looks at:
- Attention and concentration
- Recent and remote memory
- Language
- Praxis: planned motor movement (e.g. perform a task)
- Executive function
- Visuospatial function

  • Bloods and other investigations e.g. ECG, virology, chest x-ray: exclude other pathologies
  • Imaging
    • CT/MRI: exclude other diagnosis and can help determine type of dementia; will show medial temporal lobe atrophy
209
Q

What is some of the management you can offer for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A
  • Non-pharmacological: programmes to improve/maintain cognitive function (e.g. structured group cognitive stimulation programmes). Also exercise, aromatherapy, therapeutic use of music/dancing, massage.
  • Pharmacological:
    • Mild-to-moderate AD: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine).
    • Moderate-to-severe AD: N-methyl-D-aspartic acid receptor antagonist (e.g. memantine).
  • Advanced care planning
  • End of life care
210
Q

What is the prognosis for Alzheimer’s?

A

Estimated median survival after diagnosis is3-9 years (variable).
Development of delirium on a background of dementia is associated with more rapid progression.

  • Mild: first 2 years
  • Moderate: next 2-4 years
  • Severe: 4-5 years onwards
211
Q

What is frontal temporal dementia? What ages does it most likely affect?

A

Frontotemporal dementia is a neurodegenerative disorder characterised by focal degeneration of the frontal & temporal lobes.

  • Typically affects patients at a younger age (< 65 years)
  • The mean age of onset is 58 years old. The onset before 40 years old and after 75 years old is uncommon.

Rapid onset - Overall survival is 8-10 years from symptoms starting

212
Q

outline the pathophysiology behind Frontal temporal dementia

A

3R isoforms of the tau protein get hyperphosphorylated. =====>As with AD, these can’t hold the tubulins together, and start clumping.

Affected Neurons won’t function well, and so neurons get damaged/undergo apoptosis

Large scale changes in brain -
- Brain atrophy: the gyri get narrower whereas the sulci get wider.
- The ventricles expand as the rest of the brain shrinks.
- The parietal and occipital lobes are spared.

213
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of Frontaltemporal dementia/Pick’s disease?

A
  • Frontal lobe effects: personality and behavior changes
    • Disinhibition(e.g. socially inappropriate behaviour)
    • Loss of empathy
    • Apathy(losing interest and/or motivation)
    • Compulsive behaviour
  • Temporal lobe effects: language problems
    • Effortful speech
    • Halting speech
    • Speech-sound errors
    • Speech apraxia(i.e. difficulty in articulation)
    • Word-finding difficulty
  • As atrophy progresses
    • Memory loss
    • Lack of concentration
    • Inability to learn new things
214
Q

What are some investigations to do for Frontal temporal dementia?

A
  • Diagnosis based on cognitive assessment
  • Imaging:
    • MRI: exclude other pathology; indicates changes in the frontal and temporal lobes
  • Definitive diagnosis: brain biopsy after a person has died
215
Q

Outline the pathphysiology behind what happens in Lewy- Body Dementia

A

neurones contain a protein called alpha synuclein. In LBD, this gets misfolded in neurons

misfolded alpha-synuclein aggregates to form Lewy bodies that deposit inside neurones, particularly in the cortex and the substantia nigra.
As the disease progresses, more and more neurones accumulate Lewy bodies and die.

216
Q

Name 3 disease where Lewy bodies are seen

A

Lewy-Body dementia
Parkinson’s
Multiple System Atrophy

217
Q

What are some symptoms of Lewy Body dementia

A
  • Early symptoms are typically cognitive ones (Alzheimer’s-like)
    • Difficulty focusing
    • Poor memory
    • Visual hallucinations
    • Disorganized speech
    • Depression
  • Later symptoms are typically motor ones (Parkinson’s-like)
    • Resting tremors
    • Stiff and slow movements
    • Reduced facial expressions
  • Some patients may have sleep disorders e.g. sleep walking or talking in their sleep
218
Q

What is the two treatments you can give to alleviate symptoms of Lewy body dementia?

A
  • Dopamine analogue e.g. levodopa: for Parkinson’s like motor symptoms
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors e.g. donepezil: increases acetylcholine availability, used for Alzheimer’s-like cognitive symptom
219
Q

What vascular dementia?

A

Vascular dementia is a chronic progressive disease of the brain caused by cerebrovascular disease, and a lack of oxygen being supplied to neurons.

220
Q

Normal Physiology - how much of the hearts cardiac output goes to the brain?
What is unique about the brain’s metabolism?

A

Brain takes around 20-25% of CO

Neurons can only function in aerobic conditions.
- Neurons also don’t have long term energy stores, so they need a constant supply of glucose to keep working.

221
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind vascular dementia

A

Small vessel diseases eg Atherosclerosis, Ischaemic strokes, haemorrhage, amyloidosis = leads to lack of o2, and a gradual decrease in blood supply = chronic ischaemia

Tissue gets damaged = Liquefactive Necrosis

Brain necrosis leads to a loss of mental functions that are governed by that area.

222
Q

What is some of the management you can do for Vascular dementia?

A

No cure
- Management of risk factors e.g. high BP, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking.
- Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. donepezil: only used if mixed dementia as may have some benefit

Non-pharmacological: programmes to improve/maintain cognitive function (e.g. structured group cognitive stimulation programmes), exercise, aromatherapy, therapeutic use of music/dancing, massage

223
Q

Outline the percentage prevalence’s of each of the dementia subtypes.

A

Alzheimer’s - 60%
Vascular - 20%
Frontaltemporal dementia 10%
Dementia with Lewy bodies 5%
Young Onset Alzheimer’s 1-5%
Others 1%

224
Q

How big is sam’s penis

A

TINY

225
Q

Is smith dog slick?

A

Absolutely not

226
Q

Define and give some examples of primary headaches

A

No underlying cause relevant to headache: - syndromes based on symptoms

Migraine
Cluster
Tension
(Trigeminal Neuralgia)

227
Q

Define and give some examples of secondary headaches.

A

Secondary – associated with something else
Meningitis
Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Giant Cell Arteritis
Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Medication Overuse Headache

228
Q

What things seen in a patients PMH may prompt you do think about secondary headaches/be a red flag?

A

> 50
– Hx of HIV or cancer or trauma or risk factors cerebral ven sinus thrombosis
– Changing personality or cognitive dysfunction
– Vomiting without other obvious cause

229
Q

What things seen in a the character of a headache a patient is a presenting with may prompt you do think about secondary headaches/be a red flag?

A
  • Jaw claudication
  • Visual disturbance/eye pain
  • Postural
  • Sudden onset/thunderclap
  • Focal neurological symptoms present
  • Brought on by exercise/Valsalva (eg coughing, laughing, straining)
230
Q

What things seen in a physical exam of a patient with a headache may prompt you do think about secondary headaches/be a red flag?

A

fever
– altered conciousness
– neck stiffness
– Other abnormal neurological examination

231
Q

What other features/things would make you always consider an immediate referral for a suspected secondary headache?

A
  • Thunderclap headache ?SAH
  • Seizure and new headache
  • Suspected meningitis
  • Suspected encephalitis
  • Red eye ? acute glaucoma
  • Headache + new focal neurology
    – including papilloedema
    – Other abnormal neuro exam or symptom (evidence = orange)
232
Q

What things should be included in a physical examinatio, for a headache?

A

Fever
Altered consciousness
Neck stiffness/ Kernigs sign
Focal neurology signs
Fundoscopy

Check BP too

233
Q

What is a migraine?

A

recurrent and throbbing headache, often preceded by an aura & associated with nausea, vomiting and visual changes

234
Q

Name some risk factors, and potential triggers of a migraine

A
  • Family history
  • Female gender: migraines are three times more common in women
  • Obesity
  • Triggers: CHOCOLATE
    • Chocolate
    • OralContraceptive
    • Alcohol
    • Anxiety
    • Tumult - Loud noise
    • Exercise
  • Other important triggersinclude tiredness, lack of food, dehydration, menstruation, red wine and bright lights, under of over sleeping
235
Q

Explain the progression of a Migraine?

A

Prodrome: Precedes headache by hours/days: yawning, cravings, mood/sleep change

Aura: last for 60mins
Vision changes minutes before attack (attack follows soon after)
ZigZag lines

Throbbing Headache: 4-72hrs
(Hemiplegic in some cases)

Resolution:
Headache fades away slowly

Recovery

236
Q

What is the current pathophysiology thought to be behind migraine headaches?

A

neuronal hyperexcitability. This leads to trigeminal nerves initiating an inflammatory response with subsequent dilation of meningeal blood vessels, and sensitisation of surrounding nerve fibres leading to pain

237
Q

What kinds of things are seen in auras? What are auras?

A

An aura is a perceptual disturbance that can occur before or during a migraine.
It is usually experienced as a visual phenomenon, such as flashing lights, zigzag lines, or blind spots. Other types of auras may include sensory disturbances, such as tingling in the arms and legs, or speech and language problems.

238
Q

What are the types of migraines?

A
  • Migraine without aura
  • Migraine with aura
  • Silent migraine(migraine with aura but without a headache)
239
Q

What is the 4 diagnostic criteria for a migraine without aura?

A

4 diagnostic criteria
A – 5 attacks fulfilling B-D
B - attacks last 4-72 hours
C – Character, two of the following:
Unilateral, Pulsing, Moderate/severe, Aggravated by routine physical activity
D – during headache at least one of
Nausea and/or vomiting
Photophobia (light sensitive) and phonophobia (sound sensitive)

240
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for a migraine with aura?

A

3 diagnostic criteria
A – at least 2 attacks fulfilling B (character) and C (time)

B - > 1 reversible aura symptom - eg
- Visual – zigzags, spots
- Unilateral sensory – tingling, numbness
- Speech – aphasia
- Motor weakness – known as “hemiplegic migraine” so rule out stroke and TIA

C > 2 of the following 4:
-Aura symptoms spread gradually over 5 minutes and/or > 2 aura
symptoms occurring in successions
- Each aura symptom lasts 5-60 minutes
-followed within 60 minutes by headache

241
Q

How are migraines diagnosed?

A

Clinical Dx unless pathology is suspected where you do tests to exclude DDx, investigating red flags:

CT/MRI red flags ie. Indications
- Worst/severe headache ie. Thunderclap
- Change in pattern of migraine
- Abnormal neurological exam
- Onset >50yrs
- Epilepsy
- Posteriorly located headache

Lumbar puncture indications
- Thunderclap headache
- Severe, rapid onset headache/ progressive headache/ unresponsive
headache

242
Q

What are the treatments for Migraines?

A

Conservative - Avoid Triggers

ACUTE MANAGEMENT
Mild - Paracetamol/NSAIDs - ibuprofen
Severe - Triptans - sumatriptan
Anti-emetics - metoclopramide

Avoid use of Opiates

243
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Triptans?
Why are they used for migraines?

A

5-HT receptor agonists (serotonin) that are used to abort migraines when they start to develop

So prevents peptide release that would lead to vasodilation, pain, neurogenic inflammation.

244
Q

What are some preventative measures you can give to help stop migraines occurring?

A

Required if >2 attacks per month OR require acute meds >2x per week

Beta blockers eg. propranolol
TCAs eg. amitriptyline
Anti-convulsant eg. Topiramate - CAS patient!

245
Q

What are cluster headaches?

A

Cluster headaches are intensely painful, unilateral, periorbital headaches with associated autonomic dysfunction.

246
Q

Outline some of the epidemology around cluster headahces. What are some risk factors/triggers

A

Rarest primary headache subtype - Much rarer than migraines, and more common in males (~4x)

Typically affects adults with onset usually 20-40yrs

Risk factors:
Smoker
Alcohol
Male
Genetics - autosomal dominant gene has a link

A typical patient with cluster headaches in your exams is a 30 – 50 year-old male smoker. Attacks can be triggered by things like alcohol, strong smells and exercise.

247
Q

How long can a cluster headache last for?

How long can the periods of attack last, and how long can go inbetween?

A

Clusters of attacks may last for weeks/months before a pain free period follows which may last for years

248
Q

What are some key symptoms seen in the diagnostic criteria for cluster headaches?

A

Crescendo pain, that is unilateral and periorbital may also affect temples

Have ipsilateral, autonomic features -

Conjunctival infection and lacrimation

Ptosis
Miosis
Rhinorrhoea (runny nose)
lid swelling,
lacrimation,

5 similar attacks confirms diagnosis

249
Q

What are some clinical manifestations seen in cluster headaches?

A
  • Unilateral, periorbital or temporal headaches lasting 15 minutes to 3 hours
  • Ipsilateralautonomicsymptoms:
    • Lacrimation (teary eye)
    • Conjunctival injection (red eye due to enlargement of conjunctival vessels)
    • Nasal congestion
    • Rhinorrhoea (nasal discharge)
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Photophobia, with agitation and restlessness

Horner’s Syndrome
- Ptosis (eyelid drooping)
- Miosis (excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye)
- Anhidrosis (Decreased sweating on on half of face)

250
Q

Damage to what structure is likely to cuase Horner’s syndrome?

A

Damage to the cervical sympathetic chain causes Horner’s syndrome by removing sympathetic innervation to the head and neck

= Lack of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck

251
Q

What is the management of cluster headaches in acute attacks?

A

Acute attacks
Analgesics are unhelpful
15L 100% O2 for 15 mins via non-rebreather mask
Triptans eg. Sumatriptan

252
Q

What are some preventive interventions given for cluster headaches?

A

Prophylaxis – Verapamil (CCB), Lithium, Prednisolone, Corticosteroids

253
Q

What are Tension Headaches?

A

The most common form of a primary headache which has a characteristic rubber band feeling around the head.

254
Q

What are the causes of Tension Headaches?

A

May be due to muscle ache in the frontalis, temporalis and occipitalis muscles.
- Increased tenderness of muscles of head and face leading to activation of vasculature-surrounding nociceptors.

255
Q

What are some triggers of tension headaches?

A

STRESS - MAIN RISK FACTOR/TRIGGER
Sleep deprivation
Bad posture
Hunger
Eyestrain
Anxiety
Conflict
Overexertion
Depression
Clenched jaw
Noise

256
Q

What is the some of the features of the typical diagnostic criteria seen in tension headaches?

A

Bilateral, mild to moderate intensity pain
Not aggravated by exercise
No nausea or vomiting (anorexia may occur)
No more than one of photophobia and phonophobia

257
Q

What is the treatment for a Tension headache?

A

Stress relief
Avoid triggers

Simple analgesia:
Aspirin/Paracetamol

258
Q

Normal Physiology - what are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve?
Where does it exit the brain?
What are its functions?

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN5) has both motor and sensory functions and enters the brainstem at the level of the Pons.

Three divisions:
Ophthalmic (exits Superior Orbital fissure)
Maxillary (Foramen Rotundum)
Mandibular (exits Foramen Ovale)

Function = General SENSATION of the FACE, SCALP, NOSE MOUTH AND FRONT OF TONGUE, MOTOR = OPEN and CLOSE OF MOUTH (MASTICATION) GENERAL SENSATION OF front 2/3 of tongue. also inervates tensor tympani for hearing

259
Q

What is Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

A chronic, debilitating condition resulting in intense and extreme episodes of pain, due Compression of the trigeminal Nerve

260
Q

What are some causes of Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Vein or artery compressing the trigeminal nerve

Local pathology pressing on trigeminal nerve (more common in younger people):
- Aneurysms
- Meningeal inflammation
- Tumour
- Infarction
Petrous bone – spreading middle ear infection
Multiple sclerosis

261
Q

What are some key things in the diagnostic presentation of Trigeminal neuralgia?

A

3 attacks, with unilateral pain that is Severe intensity, Electric shock like, shooting, stabbing or sharp, Precipitated by innocuous stimuli to the affected side of the face

Occurs in one or more distributions of the trigeminal nerve, with no radiation beyond the trigeminal distribution
No neurological deficit

262
Q

What investigations would you do in trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia is a clinical diagnosis
    • MRI brain: imaging may be used if a sinister cause is suspected, such as a space-occupying lesion or demyelination, or if the patient is refractory to medical treatment and surgical intervention is being considered
263
Q

What are the treatment options for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

First Line:
Carbamazepine (anticonvulsant)

Second Line:
Phenytoin/Gabapentin (analgesic targeted for neuropathic pain)

Surgery possible to decompress/intentionally damage nerve

similar to seizure meds?

264
Q

Overview of Primary Headache Features:
Outline the site and duration of
Migraine headaches
Tension Headaches
Cluster Headaches
Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Duration:
MH - 4-72 hrs
TH - Minutes to dates
CH - 15-180 mins
TGN - Few seconds

Site:
MH - Unilateral
TH - Bilateral
CH - Retro-orbital/unilateral
TGN - unilateral V1/2/3 distribution

265
Q

Overview of Primary Headache Features:
Outline the Character and severity of
Migraine headaches
Tension Headaches
Cluster Headaches
Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Character:
MH - Throbbing
TH - Pressing/tight band
CH - Hot poker/boring
TGN - Electric shock/stabbing

Severity:
MH - Moderate-severe
TH - Mild to moderate
CH - Severe to very severe
TGN - Severe to very severe

266
Q

Overview of Primary Headache Features:
Outline the treatment of
Migraine headaches
Tension Headaches
Cluster Headaches
Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Acute Tx:
MH - Triptan
TH - Paracetamol
CH - Triptan/100% O2
TGN - Carbamazepine

267
Q

Normal physiology - Neuroepithelial cells differentiate into Neurones and Glial cells.

What are the 4 main types of Glial cells?

A

Glial cells are the non neuronal cells of the CNS and PNS that do not produce electrical impulses

  • Astrocytes - provide: physical support, repair, K+ metabolism neurotransmitter removal and maintenance of the BBB.
  • Microglia - immune cells of the central nervous
  • Oligodendrocytes - produce the myelin sheath insulating neuronal axons in CNS
  • Ependymal Cells produce CSF and help with CSF homeostasis, brain metabolism, and the clearance of waste from the brain.
268
Q

What is the most common Primary brain tumour? What is it’s appearance histologically?

A

Astrocytoma - specifically - Glioblastoma multiformeis the most common, an aggressive type of astrocytoma

  • Histologically has pseudo-palisading pattern - peripheral tumour cells lined up around necrotic centre
    - Grade IV (most malignant)
    (90% of Primary brain tumours)

2nd Most common Paediatric cancer

269
Q

Other primary brain tumours -
Outline some features of
Meningiomas
and
hemangioblastomas

(how they grow and hallmark histological appearance)

A

Meningiomas -
- Graded I through III, relatively slow growing.
- Histologically, they form nests of cells or a multinuclear syncytium of fused cells.
- Can cause calcifications called psammoma bodies.

Haemangioblastomas
- Derived from cells with blood vessel origins
- Can be anywhere, often found in cerebellum
- Typically grade I => Slow growing
- Histologically, there are often thin-walled capillaries that are arranged close to one another.

270
Q

What is the WHO grading for an astrocytoma (and other brain tumours)?
What is the prognosis for each grade?

A

Graded 1-4
1 = Benign Pilocytic astrocytoma - Good prognosis
2 = Diffuse Astrocytoma - >5 yrs (10 years average)
3 = Anaplastic Astrocytoma - 2-5 yrs
4 = Glioblastoma - <1 yr

271
Q

Name some causes of raised intercranial pressure

A

Brain tumours
Intracranial haemorrhage
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Abscesses or infection

272
Q

How are Brain tumours classified into the WHO grade?

A

Characterised histologically

Cellularity
Mitotic activity
Vascular proliferation
Necrosis

273
Q

In brief, what are some symptoms of a
Low grade (I-II) tumours
High grade (III-IV) tumours?

A

Low grade – typically present with seizures (can be incidental finding).

High grade – rapidly progressive neurological deficit. Symptoms of raised intracranial pressure.

274
Q

What are the symptoms/signs of a brain tumour, due to raised ICP?

A
  • Signs and symptoms of raised intracranial pressure
    • Headache: worse on waking, coughing and bending
    • Vomiting
    • Altered mental state
    • Visual field defects
    • Seizures (particularly focal)
    • Unilateral ptosis
    • Third and sixth nerve palsies
    • Papilloedema (on fundoscopy)

Cushing Triad (Increased PP, Bradycardia, Irregular Breathing)
Epileptic Seizures

Cancer Sx:
Lethargy
Malaise
Weight Loss

Initially asymptomatic with small tumours

275
Q

What is seen in Cushing’s triad, and why does it occur due to raised ICP?

A

To maintain cerebral perfusion pressure!!

The body prioritises CPP (cerebral perfusion pressure) over pretty much everything else .

Increase in ICP = will lead to decrease in CPP

The body compensates by raising MAP to counteract the rise in ICP – hence hypertension
This may then lead to a reflex bradycardia based on the HTN, and breathing can become irregular due to brainstem compression

276
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of a brain tumour that are due to focal neurological deficits?

a) Temporal lobe
b) Frontal
c) Parietal Lobe
d) Occipital lobe
e) Cerebellum

A
  • Temporal lobe: dysphasia, amnesia
  • Frontal lobe: hemiparesis, personality change, Broca’s dysphasia, lack of initiative, unable to plan tasks
  • Parietal lobe: hemisensory loss, reduction in 2-point discrimination, dysphasia, astereognosis (unable to recognise object from touch alone)
  • Occipital lobe: contralateral visual defects
  • ## Cerebellum: DASHING - Dysdiadochokinesis (impaired rapidly alternating movement), Ataxia, Slurred speech (dysarthria), Hypotonia, Intention tremor, Nystagmus, Gait abnormality
277
Q

What are some features of headaches taht should prompt further investigation?

A

Constant
Nocturnal
Worse on waking
Worse on coughing, straining or bending forward
Vomiting

278
Q

What is papilloedma?

A

Papilloedema is a swelling of the optic disc secondary to raised intracranial pressure. Papill- refers to a small rounded raised area (the optic disc) and -oedema refers to the swelling

Sheath around the optic nerve is connected with the subarachnoid space. Therefore it is possible for CSF under high pressure to flow into the optic nerve sheath.

279
Q

What will you see on fundoscopy in someone with papilledema?

A
  • Blurring of optic disc margin
  • Elevated optic disc (look for the way the retinal vessels flow across the disc to see the elevation)
  • Venous engorgement
  • Peripapillary haemorrhage

Vessels are able to flow straight across a flat surface, whereas they will curve over a raised disc.

280
Q

What type of brain tumour will present with hearing loss, balance problems, and tinnitus?

A

Acoustic Neuroma (AKA Vestibular Schwannoma) = tumours of the Schwann cells surrounding the auditory nerve that innervates the inner ear.

281
Q

What are some investigations done for brain tumours?

A

CT (with contrast)
MRI (better especially for pituitary lesions)

Biopsy - determine grade

Fundoscopy - Papilloedema due to raised ICP

NO LP as this is CI in raised ICP - mass lesion since withdrawing CSF may provoke immediate coning (herniation of brain through foramen magnum 🡪 brainstem compression

282
Q

What is the management for high grade tumours?

A

Treatment is non-curative (except for grade I)
High grade tumour:

Dexamethasone (steroid) – reduce oedema
Surgery – biopsy or resection - for diagnosis, and to reduce ICP

Radiotherapy – mainstay of treatment

Chemotherapy – temozolamide, PCV
Prognosis – 6 months no treatment/18 months with

283
Q

What is the management for low grade tumours?

A

Surgery – early resection or biopsy
Radiotherapy alone – delays disease transformation not overall survival
Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy – evidence improves long-term survival
Functional MRI – used during an awake craniotomy
Test speech, sensation, listening ability
Better with mapping

284
Q

What are the common causes of secondary brain tumours?

A

Metastases from:
Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC)
Breast
Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)
Melanoma
Renal Cell Carcinoma
Gastric Cancer

285
Q

What is the most common cause of a brain tumour?

A

Secondary brain tumour from a NSCLC

286
Q

What are the differential Diagnoses of a brain tumour?

A

Aneurysm
Abscess
Cyst
Haemorrhage
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

287
Q

normal physiology - what is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain? What does it bind to, what does ion channel does it cause to open causing these ions to flow into the adjacent neurone?

A

glutamate,
NMDA is the primary receptor that responds to glutamate by opening ion channels that let Ca2+ ions in.

288
Q

normal physiology - what is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in brain? What does it bind to, what does ion channel does it cause to open causing these ions to flow into the adjacent neurone?

A

GABA, Gamma-aminobutyric acid
binds to GABA receptors that tell the cell to inhibit the signal by opening channels that let in chloride ions Cl-.

289
Q

Define Seizure

A

Seizures are transient episodes of abnormal, excessive, hypersynchronous electrical activity in the brain.

There are many different types

290
Q

Define Epilepsy

A

A neurological disorder characterised by an increased tendency to have recurrent seizures that are idiopathic and unprovoked.

(>2 episodes more than 24hrs apart)

291
Q

In what ages is the incidence of epilepsy most common?

A

highest at the extremes of life with most cases starting before 20yrs or after the age of 60yrs

One of the most common neurological disorders
2% of UK population will have 2 or more seizures

292
Q

What is the pathophysiology of seizures?

A

In a seizure, clusters of neurones are temporarily impaired and start sending out lots of excitatory signals - sometimes said to be paroxysmal.
This is due to an imbalance between inhibition and excitation of neurons, as Balance of GABA and Glutamate shifts towards glutamate

===> more excitatory stimulation

293
Q

Define an epileptic seizure

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes of
behaviour, sensation or cognitive processes
are
caused by excessive, (too much voltage), hypersynchronous
neuronal discharges
in the brain.

(from lecture)

294
Q

What are the different types of epileptic seizures?

A

Generalised seizures (affect both hemispheres)
Focal (affect one hemisphere/lobe)

295
Q

What are the subtypes of generalised seizures?

A

Tonic Clonic
Absence
Tonic
Myoclonic
Atonic

296
Q

Subtypes of generalised seizure - define
Tonic
Clonic
Tonic - Clonic

A

Tonic seizure: the muscles become stiff and flexed, which can cause the patient to fall, usually backwards

Clonic seizures: violent muscle contractions (convulsions).

Tonic-clonic seizures: there is loss of consciousness andtonic(muscle tensing) andclonic(muscle jerking) episodes. Typically the tonic phase comes before the clonic phase. There may be associated tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing.

297
Q

Subtypes of generalised seizures - define
Myoclonic seizures
Absence seizures
Atonic seizures:

A

Myoclonic seizures: short muscle twitches. The patient usually remains awake during the episode.

Absence seizures:** impaired awareness or responsiveness, Patient becomes blank and stares into space before returning to normal. Motor abnormalities are either absent or very minor e.g. eyelid flutters or repetitive lip smacking

Atonic seizures:** aka drop attacks. The muscles suddenly relax and become floppy, which can cause the patient to fall, usually forward. These don’t usually last more than 3 minutes

**= common in children

298
Q

What are the subtypes of Focal Seizures? What parts of the brain do they involve

A

Simple focal - The Focal region of cortex + NO basal ganglia/thalamus involvement

Complex focal The focal region of cortex + Basal ganglia and thalamus are involved.

299
Q

What Happens in a Simple Focal Seizure?

A

No Loss of consciousness

The patient is awake and aware

Will have uncontrollable muscle jerking and may be unable to speak

300
Q

What is a Complex Focal Seizure?

A

There is loss of Consciousness

Patient is unaware

301
Q

Outline what a focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizure is. What is it also known as?

A

a focal seizure may spread to affect a wider network of neurons involving both hemispheres.

Traditionally termed a secondary generalised seizure.

302
Q

What are the features of a Temporal focal seizure? (the temporal lobe is the most common lobe for a focal seizure to occur in)

A

Temporal – memory, emotion and receptive speech
Aura – déjà vu, auditory hallucinations, funny smells, Doing strange things on autopilot

Out of body experience, automatisms e.g. lip smacking, chewing, fiddling

303
Q

What are the features of a Frontal lobe focal seizure?

A

motor and thought processing
Jacksonian march – seizure “marches” up or down the motor homunculus starting in face or thumb (primary motor cortex is in frontal lobe)
Post-ictal Todd’s palsy – paralysis of limbs involved in seizure for several hours

304
Q

What are the features of a parietal lobe focal seizure?

A

sensory disturbances
Tingling/numbness
Parasthesias

More subjective and difficult to diagnose than other areas

305
Q

What are the features of a Occipital focal seizure?

A

Visual hallucinations
Visual phenomena – spots, lines or flashes
Transient blindness
Rapid and forced blinking
Movement of head or eyes to the opposite side

306
Q

What are the components/phases of an epileptic seizure?

A
  • Prodromal phase:
    • Confusion, irritability or mood disturbances
  • Early-ictal phase:
    • Aura: warning felt before a seizure. These can include sensory, cognitive, emotional or behaviour changes.
  • Ictal phase:
    • Will vary depending on seizure type
  • Post-ictal phase:
    • Confused, drowsy and irritable during recovery
307
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of Epilepsy?

A

Must have had 2 or more seizures MORE THAN 24 hrs apart to be considered

308
Q

What are some investigations you would do in a patient with suspected epilepsy?

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)– detects electrical signals in the brain - would be abnormal in epilepsy. Gold standard

Need to rule out any other causes of the seizures!!:

CT head, or MRI- may see a structural lesion

U&Es, - particularly hyponatraemia/hypernatraemia, or uraemia
can cause seizures
FBC - elevated WBC can indicate a systemic or CNS infection, which can cause seizures
Blood glucose - again, extreme hypoglycaemia or hyperglycaemia can cause generalised tonic-clonic seizures

Toxicology screen - a variety of illicit substances may cause a provoked GTCS

309
Q

What is status Epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus (SE) is a single, continuous seizure lasting more than five minutesortwo or more seizures within a five-minute periodwithoutregaining consciousness in between.

It is amedical emergency.

310
Q

What is the management of status epilepticus?

A

ABCDE approach - secure airway and give oxygen.

IV bolus—to stop seizures: eg lorazepam 4mg (in hostpial)
Give 2nd dose of lorazepam if no response after 10–20min

Or Buccal Midazolam, or rectal diazepam (try cannulating a fitting person)

Then Phenytoin if second dose doesn’t work.

Get ITU/Anaesthetist help!!

311
Q

What are the different causes of seizures, other than epilepsy?

A

VITAMIN DE:
Vascular - haemorrhage/infarcts
Infection - Encephalitis
Trauma
Alcohol -(if patient has seizures due to alcohol/alcohol withdrawal, give pabrinex)
Metabolic - Hypocalcaemia, Hypo/hypernatraemia, hypoglycaemia
Idiopathic - Epilepsy
Neoplasms - causing a lesion in brain
Dementia + Drugs (cocaine)
Eclampsia + everything else

312
Q

Define non epileptic seizure

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive function caused by mental processes associated with psychosocial distress

313
Q

What are some features in a history that may point towards an epileptic seizure?

A

Tongue biting
Eyes open
Post ictal fatigue
Head turning
Muscle pain
Loss of consciousness >5min
Cyanosis
Incontinence
Postictal confusion

314
Q

What are some features in a history that may point towards a non epileptic seizure?

A
  • No seizures from sleep
    • No incontinence
    • No tongue biting
    • No cyanosis
    • Longer duraiton, 1-20 mins
    • Eyes open
    • pre-ictal anxiety symptoms, crying/weeping in ictal phase
      History of psychiatric illness
315
Q

Define syncope

A

Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive processes are caused by an insufficient blood or oxygen supply to the brain

316
Q

What are some features in a history that may point towards an episode of syncope?

A

Prolonged upright position
Eyes closed
Sweating prior to LOC
Nausea
Presyncopal symptoms
Pallor

317
Q

What are some risk factors for epilepsy?

A
  • Cerebrovascular disease
  • Head trauma
  • Family history: epilepsy orneurological illness
  • Dementia
    Drug use
  • Congenital malformations of the brain - eg cerebral palsy

STROKE CAN CAUSE EPILEPSY

318
Q

What is the Treatment for generalised epilepsy?

A

1st line: sodium valproate or lamotrigine.

319
Q

What is the Treatment for focal epilepsy?

A

Carbamazepine for focal seizures

320
Q

Treatment of epilepsy - how does Lamotrigine and Carbamazepine work

A

Lamotrigine and Carbamazepine both inhibit voltage gated pre synaptic Na+ channels - therefore reduces pre synaptic excitability

321
Q

Treatment of epilepsy - how does sodium valproate work?

A

inhibits an enzyme that leads to an increase in an inhibitor of GABA transaminase ==> Therefore GABA is broken down less

aka leads to an increase in GABA/inhibitory neurotransmission

322
Q

What is a contraindication for using Sodium Valporate?

What side effects can it cause?

A

All females of childbearing age (15-45)
Sodium Valporate is Teratogenic

Can also damage liver, and cause hepatitis and pancreatitis, can also lead to hair thinning and weight gain
Instead use Lamotrigine

323
Q

What are some side effects of lamotrigine/what is it associated with?

What are some side effects of Carbamazepine?

A

Lamotrigine is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome, Toxic
Epidermal Necrolysis or Hypersensitivity syndrome. its a dermatological medical emergency, type IV hypersensitivity reaction

High levels of carbamazepine are associated with Blurred vision, nystagmus, unsteadiness and incoordination

324
Q

What are the rules around driving with epilepsy?

(Adults with a one off seizure, known epileptics, those driving a HGV vehicle)

A

Adults who present with anisolatedseizure:
- Should stop driving for6 months, providingno cause is foundon brain imaging and there is no epileptiform activity on EEG

Known epileptics
Patients must be seizure-free for12 monthsbefore they may qualify for a driving license

If the patientdrives a heavy goods vehicle (HGV):
- They must be seizure-free for5 yearsbefore they can start driving

325
Q

Where does the spinal chord end? What is this known as?

A

ends at the level of the L1/L2 spinal vertebrae.
the terminal end of the spinal chord is known as conus medullaris.

326
Q

Define Hemiplegia?

A

Paralysis to one side of the body

(usually due to a brain lesion)

327
Q

Define Paraplegia?

A

Paralysis of both legs/lower body

(usually due to a spinal cord lesion)

328
Q

What does the DCML tract convey information for?

A

Ascending tract for fine touch, 2pt discrimination and proprioception.

329
Q

What is the pathway for the DCML

A

Travels in dorsal route
(Fasciculus Gracilis/Cuneatus)

Decussates in the medulla

330
Q

What is the pathway for the spinothalamic tract?

A

Ascending:
Enters at spinal level of nerve
ascends 1-2 spinal levels and then decussates

331
Q

What information does the corticospinal tract convey?

A

Upper motor neurons for movement.
Decussates at the medulla

332
Q

Normal physiology - What is an upper motor neurone? Where can they be found? In clinical practise, where do they originate and where do thy terminate?

A

a neurone whose cell body originates in the cerebral cortex or brainstem and terminates within the brainstem or spinal cord.

basically used to describe descending motor neurons in corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts.

Both arise form pre-central gyrus,
Corticospinal terminate in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
Corticobulbar terminate in and motor nuclei of cranial nerves

333
Q

Normal physiology - What is an lower motor neurone? where do they originate and where do thy terminate?

A

multipolar neuron which connects the upper motor neurone (UMN) to the skeletal muscle it innervates.

The cell body of a LMN lies within the ventral horn of the spinal cord or the brainstem motor nuclei of the cranial nerves.

The axon of a LMN exits the CNS terminates on the muscle fibres which it innervates. The combination of the LMN and these fibres is known as a motor unit.

Also known as a motor neuron

334
Q

What is Spinal Cord Compression?

A

Compression of the spinal cord resulting in upper neurone signs and specific symptoms dependent on where compression is

This is a medical emergency as it can lead to paralysis.

335
Q

What are some causes of spinal chord compression

A

Vertebral body neoplasms (most common cause)

  • Spinal pathology
    • Disc herniation
      • When centre of disc (nucleus pulposus) has moved out through the annulus (outer part of disc) resulting in pressure on nerve root and pain
  • Disc prolapse
    • When nucleus pulposus moves and presses against the annulus - can cause a bulge in the disc
  • Primary spinal cord tumour e.g. glioma, neurofibroma
  • Infection e.g. epidural abscess
  • Haematoma
336
Q

Spinal chord compression causes - what metastasises from where most commonly cause spinal chord compression?

A

lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, kidney, myeloma, lymphoma

337
Q

What are the symptoms of spinal cord compression?

A
  • Sensory loss 1-2 cord segments below level of lesion
  • UMN signs below the level of lesion – everything goes up
    Progressive weakness of legs (typically symmetrical) with UMN signs e.g. contralateral spasticity and hyperreflexia
  • LMN signs at level of lesion

Bladder sphincter involvement – hesitancy, frequency, painless retention

338
Q

What are some Upper motor neurone signs?

A

Hypertonia - an abnormally high level of muscle tone or tension
Hyperreflexia - overactive or overresponsive bodily reflexes, twitching
Spasticity
Positive Babinski sign - extension of large toe when plantar surface of foot is stroked

339
Q

What are some lower motor neurone signs?

A

Hyporeflexia/ areflexia - decreased or absent reflexes
Hypotonia/ atonia - loss of muscle tone
Flaccid muscle weakness or paralysis
Fasciculations – small involuntary muscle twitches,
Muscle atrophy

340
Q

What would be the features of a complete spinal cord compression?

A

All motor and sensory function lost below the SCI level

341
Q

What is the concern if there is sphincter involvement in spinal cord compression

A

This is a late and bad sign signalling a poorer prognosis

342
Q

What investigation would you do in suspected spinal chord compression?

A

Do not delay investigations

  • MRI: gold standard; identifies cause and site of compression
  • Biopsy/surgical exploration may be required to identify the nature of any mass
  • Screening blood tests: FBC, ESR, B12, U&E’s, syphilis serology, LFT, PSA
  • Chest x-ray: to check for TB or lung malignancy
343
Q

What is the treatment for spinal cord compression?

A

Neurosurgery to decompress cord

Dexamethasone to reduce inflammation

344
Q

What nerve roots make up the sciatic nerve?

A

Both anterior and posterior divisions of nerve root
L4,L5,S1 and S2

345
Q

What two nerves makes up the sciatic nerve? What are these nerves made from?

A

The anterior division of L4,L5,S1 and S2 make up the Tibial nerve
The posterior division of L4,L5,S1 and S2 make up the common fibular nerve

Together these join to make the sciatic nerve.

346
Q

What muscle does the sciatic nerve pass under as it leaves the hip?
Where does it split into tibial and common peroneal/tibial nerve?

A

It passes closely behind the Piriformis muscle , and becomes the tibial and common fibular/peroneal nerve at the popliteal fossa/lower thigh

347
Q

What is Sciatica?

A

Sciatica refers to the symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve.

348
Q

What are some causes of sciatica? (spinal and non spinal)

A

Spinal
Intervertebral disc herniation
Disc prolapses
Spinal stenosis - due to degenerative bone disease, or RA
Spondylolisthesis – vertebra becomes displaces and slips on top of one below

Non-spinal
Piriformis syndrome (spasming of piriformis)
Pregnancy
Trauma

349
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of sciatica?

A

Symptoms
Pain in buttock, back of thigh, leg, lateral aspect of little toe (sciatic nerve distribution)

Signs
Unilateral
Weak plantar flexion
Absent right ankle jerk
Decreased sensation over lateral edge and sole of right foot

350
Q

What is Bilateral sciatica a red flag for?

A

Cauda Equina syndrome

351
Q

What are the diagnostic investigations for sciatica?

A

Clinical Dx generally:
Can’t Do straight leg raise test without pain

May have:
XR
CT
MRI - if cauda equina suspected

352
Q

What is the main treatment for sciatica?

A

Physiotherapy + Painkillers
A SNRI, eg Duloxetine
surgery – an operation called decompression surgery can sometimes help relieve sciatica

353
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L2

354
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

It’s a nerve bundle formed by the lumbar, sacral and coccygeal nerves, as they travel down the spinal canal together to reach their corresponding openings.
Distal to level of termination of spinal cord at L1/L2.

Cauda equina syndrome caused by damage to the peripheral nerves at the cauda equina

355
Q

What functions do nerves in teh cauda equina have?

A

nerves in the cauda equina carry motor innervation for the genitals, both internal and external anal sphincter, detrusor vesicae, and muscles of the leg. They are also responsible for skin sensations in these regions.

356
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome?

A

Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a neurosurgical emergency which occurs when the bundle of nerves below the end of the spinal cord are compressed.

357
Q

Name some causes of cauda equina syndrome

A

Herniation of lumbar disc – most commonly at L4/L5 and L5/S1
Spondylolisthesis – most commonly anterolisthesis (vertebra moves forward)
Trauma – car crash, gun shot, bleeding via haematomas
Tumours
Infection
Post-op haematoma

358
Q

Causes of cauda equina syndrome - what is spondylolisthesis? What pathophysiological effects will be seen as a result of spondylolisthesis?

A

Spondylolisthesis is where one of the bones in your spine, called a vertebra, slips forward

most commonly anterolisthesis (vertebra moves forward)
Slippage of one vertebra over the one below
Nerve root comes out ABOVE the disc therefore root affected will be the one BELOW the disc herniation
E.g. L4/L5 herniation 🡪 L5 nerve root compression

359
Q

What are some symptoms/signs of cauda equina syndrome

A

Saddle anaesthesia
Less bladder and bowel control – increased tone of anal sphincter and muscle wall of bladder
Erectile dysfunction (or other sexual dysfunction)
Lumbosacral pain
Leg weakness – flaccid and areflexic
Paraplegia

Signs
Areflexia
Fasciculations
Loss of bowel/bladder control
Urinary retention

WILL SEE LOWER MOTOR NEURON SIGNS ONLY*

360
Q

What are some investigations for cauda equina syndrome?

A

MRI spinal cord (diagnostic)
PR exam - feel for any abnormalities, and check anal tone

Testing nerve roots/reflexes
Knee flexion – test L5-S1
Ankle plantar flexion – test S1-S2
Straight leg raising – L5, S1
Femoral stretch test – L4

361
Q

What is the management for cauda equina syndrome?

A

Management
Refer to neurosurgeon ASAP to relive pressure
Surgical decompression
High dose dexamethasone
Corticosteroids

362
Q

What is the difference between cauda equina syndrome and spinal chord compression?

A

Spinal cord compression is more likely to be thoracic with neurology in the upper limbs with bladder & bowel changes being a very late sign.

Whereas in cauda equina, the lower limbs are classically affected with earlier bladder & bowel dysfunction and saddle anaesthesia.

363
Q

What is the causes of Cranial nerve lesions?

A

Tumour
MS
Trauma
Aneurysm
Vertebral artery dissection 🡪 infarction
Infection – cerebellar abscess from ear

364
Q

For each cranial nerves 1-4, outline
function, what it innervates, and whether it’s sensory or motor

A

CN 1 Sensory Innervates OLFACTORY EPITHILIUM, –
Function = OLFACTION

CN 2 Sensory Innervates RETINA, -NUCLIE LOCATED IN THE LATERAL GENICULATE BODY OF THE THALAMUS
Function = Vision, Pupillary light reflex

CN 3 Motor Innervates RECTUS MUSLCES (not lateral rectus), INFERIOR OBLIQUE, LEVATOR PALPEBRAE Muscles of the EYE,
Function = Movement of the EYEBALL, parasympathetic constriction and accommodation

CN 4 Motor Innervates SUPERIOR OBLIQUE MUSCLES of the EYE,
Function = the trochlear nerve controls the abduction and intorsion of the eye

365
Q

For each division of CN 5, outline function, what it innervates and whether its sensory or motor

A

V1 Ophthalmic, Sensory to forehead, middle nose, frontal and ethmoidal sinuses, and sensory to the cornea - hence responsible for the corneal reflex

V2 Maxillary, Sensory to Lower eyelid, Gums/teeth of upper jaw, Bony part of cheek

V3, Mandibular, Both
Sensory innervation to Mucosa of oral cavity/palate, General sensation to Ant. 2/3 of tongue, Soft part of cheek/mandible
Motor innervation to Muscles of mastication, Tensor Tympani

366
Q

For CN 6 and 7, outline its function, what it innervates, and whether it is sensory, motor or both

A

CN6 Motor Innervates the LATERAL RECTUS EYE MUSCLE,
Function = eye movement, abduction

CN7 Both Innervates SPECAIL TASTE SENSATION TO ANTERIOR 2/3 OF TONGUE (TASTE!) and MOTOR OF FACIAL EXPRESSION MUSLES - Parasympathetic innervation to Submandibular and Sublingual and Lacrimal (tear) glands
Also innervation of STAPEDIUS

367
Q

For CN 8, 9, outline its function, what it innervates, and whether it is sensory, motor or both

A

VIII, Vestibulocochlear, Sensory
Innervates Vestibular and cochlear, for hearing and balance

IX, Glossopharyngeal, Both
Parasympathetic Secretion from parotid gland
Taste to post. 1/3 of tongue, sensation from pharynx, salivation, parasympathetic from carotid vessels AND motor to stylopharyngeus muscle

368
Q

For CN 10, 11,12, outline its function, what it innervates, and whether it is sensory, motor or both

A

Vagus, Both,
Parasympathetic to thoracic and abdominal muscle, sensory to larynx mucosa and epiglottis AND motor to pharynx, larynx, soft palate and upper 2/3 of oesophagus

Accessory, Motor, innervates Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

Hypoglossal, Motor, Tongue movement

369
Q

Outline how you can get a homonymous quadrantanopia

A
  • superior: lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop)
  • inferior: lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe
  • mnemonic = PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior

so field defect is caused by lesion in opposite optic radiations - (aka Inferior homonymous quadrantanopia’s are caused by lesions of the superior optic radiations

370
Q

Outline how you can get a Homonymous hemianopia

A

Homonymous hemianopia
lesion of optic tract (4)
Lesions of both optic radiations (7)
macula sparing: Homonymous hemianopia lesion of occipital cortex (8)

371
Q

What are the Symptoms of a CN2 Palsy?

A

Loss of vision in the eye of optic nerve lesion

372
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN3 palsy? Why do these occur

A

Ptosis
Down and out eye
Fixed and dilated pupil

Unopposed action of the Trochlear (CN4) and Abducens (CN6) cranial nerves, and Loss of parasympathetic outflow from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus supplying the pupillary sphincter and ciliary bodies.

373
Q

What are the causes of a CN3 palsy?

A

Raised ICP
Diabetes
Hypertension
Giant cell arteritis

374
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN4 palsy?

A

Diplopia (double vision) when looking down
“walking down stairs”

375
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN5 palsy?

A

Loss of function of muscles of mastication - Jaw deviates to side of lesion
Loss of corneal reflex
Reduced sensation or dysasthesia over the affected area

376
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN6 palsy?

What are some causes of CN6 Palsy?

A

Adducted eye

Raised ICP
MS
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Pontine Stroke

377
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN6 palsy?

What are some causes of CN6 Palsy?

A

Adducted eye

Raised ICP
MS
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Pontine Stroke

378
Q

What are the signs of a CN7 palsy?

A

unilateral facial weakness (motor component), altered taste (sensory component), and a dry mouth (parasympathetic component).

Can be caused by Bells Palsy

379
Q

What is Bells Palsy?

A

Neurological condition that presents with a rapid onset of unilateral facial paralysis -

Normally post viral infection

380
Q

How can you tell if a bells palsy is an UMN or LMN lesion?

A

UMN injured, lower half on contralateral side is weak but forehead is not as it has contralateral and ipsilateral innervation (bilateral)

LMN - weakness of all the muscles on the ipsilateral side of the face

381
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN8 palsy?

A

Hearing impairment
Vertigo
Loss of balance

382
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN9 and CN10 palsy?

A

Gag reflex issues
Swallowing issues
Vocal issues - hoarse voce

383
Q

What are the causes of a CN9/CN10 palsy?

A

Jugular foramen lesion

384
Q

What are the symptoms of a CN11 palsy and CN12 palsy?

A

11 - Can’t shrug shoulders/turn head against resistance

12 - Tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion

385
Q

What is Motor Neuron Disease (MND)

A

Progressive neurodegenerative disease where both upper and lower motor neurons stop functioning but there is no effect on the sensory neurons.

386
Q

What are some risk factors for getting MND

A

Male
Family history of it
Increasing age
Genetic mutations - SOD1

387
Q

What are the different types of MND?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) - most common, 50% of cases

Progressive Muscular Atrophy (PMA)

Primary Lateral Sclerosis (PLS)

Progressive Bulbar Palsy (PBP)

388
Q

What are the signs of progressive muscular atrophy?

A

Anterior horn cell lesion, so LMN signs only. Affects distal muscle groups before proximal. Better prognosis than ALS

389
Q

What are the signs of Progressive bulbar palsy? What is affected?

A

UMN + LMN + Cranial Nerve IX, X, XI, XII signs
Lower cranial nerve nuclei affected causing dysarthria, dysphagia, nasal regurgitation of fluids, choking

  • Worst prognosis
390
Q

What are the signs of primary lateral sclerosis? What is affected?

A

UMN signs only. - Rare. Loss of Betz cells in motor cortex - marked spastic leg weakness and pseudobulbar palsy. No cognitive decline

391
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

A

Loss of motor neurons in motor cortex and the anterior horn of the cord, so combined UMN + LMN

392
Q

What is the general pathology of MND?

A

Degenerative condition affecting motor neurons – mainly the anterior horn cells

There is relentless and UNEXPLAINED destruction of UMN and anterior horn cells in the brain and spinal cord

Causes both UMN and LMN dysfunction

UMN and LMN affected but no sensory or sphincter loss – distinguishes from MS

Never affects eye movements – distinguishable from myasthenia gravis

393
Q

What are the signs of an Upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion, as seen in Motor Neurone disease

A

UMN – everything goes UP
Hypertonia
Rigidity + spasticity
Hyperreflexia
Extensor plantar responses (positive Babinski sign) stroke sole of foot, big toe goes up

Power:
Arms - Flexors > Extensors
Legs - Flexors < Extensors

If you see a patient with mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs, think Motor neurone disease!!

394
Q

What are the signs of an lower motor neurone LMN lesion, as seen in Motor Neurone disease

A

Hypotonia
Flaccidity + muscle wasting
Hyporeflexia
Fasciculations
Babinski Reflex Negative - big toe goes down when stroking foot

Generally loss of power

If you see a patient with mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs, think Motor neurone disease!!

395
Q

What are some general symptoms seen in motor neurone disease?

A
  • Fasciculations (twitches in the muscles) especially on the tongue
  • Dysarthria and dysphagia: particularly in progressive bulbar palsy
  • Progressive weakness often first noticed in the upper limbs
  • Clumsiness
  • Fatigue
  • Falls
  • Speech and swallow issues: particularly in progressive bulbar palsy

If you see a patient with mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs, think Motor neurone disease!!

396
Q

Where is an UMN lesion?

A

Anywhere on a motor nerve between the pre-central gyrus to the anterior spinal cord

397
Q

Where is a LMN lesion?

A

Anywhere on a motor nerve between the anterior spinal cord and the innervated muscle

398
Q

What is NEVER affected in MND?

A

Eye muscles:
Affected in Multiple sclerosis and Myasthenia Gravis

Sensory Function and Sphincters:
Affected in MS and Polyneuropathies

399
Q

How can you diagnose motor neurone disease?

A
  • Definite: LMN + UMN signs in 3 regions
  • Probable: LMN + UMN signs in 2 regions
  • Probable with lab support: LMN + UMN signs in 1 region, or UMN sign in more than 1 region + electromyography (EMG) shows acute denervation in more than 2 limbs
400
Q

What investigations can you do to help diagnose Motor neurone disease?

A
  • Electromyography:in MND there will be evidence of fibrillation potentials - due to denervation of muscles due to LMN dysfunction - ( EMG is a technique for evaluating and recording the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles.)
  • Nerve conduction studies:may show modest reductions in amplitude
  • MRI spine:imaging can help exclude spinal pathology which may mimic MND, such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy
  • Lumbar puncture: to exclude inflammatory causes
  • Pulmonary function tests:patients with MND are at risk of respiratory failure

Blood tests e.g. raised Creatinine Kinase (due to muscle destruction),

401
Q

What are some differentials for MND?

A
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Polyneuropathies
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Diabetic amyotrophy
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
  • Spinal cord tumours
402
Q

What is some of the pharmological management used in MND?

A

Riluzole, anti-glutaminergic:an inhibitor of glutamate release and NMDA receptor antagonist = is thought to protect motor neurons from glutamate-induced damage, (only drug that can increase survival, 2-4 months)

Antispasmodics: such as baclofen

Respiratory support:patients with reduced FVC can use non-invasive ventilation at home, usually BiPAP; prolongs survival by 7 months

403
Q

What is some of the non pharmological management of MND?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Feeding support: many patients require nutritional support, often with PEG tube
  • Speech and language therapy
  • Physiotherapy
  • Advanced directivesto document the patients wishes as the disease progresses
  • End of life careplanning
404
Q

What are some complications of MND? What is the average prognosis?

A
  • Aspiration pneumonia andbronchopneumonia
  • Respiratory failure: often occurs in advanced disease when respiratory muscles have been affected

Most patients die within 3 years from the onset of their symptoms.

405
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

(Latin for “Grave Muscle Weakness”), its a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction/autoimmune disease against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AChR) in the NMJ

406
Q

What is the epidemiology of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

More common in females than males – although >50 more common in males
Peak incidence is 30 for females (Autoimmune related)
Peak incidence is 60 for males (Thymoma related)

407
Q

Normal physiology - outline what happens at a neuromuscular junction with between an α-motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fibre.

A

Action potential arrives at NMJ, causing opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
increase in intracellular Ca2+ causes vesicles containing acetylcholine (ACh) to release their contents into the synaptic cleft.

ACh activates nicotinic ACh receptors in the muscle fibres’ plasma membrane, resulting in an influx of sodium ions and depolarisation of the muscle fibre membrane potential.

Leads to generation of action potential in skeletal muscle fibre

408
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind Myasthenia Gravis

A

type II hypersensitivity reaction
B cells produce anti-AChR autoantibodies which interfere with the NMJ by binding to nicotinic AChR on muscle cells
When AChR are bound by the autoantibodies, they can’t be bound by ACh and don’t respond to “contract” signal from CNS

Results in muscle weakness

409
Q

What autoantibodies are seen in Myasthenia Gravis?

What paraneoplastic syndrome is a risk factor with MG?

A
  • anti-AChR autoantibodies (85%)
  • Some people produce Muscle specific receptor tyrosine kinase (MuSK) antibodies which target proteins in muscle cells - (15%)
  • Thymoma or thymic hyperplasia: 10-15% of patients have a thymoma, whilst up to 70% have thymic hyperplasia - thought that perhaps T cells made in thymus can lead to B cells creating autoantibodies
410
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of MG?

A

Worse later in the day/on exertion

Lethargy
Muscle weakness that starts at head/neck and moves downwards
Weak eye muscles - diplopia, ptosis
Ptosis

Jaw fatigability - slurred speech/ chewing difficulties
- Dysphagia: difficulty swallowing

411
Q

What are some differential diagnosis for MG?

A

Thyroid ophthalmology
MS
Myotonic dystrophy
Brainstem cranial nerve lesions
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

412
Q

What are some investigations for MG?

A

Serology - Ab testing:
serum acetylcholine receptor (AChR) antibody analysis (85%)
muscle-specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK) antibodies (15%)

Bedside tests - Count to 50 and as they reach higher numbers their voice becomes less audible
arm outstretched and ask patient to keep looking at it without lifting head up – after a few seconds they will unable to keep their eyes raises

Nerve Stimulation Tests - decrement in evoked potential after motor nerve stimulation
Serial measurements of forced vital capacity (FVC) - looking for pulmonary function, can be reduced in Myasthenic crisis
CT Thorax/MRI - look for Thymoma

413
Q

What is the management of Myastenia gravis?

A
  • First-line: pyridostigmine; an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
  • Second-line: prednisolone(to dampen down immune system)

Other: if symptoms remain uncontrolled, consider alternatives such as methotrexate orrituximab

Thymectomy:indicated if a thymoma is present on imaging,orin patients aged < 45 years old with positive serology;

414
Q

What are some complications of MG?

A
  • Myasthenic crisis:
  • Respiratory failure
  • Aspiration pneumonia: dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration
415
Q

What is a Myasthenic crisis: ? What is the management

A

weakening of the respiratory muscles and is often provoked by infections or medications. Patients present with increasing shortness of breath, which can deteriorate into respiratory failure

Monitor forced vital capacity. Ventilatory support (ie BiPAP) may be needed. Treat with plasmapheresis (removes AChR antibodies from the circulation) or IV immunoglobulin and identify
and treat the trigger for the relapse (eg infection, medications).

416
Q

What is Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

A NMJ syndrome which has similar Symptom to MG.

Autoimmunity against the voltage gated calcium channels

= less ACh release at the NMJ causing muscle weakness.

417
Q

What is the aetiology of Lambert eaton syndrome?

A
  • Can be paraneoplastic: associated with malignancies, especially small cell lung cancer
  • OR autoimmune - Can be associated with other autoimmune diseases e.g. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or diabetes mellitus type 1
418
Q

What is the presentation of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Proximal muscle weakness that develops more slowly

Symptoms start at extremities and progress towards the head - opposite to MG

Causes defective ACh release at the NMJ resulting in proximal limb weakness with absent reflexes

419
Q

What is the difference between MG and Lambert Eaton Syndrome clinically?

A

Weakness tends to improve after exercise – unlike in MG

420
Q

What is the management for Lambert Eaton syndrome?

A

Similar to MG

  • Manage underlying malignancy
  • Pyridostigmine allows more acetylcholine to be released in the neuromuscular junction synapses
  • Immunosuppressants (e.g. prednisolone or azathioprine)
  • IV immunoglobulins: bind and neutralise the autoantibodies.
  • Plasmapheresis: to remove damaging antibodies

Do regular CXR/high-resolution CT as symptoms may precede the cancer by >4yrs.

421
Q

What is syncope?

A

A term used to describe the event of temporarily losing consciousness due to disruption in blood flow.

Known as vasovagal episodes

Presyncope: near loss of consciousness with lightheadedness, muscular weakness, blurred vision, and feeling faint without actually fainting.

422
Q

What are some primary causes of syncope?

A

Primary syncope (simple fainting):

  • Dehydration
  • Missed meals
  • Extended standing in a warm environment, such as a school assembly
  • A vasovagal response to a stimuli, such as sudden surprise, pain or the sight of blood
423
Q

What are some secondary causes of syncope?

A
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Anaemia
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Arrhythmias
  • Hypovolaemia, due to a bleed
  • Pulmonary embolism, causing hypoxia
424
Q

What medications can cause syncope?

A
  • Certain medications that
    • Block vasoconstriction e.g. calcium channel blockers, beta blockers, alpha blockers, and nitrates
    • Affect the volume status e.g. diuretics
    • That prolong the QT interval e.g. antipsychotics and antiemetics
  • Elderly
  • Pregnant women
    Are also more prone to syncope
425
Q

Pathophysiology of syncope - outline what happens in a vasovagal episode

A

Probem with autonomic NS regulating blood flow to brain

Vagus nerve receives strong stimulus, eg emotional event, pain or temperature change = stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system.

Parasympathetic system counteracts sympathetic NS, ==> causes blood vessels delivering blood to the brain vasodilate the blood pressure in the cerebral circulation drops, leading to hypoperfusion of brain tissue.

Leads to pt loose consciousness and faint

426
Q

Pathophysiology of syncope - outline what happens in carotid sinus hypersensitivity and how it causes fainting, and what can cause this?

A
  • variant of neurocardiogenic syncope.

This occurs when mild external pressure on the carotid bodies in the neck is enough to induce Parasympathetic response (seen in vasovagal)
Mild pressure could be due to shaving, neck turning, tight collar etc

427
Q

Pathophysiology of syncope - how can orthostatic hypotension lead to syncope? What is it defined by?

A

Syncope due to postural change (standing from sitting)

It occurs when there’s a delay in constriction of the lower body veins, which is needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure when changing position to standing.

As a result, blood pools in the veins of the legs for longer and less is returned to the heart, leading to a reduced cardiac output.

defined by either a drop in blood pressure of more than 20 mmHg or a reflex tachycardia of more than 20 beats per minute,

428
Q

What are the classical characteristics of syncope?

A

Situational
Typically, from sitting or standing
Rarely from sleep

Presyncopal symptoms
Occipital – see stars, dizzy and light headed, vision goes black
Temporal – noises may sound distorted
Back of brain most sensitive to oxygen

Duration – 5-30 seconds
Recovery within 30 seconds
Cardiogenic syncope – less warning, history of heart disease

429
Q

What are the primary investigations for syncope?

A

Clinical Hx and examination

Ix to rule out pathological causes:
Bloods - infection
FBC - anaemia
ECG- arrythmia
Glucose - Hypoglycaemia
B-hCG - ectopic pregnancy

430
Q

What is the management of Syncope

A

Confirm Dx to exclude underlying pathology

Avoid Dehydration
Avoid missing meals
Avoid standing still

431
Q

Recap - What are the different functions of the different nerve fibre types?

A

A-alpha – proprioception
A-beta – light touch, pressure, vibration
A – delta – dull pain and cold
C – fibres – sharp pain and warmth

432
Q

What is Peripheral Neuropathy?
What are the types of peripheral nerve disease?

A

Nerve pathology outside of the CNS that affects the peripheral nerves

Mononeuropathy: a process affecting a single nerve
Polyneuropathy: many nerves involved. Usually describes a symmetrical disease, and it usually begins distally. Can be sensory, motor or mixed.

433
Q

What are some causes of peripheral nerve disease?

A

DAVIDE:
Diabetes
Alcohol
Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Infective - Guillain Barre/Charcot Marie Tooth
Drugs - isoniazid
Every vasculitis

434
Q

Mechanisms of peripheral neuropathy: Outline what happens and examples of the disease that can cause:
Demyelination, Axonal Damage, Compression

A

Demyelination (Schwann cell damage, seen in MS/GBS)
Axonal Damage - Nerve cut (eg seen in toxic neuropathies)
Nerve Compression (Focal demyelination at point of compression, disurpts conduction, eg Carpal syndome)

435
Q

Mechanisms of peripheral neuropathy: Outline what happens and examples of the disease that can cause:
Infarction, Wallerain Dengeneration

A

Vasa Nervorum Infarction (eg diabetes and arteritis)
Wallerian Degeneration (Nerve cut/lesion, which causes distal end of nerve to die)

436
Q

Give some examples of Mononeuropathies. What is the most common?

A
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • ‘Wrist drop’
  • ‘Claw hand’
  • ‘Foot drop’

Carpal tunnel syndrome is most common

437
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a collection of symptoms and signs caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

438
Q

What are the causes/risk factors of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Mostly Idiopathic

Also: (HODPARAR)
Hypothyroidism
Obesity
Diabetes
Pregnancy - can resolve postpartum
Acromegaly
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Amyloidosis
Repetitive Strain Injury

Females due to narrower wrists so more likely to have compression
Over 30s

exam tip - if you see a patient with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, look for features that might suggest underlying rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, acromegaly or hypothyroidism.

439
Q

What are the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome? Think, what sensory areas does the median nerve supply?

A

Numbness
Paraesthesia (pins and needles or tingling)
Burning sensation
Pain

Palmer aspects and full fingertips of:
Thumb
Index and middle finger
The lateral half of ring finger

440
Q

hat are the motor symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Numbness
Paraesthesia (pins and needles or tingling)
Burning sensation
Pain

Palmer aspects and full fingertips of:
Thumb
Index and middle finger
The lateral half of ring finger

Weakness of thumb movements
Weakness of grip strength
Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb
Wasting of the thenar muscles (muscle atrophy)

Thenar Muscles
Flexor Pollicis Brevis
Abductor Pollicis
Opponens Pollicis

441
Q

What are the tests to diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome? What other investigation can be done?

A

Phalen Test
Tinel Test

Nerve conduction studies:
small electrical current is applied by an electrode (nerve stimulator) to the median nerve on one side of the carpal tunnel -
Recording electrodes over the median nerve on the other side of the carpal tunnel record the electrical current that reaches them

442
Q

Tests for carpal tunnel syndrome - what is Phalen Test?

A

Phalen’s test - flex the wrists are far as possible and hold that position for a minute, this results in numbness in the areas of the hand innervated by the median nerve in people with carpal tunnel syndrome

443
Q

Tests for carpal tunnel syndrome - what is Tinel’s Sign?

A

tap the transverse carpal ligament, this reproduces the symptoms of tingling or feelings of pins and needles in areas of the hand served by the median nerve

TOM TIP: I think of tapping a tin can (Tinel’s) to remember the difference between Phalen’s and Tinel’s test.

444
Q

What are the management of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Management options for carpal tunnel syndrome are:

Rest and altered activities
Wrist splints that maintain a neutral position of the wrist can be worn at night (for a minimum of 4 weeks)
Steroid injections
Surgery

445
Q

What are the nerve roots for the Median Nerve?

A

C6-T1

446
Q

What is the nerve roots of the radial nerve?

A

C5-T1

447
Q

What is the classical presentation of a radial nerve palsy?

A

Wrist drop
(with elbow flexed and arm pronated?

448
Q

What muscles are innverated by the radial nerve?

A

BEST:
Brachioradialis
Extensors of forearm
Supinator
Triceps

449
Q

What can cause wrist drop?

A

Damage to the radial nerve
Compression of the radial nerve at the humerus

450
Q

What is the nerve roots of the Ulnar Nerve?

A

C8-T1

451
Q

What is the classical presentation of an ulnar nerve palsy?

A

Claw hand (4th/5th fingers claw up)

452
Q

What is the treatment of Wrist drop and Claw hand?

A

Splint
Analgesia

453
Q

Damage to what causes foot drop?

A

Common peroneal nerve palsy

454
Q

What are the nerve roots for the common peroneal nerve?

A

L4-S1
(Branch off the Sciatic nerve)

455
Q

What is Mononeuritis Multiplex?

A

A type of peripheral neuropathy where there is damage to several individual nerves due to systemic causes.

456
Q

What are the causes of Mononeuritis Multiplex?

A

WARDS PLC:
- Wegener’s granulomatosis
- Aids/Amyloid
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Diabetes mellitus
- Sarcoidosis
- Polyarteritis nodosa
- Leprosy
- Carcinoma

457
Q

What is Brown Sequard Syndrome?

A

Hemi-section of the spinal cord and therefore loss of sensations of pain temperature and touch and motor movement

458
Q

What are the causes of Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

A

Space occupying lesions
Intervertebral disc prolapses
Vertebral bone fractures
Trauma – gunshot wounds, knife wounds
Infectious – HIV
MS

459
Q

What would be the clinical features of brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

(Ipsilateral Corticospinal) Ipsilateral (Same side) weakness and loss of motor function below the lesion.
(Ipsilateral DCML) Ipsilateral (Same side) loss of proprioception, 2-point discrimination and fine touch.
(Contralateral Spinothalamic) (opposite side) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation 1-2 spinal segments below the lesion.

460
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?

A

Inherited sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy disease caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in PUP22 gene on chromosome17

461
Q

What are the genetics of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?

A

Mutation in PUP22 gene
Chromosome 17

+ multiple others

462
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?

A

Generally mutations cause dysfunction of the myelin or axons leading to neuropathy

Different mutations in different genes have different pathophysiology’s.

463
Q

What are the classical features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?

A

High foot arches (pes cavus)
Distal muscle wasting causing “inverted champagne bottle legs”
Weakness in the lower legs, particularly loss of ankle dorsiflexion
Weakness in the hands
Reduced tendon reflexes
Reduced muscle tone
Peripheral sensory loss

464
Q

Name some common causes of peripheral neuropathy

A

A – Alcohol
B – B12 deficiency
C – Cancer and Chronic Kidney Disease
D – Diabetes and Drugs (e.g. isoniazid, amiodarone and cisplatin)
E – Every vasculitis

465
Q

What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)? Who presents with it?

A

X-Linked recessive condition caused by a mutation in the Dystrophin Gene

Boys Exclusively:
Age of onset is around 3-5 years old

466
Q

Explain the genetics of DMD?

A

X linked Recessive condition.

Therefore mother with 1 faulty gene:
Daughters - 50% chance of being carrier
Sons - 50% chance of being affected

467
Q

What is the pathophysiology of DMD?

A

Lack of Dystrophin gene (vital part of muscle fibre) means that the muscles are not protected from being broken down by enzymes

Therefore in DMD you get progressive wasting and weakness of muscle as they are broken down.

The muscle tissue is then replaced by fibrofatty tissue

Most Px in wheelchair by teenage years

468
Q

What cardiovascular condition is associated with DMD?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy
Dystrophin gene in heart muscle not present which is normally involved in membrane stability.

Therefore in DMD there is damage to the cellular mechanisms causing dilation of
ventricles due to wasting of the cardiac muscle causing cardiomyopathy

469
Q

What are the symptoms of DMD?

A

Child struggles to get up from lying down
(GOWER’S sign)

Skeletal deformities - scoliosis

470
Q

What is Gower’s Sign?

A

an inability to lift the trunk without using the hands and arms to brace and push –

From the lying position, the patient rolls to the kneeling position, pushes on the ground with extended forearms to lift the hips and straighten the legs, so forming a triangle with hips at the apex and hands and feet on the floor forming the base.

The hands are then used to push on the knees and so lift up the trunk (climbing upon yourself).

471
Q

Depression Medications: How do SSRIs work?

A

Blocks the reuptake of serotonin back into the cells, so more stays outside, to try and lift the mood. Dose can be increased if necesscary

472
Q

Depression Medications: How do TCAs work?

A

Tricyclicv Antidepressanets, eg anatripoline, not used often now:

block the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in presynaptic terminals, which leads to increased concentration of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. The increased concentrations of norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse likely contribute to its anti-depressive effect

473
Q

Depression Medications: How do SNRIs work?

A

Selective Norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, newer eg vendofaxcine,

SNRIs block the reabsorption (or reuptake) of serotonin and norepinephrine back into the nerve cells that released them.

Both of these neurotransmitters are associated with distinct brain structures and functions and impact various processes such as mood and energy in somewhat different ways.

474
Q

Give some psychological symptoms of depression

A

Continuous low mood or sadness
feeling hopeless and helpless
having low self-esteem
feeling tearful
feeling guilt-ridden
feeling irritable and intolerant of others
having no motivation or interest in things
finding it difficult to make decisions
not getting any enjoyment out of life
feeling anxious or worried
having suicidal thoughts or thoughts of harming yourself

475
Q

Give some physical symptoms of depression

A

moving or speaking more slowly than usual
changes in appetite or weight (usually decreased, but sometimes increased)
constipation
unexplained aches and pains
lack of energy
low sex drive (loss of libido)
changes to your menstrual cycle
disturbed sleep – for example, finding it difficult to fall asleep at night or waking up very early in the morning

476
Q

Give 2 social symptoms of depression

A

avoiding contact with friends and taking part in fewer social activities
neglecting your hobbies and intere

477
Q

What can St Johns Wort be used for? What is it also known as?

A

St John’s wort is a herbal medicine used to treat mental health problems. The botanical name for St John’s wort is Hypericum perforatum, and it is sometimes marketed and sold as ‘Hypericum’. It contains many active substances, including hypericin and hyperforin, which are thought to affect mood.

Today St John’s wort is mainly used as an over-the-counter remedy to treat mild or moderate depression.

478
Q

What is the only cellular output later in the cerebellum? Degradation of it will lead to what?

A

The Purkinje cell layer - degradation of it will lead to ataxia

479
Q

What do you do as a GP if a patient presents to you w/ non blanching rash and you suspect meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Give IM benzylpenicillin and do an immediate hospital referral