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Jemima Flash Cards > RESPIRATORY > Flashcards

RESPIRATORY Flashcards

1
Q

At what spine level does the trachea bifurcate

A

T4

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2
Q

What is the lung segmentations after the bronchi divides

A

Lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchi, alveolar ducts, sacs

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3
Q

What are the main muscles of inspiration

A

Diaphragm and external intercostals

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4
Q

what nerve supplies the diaphragm

A

the phrenic nerve - c3,4,5

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5
Q

What are the fissures on the right lung called

A

The horizontal and oblique fissure

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6
Q

how many fissures do the right and left lung have respectively?

A

2 and 1

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7
Q

what is the left lung fissure(s) called

A

the oblique

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8
Q

what are the pleural layers called

A

the parietal and visceral. visceral is on the organ side and parietal is on the outside

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9
Q

What are the structures in the upper airways

A

Nasal passage, larynx, trachea, lobar bronchi down to terminal bronchi

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10
Q

what are the structures in the lower airway

A

respiratory bronchioles to alveolar sacs

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11
Q

what is respiratory epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with interspersed goblet cells

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12
Q

What is the mechanics of inspiration

A

Phrenic causes diaphragm to contract and it moves down, as well as external intercostals contracting. this increases the thoracic pressure and lowers the pressure. the chest wall and ribs move up and out and the oxygen moves in down the pressure gradient

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13
Q

what are the muscles of forced inspiration

A

the sternocleidomastoid, the serratus anterior and the latissimus dorsi

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14
Q

what happens during expiration

A

it is normally a passive process, there is decreased phrenic input to the diaphragm and external intercostals which causes them to relax. this causes a decrease in volume and an increase in pressure in the thorax. the alveoli compress and the air passively moves down the gradient

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15
Q

what are the accessory muscles for forced expiration

A

the internal intercostals and the abdominal muscles

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16
Q

what is the transpulmonary pressure

A

the difference between the alveolar and interpleural pressure, normally about 4mmHg

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17
Q

what happens if the transpulmonary pressure is 0mmHg

A

you would get a pneumothorax

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18
Q

what are the two main respiratory centers in the brain

A

the pontine and medullary centers

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19
Q

what are the pontine centers of respiration and what is their function

A

the apneustic center which fine tunes the inspiratory stimulus and acts on the DRG to cause inspiration
the pneumotaxic center is involved in the smoothing the transition to expiration and acts on the VRG

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20
Q

What are the medullary centers of respiration

A

the VRG (ventral respiratory group) and the DRG (dorsal respiratory group)

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21
Q

what are the different types of receptor found in the lungs

A

Slow adapting stretch receptors, rapid adapting stretch receptors, J receptors and chemoreceptors

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22
Q

What is the function of slow adapting stretch receptors

A

they respond to distension and end inspiration to prevent overstretch of the lungs

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23
Q

what is the function of rapid adapting stretch receptors

A

they are between the airway epithelium and they respond to irritants - bronchoconstriction

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24
Q

what is the function of J receptors

A

the are across the capillary wall and respond to an increase in lung pressure due to a build up of fluid. they will increase the respiratory rate to induce rapid shallow breathing

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25
Q

where are peripheral chemoreceptors found?

A

in the aortic arch and in the carotid sinus (bifurcation)

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26
Q

what does the peripheral chemoreceptors detect

A

they detect changes in pressure of oxygen (activated about 60% saturation) and also H+ ion concentration

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27
Q

where are the central chemoreceptors found

A

in the medulla

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28
Q

what do the central chemoreceptors detect

A

they look at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide, very important for the respiratory drive

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29
Q

how to peripheral chemoreceptors detect carbon dioxide

A

carbon dioxide crosses the blood brain barrier and reacts with water. this becomes H2CO3. this then dissociates into HCO3- and H+ which is then detected by the chemoreceptors

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30
Q

where is more perfused, top or bottom of the lung

A

the bottom of the lung, due to gravity. this means the V/Q is lower at the bottom of the lung

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31
Q

what is a dead space in the lungs

A

when there is ventilation but not perfusion, which causes a HIGH V/Q

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32
Q

what is a shunt in the lungs

A

when there is no ventilation but there is perfusion. there is a low V/Q value here

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33
Q

what happens when there is a dead space in the lungs

A

there is local bronchoconstriction which causes air to be diverted to areas which are better perfused

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34
Q

what happens when there is a shunt in the lungs

A

there is hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction, blood is directed to better ventilated areas

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35
Q

what happens if the oxygen dissociation curve moves to the right

A

it means that there is a lower affinity and therefore a higher level of dissociation

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36
Q

what happens if the oxygen dissociation curve moves to the left

A

the more left then the higher affinity and the more binding

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37
Q

what factors may cause a left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve

A

higher pH, decrease in CO2, lower temperature and lower DPG. also carbon monoxide and foetal haemoglobin

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38
Q

what causes the oxygen dissociation curve to move to the right

A

low pH, increased CO2, increase in temperature and increase DPG

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39
Q

how is carbon dioxide transported in the blood

A

dissolved in the plasma (10%), bound to hemoglobin in the form of carbaminohemoglobin (23%), and as HCO3- (65%)

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40
Q

What does hypoventilation cause

A

increase CO2, increase H+, induce respiratory acidosis

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41
Q

what does hyperventilation cause

A

decrease in CO2, therefore decrease hydrogen and causes respiratory alkalosis

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42
Q

what is the carbonic acid equation

A

CO2 + H2O - (carbonic anhydrase) - H2CO3 - H+ + HCO3-

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43
Q

What is Daltons equation

A

PT = ppA + ppB + ppC etc

pressure exerted by mixture of gases are equal to the pressure of the equal parts

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44
Q

what is boyle’s law

A

P1V1 = P2V2

P proportional to V

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45
Q

what is henrys law

A

volume of gas dissolved in a liquid depends on the partial pressure and solubility of it

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46
Q

What is Ohms law

A

V=IR

pressure = flow X resistance

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47
Q

what is the alveolar gas equation

A

PAO2 = PiO2 - PaCO2/R

where R=0.8

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48
Q

what is Laplace’s law

A

P = 2T/R

alveoli pressure depends on the surface tension and radius. On alveoli its reduced by surfactant

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49
Q

what is compliance

A

greater compliance means the greater ability for the lungs to expand. it is dependent on surface tension and elasticity of the lung

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50
Q

what are the most common causes of hypoxia

A

hypoventilation increasing PaCO2, diffusion impairment (thickening of a membrane), shunt and V/Q mismatch

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51
Q

what is type 1 respiratory failure

A

low/normal PaCO2, low PaCo2

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52
Q

what is type 2 respiratory failure

A

low PaO2, high PaCO2

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53
Q

what is the laryngopharynx

A

hyaloid and then cricoid cartilage. the epiglottis is elastic

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54
Q

how many vocal cords do you have

A

you have two vocal cords and one false set of vocal cords

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55
Q

what epithelium is in the epiglottis

A

upper part is stratified squamous and lower is respiratory epithelium

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56
Q

what is the anatomical and physiological dead space

A

the anatomical dead space is the air in the conducting zone. the physiological dead space is the anatomical plus the alveoli dead space

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57
Q

what is FEV1

A

it is the forced expiratory volume in one second

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58
Q

what happens when you have airway obstruction

A

FEV1 is reduced more than the FVC. the FEV1/FVC ratio is less than 0.7. this occurs in COPD and asthma

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59
Q

what happens in airway restriction

A

both the FEV1 and FVC is reduced equally. the ratio is normal. this occurs in pulmonary fibrosis and muscular failure

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60
Q

how do airways constrict

A

parasympathetic - Ach binds to the M3 muscarinic receptors and causes bronchoconstriction

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61
Q

what causes airways to dilate

A

adrenaline and noradrenaline binds to B2 adrenoreceptors and causes dilation

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62
Q

what is type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE - hay fever

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63
Q

what is type 2 hypersensitivity

A

autoimmune, IgG mediated

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64
Q

what causes type 3 hypersensitivity

A

the complement system and immune complex formation. hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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65
Q

what is type 4 hypersensitivity

A

T cell mediated in the form of granulomas. sarcoidosis

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66
Q

what causes anaphylaxis

A

the first exposure causes IgE to be sensitized and presentation of past cells. the second time IgE binds to a high affinity receptor on mast cells which then degranulates releasing histamine and tryptase. this causes low blood pressure, difficulty breathing and swelling of upper airway

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67
Q

what is the fetal lung circulation

A

the lungs are not used in utero, as there is high pressure. there is the ductus venosus to the inferior vena cava, the foramen ovale allows for shunting between the right and left side of the heart

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68
Q

what happens during the first breath

A

the fluid in the lungs is expelled, the pressure drops and the lungs open, the pulmonary circulation takes over and the foramen ovale closes

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69
Q

how does aging affect the lung

A

decreased chest compliance, thorax changes shape (increased curvature), decreased respiratory muscle strength, decrease in elastic recoil, impaired gas exchange, impaired immunity

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70
Q

describe the bronchiole circulation

A

there is a thick wall, there is pressure of 120/80.
O2 causes vasoconstriction and hypoxia causes vasodilation. there is delivery of oxygen to the lung tissue.
there is redistribution of the blood

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71
Q

describe the pulmonary circulation

A

there are thin walls with a pressure of 25/8. oxygen causes vasodilation and hypoxia causes vasoconstriction. it picks up oxygen

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72
Q

what the pulse pressure

A

it is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure

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73
Q

what does Poiseuille’s law relate to

A

resistance is inversely proportional to the radius^4

there is a small decrease in radius leads to a large increase in vascular resistance

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74
Q

what does PEF stand for

A

peak expiratory flow

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75
Q

what is FEV1

A

it is the forced expiratory volume in one second

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76
Q

what is FVC

A

forced vital capacity - total expiratory volume that we have

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77
Q

what happens in lung obstruction

A

the FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7. this occurs when there is a block, in COPD and asthma.
there is a reduction of FEV1, but the FVC stays the same

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78
Q

what happens in lung restriction

A

the FVC is less than 0.8. there is a decreased expiratory volume (lung is filling less), this occurs in pulmonary fibrosis

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79
Q

what does IRV stand for

A

maximal inhalation excess of normal inspiration

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80
Q

what does ERV stand for

A

the maximal exhalation excess of normal

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81
Q

what does TV stand for

A

tidal volume - this is just normal breathing

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82
Q

what does RV stand for

A

residual volume

this is the air left after maximal expiration

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83
Q

what is the VC

A

this is the maximal expiration after the maximal inhalation

IRV + TV + ERV

84
Q

what is IC

A

it is the maximal inspiration after tidal expiration
IRV + TV
inspiration capacity

85
Q

what is FRC

A

it is the functional residual capacity - ERV + RV

this is the air in the lungs left after normal expiration

86
Q

what is TLC

A

this is the total lung capacity - IRV+TV+ERV+RV

87
Q

what is the typical TLC volume

A

it is about 5 liters

88
Q

what is the normal IRV volume

A

2000/2500 mls

89
Q

what is the normal TV volume

A

500 mls

90
Q

what is the normal ERV volume

A

1250 mls

91
Q

what is the normal RV volume

A

1250 mls

92
Q

what is the key mediator in the innate immunity

A

neutrophils (also macrophages are involved)

93
Q

what happens during neutrophil activation

A

they identify a threat, they are activated by cytokines and adhere. they then move through gaps in the endothelial cell wall and move into the tissue. they then phagocytose bacteria as well as degranulating

94
Q

what do CD8 cells do

A

they are cytotoxic T cells = they go to pathogens and puncture holes in the membrane through secreting perforin. the cells split due to uncontrolled osmolarity

95
Q

what do CD4 cells do

A

these are T helper cells - activate other cells

96
Q

what are the 5 classes of antibodies and what do they do

A 
IgG, A, M, E and D
IgG - most abundant 
IgA - in mucosa and breast milk 
IgM - first in infection 
IgE - anaphylaxis and allergy 
IgD - not 100%
97
Q

what are the non immune barriers in the lungs

A

the physical defenses: respiratory epithelium, mucus, coughing

98
Q

what is type 1 sensitivity

A

type 1 is IgE mediated, it occurs in acute anaphylaxis. they bind to basophils and mast cells and causes degranulation. they release histamine and prostaglandins. this causes bronchoconstriction, vasodilation and the inflammatory response

99
Q

what is hypersensitivity type 2

A

it is IgG and IgM mediated, which is a cytotoxic response. this occurs in Goodpasture’s disease. this results in tissue damage and altered receptors

100
Q

what is hypersensitivity type 3

A

this is IgG mediated and occurs in immune complex formation. this occurs in farmers lung, workers lung, pigeon lung

101
Q

what is hypersensitivity type 4

A

this it T cell mediated, this causes a delayed response

102
Q

what does parasympathetic stimulation do to airway tone

A

this causes bronchoconstriction, mediated by the vagus nerve. Ach acts on the M3 receptors

103
Q

what does sympathetic stimulation do to airway tone

A

causes bronchodilation, which is mediated by the sympathetic chain. Nor stimulates adrenaline release from the adrenals. this acts on the B2 type receptors on the smooth muscle

104
Q

how would you threat breathing problems with bronchodilators

A

increase in sympathetic activity via M3 antagonist (IPA), or decrease parasympathetic activity via B2 agonists (salbutamol)

105
Q

how do you calculate PAO2

A

PiO2 - PaCO2/R

106
Q

how do you calculate PaO2

A

PAO2 - (A-aDO2)

where aDO2 is the alveolar arterial concentration gradient - typically 1)

107
Q

how do you calculate

A

PaCO2 = K CO2/VA (a =alveolar V=ventilation)

108
Q

what are the typical pressures of CO2, O2 and pH values at sea level

A 
PaCO2 = 4.5-6
PaO2 = 10.5-13.5
pH = 7.35-7.45
109
Q

what happens to air at altitude

A

the higher up you go the more the atmospheric pressure falls. PiO2 falls but the FiO2 stays the same. the fraction of the oxygen stays the same (of inspired oxygen), but the pressure of inspired gas falls

110
Q

what is the physiological response to altitude

A

hyperventilation will occur, as you want more O2 and less CO2
there is a decrease in PaCO2, increased minute ventilation increase in heart rate and increase in the blood pH

111
Q

what pathology occurs at altitude

A

acute mountain sickness (headache and another symptom) - only treatment it descent
high altitude pulmonary oedema - this occurs in unacclimated people - need oxygen and decent

112
Q

what three laws are important to know for depth

A

boyle’s law - P1V1=P2V2
daltons law = Pr = PPa + PPb + PPc …
henry’s law = Vgas dissolved in a liquid at temperature is proportional to the partial pressure of gas

113
Q

what pathology occurs at depth

A

decompression sickness = nitrogen is the most common. this is when you ascend to quickly for gas to be excreted so you get gas bubbles in the tissue
inert gas narcosis = you have excess nitrogen with less constituent gases you have, this can cause poisoning
CNS oxygen toxicity = CNS deprived of oxygen for so long that it becomes toxic
Arterial gas embolism = 15 minutes after surfacing
Pulmonary barotrauma = trauma to pulmonary vessels due to high pressure/stress on the vessels

114
Q

what week does the lungs start developing

A

week 4

115
Q

what do the lungs develop from

A

from the endoderm (forms epithelial cells) and the splanchnic mesoderm

116
Q

what is the pseudoglandular phase of lung development

A

this occurs in week 5-16 where the right and left bronchi form terminal bronchioles

117
Q

what occurs during the canalicular phase of lung development

A

this is week 16-26 when the terminal bronchioles go to respiratory bronchioles which each form a few alveolar ducts

118
Q

what happens during the saccular phase of lung development

A

week 26 to 8 months - alveolar ducts grow sacs at the end of them making alveoli

119
Q

what happens during the alveolar phase of lung development

A

8 months to birth - the alveoli mature

120
Q

what are the three lung shunts in the embryo

A

the foramen ovale, the ductus venosus and the ductus arteriosus

121
Q

how many unbiblical arteries are there and what is their function

A

there are two, and their role is to carry blood from the foetus to the mother

122
Q

how many umbilical veins are there and what is its function

A

there is one and it carried blood from the mother to the foetus

123
Q

what does the umbilical vein become after birth

A

the ligamentum teres

124
Q

what does the ductus venosus become after birth

A

the ligamentum venosum

125
Q

what does the ductus arteriosus become after birth

A

the ligamentum arteriosus

126
Q

what happens to the foramen ovale after birth

A

it closes and becomes the fossa ovalis

127
Q

what produces surfactant in the lungs

A

the type 2 pneumocytes

128
Q

when does surfactant production begin

A

it starts being produced at 34 weeks

129
Q

what does surfactant do

A

it keeps alveoli open, maintaining the pressure across them, and making it easier to breathe

130
Q

what happens to surfactant when a baby is born premature

A

because you have a large increase in surfactant two weeks pre birth, if you are born before this the baby does not have the adequate levels of surfactant. in this case its harder to breathe, and may need support. the child can recover but it increases the chance of death

131
Q

What is the term used to describe a malignant tumour of the pleural membranes?

A

Mesothelioma

132
Q

what is defined as ‘the amount of air remaining in the lungs after normal quiet expiration’

A

Functional residual capacity

133
Q

what nerve supplies voluntary motor function to the larynx

A

the vagus nerve

134
Q

what nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle (motor)

A

superior laryngeal nerve

135
Q

what are the muscles that supply the vocal cords (except cricothyroid)

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

136
Q

what are the recurrent laryngeal nerve and superior laryngeal nerves a branch of

A

the vagus nerve

137
Q

what supplies sensory innervation to the larynx above the vocal cords

A

the internal laryngeal nerve (branch of the superior laryngeal nerve)

138
Q

what supplies sensory innervation to the larynx below the vocal cords

A

the recurrent laryngeal nerve

139
Q

what conditions would normally lead to type 2 respiratory failure

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

140
Q

if you inhale a peanut where is it more likely to be lodged in the airway

A

the right main bronchus

141
Q

where are the main peripheral chemoreceptors located

A

the carotid arteries and the aortic arch

142
Q

Type 1 Respiratory Failure is characterised by arterial blood gas picture of….

A

low pO2 and low/normal pCO2

143
Q

wat would normally lead to type 1 respiratory failure

A

a pulmonary embolism, ventilation perfusion mismatch, alveolar hypoventilation, diffusion problems, shint

144
Q

Chronic Type 2 Respiratory Failure is characterised by arterial blood gas picture of …..

A

low pO2, high pCO2, normal-high HCO3

145
Q

how is vital capacity calculated

A

Tidal volume + Inspired reserve volume + Expired reserve volume

146
Q

what cells provides cilia for the mucociliary escalator

A

Columnar Epithelial Cells

147
Q

what will contribute to causing bronchodilation

A

adrenaline binding to β 2 -receptors in the smooth muscle of the bronchioles and causing their relaxation.

148
Q

what factors are related to bronconstiction

A

beta blockers, histamine, parasympathetic stimulation

149
Q

Changes in which of these blood parameters stimulates carotid chemoreceptors

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide and H+ ions

150
Q

where does the recurrent laryngeal nerve divide from

A

the vagus nerve

151
Q

what does the brachiocephalic trunk split into

A

the right common carotid and the right subclavian

152
Q

what are the branches of the thoracic aorta

A

bronchia, mediastinal, oesophageal, pericardial, superior phrenic and intercostal/subcostal

153
Q

what are the bones found in the thorax

A

the sternum, the ribs, the thoracic spine and the superior and inferior costal facets

154
Q

what is the formation of typical ribs

A

the typical ribs consist of a head, neck and body. the head has two articular facets separated by a wedge of bone. the neck connects the head to the body, and the body is flat or curves

155
Q

what are the atypical ribs

A

1, 2, 10, 11, 12

156
Q

what are the rib articulations

A

the costotransverse joint - tubercle of rib and transverse costal facet of vertebra
costovertebral joint = head of the rib and the superior costal facet of the corresponding vertebra

157
Q

what is the joint found between the vertebral bodies

A

there is intervertebral discs made up of fibrocartilage.

158
Q

what are the ligaments which are found through out the spine

A

the anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments
the ligamentum flavum
the interspinous ligament
the supraspinous ligament

159
Q

what is the function of the hyoid bone

A

it holds up the tongue and holds up the jaw

160
Q

what vertebral level is the hyoid bone found

A

C3

161
Q

what are the major structures of the hyoid bone

A

body, greater and lesser horn

162
Q

what muscles and ligaments attach to the hyoid bone

A

suprahyoid - digastric, stylohyoid, geniohyoid, mylohyoid

infrahyoid - thyrohyoid, omohyoid and sternohyoid

163
Q

what are the three main ligament attachments of the hyoid bone

A

the stylohyoid, the thyrohyoid and the hyoepiglottic

164
Q

what are the three parts of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx and larygopharynx

165
Q

what is contained in the oropharynx

A

1/3 of the tongue, lingual tonsils the palatine tonsils and the superior constrictor muscle

166
Q

what does the laryngopharynx contain

A

middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictors

167
Q

what are the muscles of the pharynx innervated by

A

innervated by the vagus except stylopharyngeus which is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve

168
Q

what are the two main groups of muscles in the pharynx

A

superior, middle and inferior

169
Q

what is the larynx

A

it is an organ located in the anterior neck, with the structure being primarily cartilaginous

170
Q

what is the innervation to the larynx

A

receives sensory and motor innervation via branches of the vagus nerve

  • recurrent laryngeal
  • superior laryngeal nerve (to the cricothyroid)
171
Q

what are the suprahyoid muscles

A

stylohyoid, digastric, mylohyoid, and the geniohyoid

172
Q

what is the function of the stylohyoid

A

initiates swallowing by pulling the hyoid bone in a posterior and superior direction

173
Q

what is the digastric muscle

A

it is comprised of two muscular bellies connected by a tendon, it depresses the mandible and elevates the hyoid bone

174
Q

what is the mylohyoid

A

it elevates the hyoid bone and the flood of the mouth

175
Q

what is the geniohyoid

A

it arises from the mandible and attaches to the hyoid bone, acts to depress the mandible and elevate the hyoid bone

176
Q

what are the infrahyoid bones

A

the omohyoid, the sternohyoid the sternothyroid and the thyrohyoid

177
Q

what is the omohyoid

A

arises from scapula and runs under the sternocleidomastoid. it attaches the superior belly by the tendon which is then anchored to the clavicle. it attaches to the hyoid bone
- depresses hyoid bone

178
Q

what is the sternohyoid

A

sternum to hyoid bone

- depresses hyoid bone

179
Q

what is the sternothyroid muscle

A

sternum to thyroid cartilage

- depresses the thyroid cartilage

180
Q

what is the thyrohyoid muscle

A

attaches to hyoid bone arising from the thyroid cartilage

- depresses the hyoid bone

181
Q

what are the scalene muscles

A

three paired muscles - anterior, middle and posterior which are located in the lateral aspect of the neck

182
Q

what is the function of the scalene muscles

A

they can act as accessory muscles in respiration and flex the neck

183
Q

what structures pass between the anterior and middle scalene muscles

A

the brachial plexus and subclavian artery

184
Q

what is the lung suspended from the mediastinum by

A

the lung root

185
Q

what is the apex of the lung

A

the blunt superior end of the lung, it projects upwards above the level of the first rib and into the floor of the neck

186
Q

what is the base of the lung

A

inferior surface of the lung, sits on diaphragm

187
Q

what are the three surfaces of the lung

A

costal, medial and diaphragmatic

188
Q

what are the three borders of the lung

A

edges - anterior, inferior and posterior

189
Q

where is the anterior border of the lungs

A

it is formed by the convergence of the mediastinal and costal surfaces - on the left lung there is the cardiac notch

190
Q

what is found in the lung root

A

bronchus, pulmonary artery, two pulmonary veins, bronchial vessels, pulmonary plexus nerves and lymphatic vessels

191
Q

what is the blood supply for the tissue of the lungs

A

the bronchial arteries

192
Q

what does the bronchial arteries supply

A

the bronchi, the lung roots, visceral pleura and the supporting lung tissues

193
Q

what is the venous drainage of the lung tissue

A

via the bronchial veins

- the right vein drains into the azygos vein while the left drains into the accessory hemiazygos vein

194
Q

what are the nerves of the lungs derived from

A

the pulmonary plexuses

195
Q

what is the parasympathetic supply of the lungs

A

derived from the vagus

196
Q

what does parasympathetic simulation of the lungs cause

A

stimulates secretion from bronchial glands, contraction of the bronchial smooth muscle and vasodilation of the pulmonary vessels

197
Q

what is the sympathetic nerve supply of the lungs from

A

derived from the sympathetic trunks

198
Q

what does sympathetic stimulation of the lungs cause

A

stimulate relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle and vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vessels

199
Q

what is the visceral afferent fibres of the lung

A

they conduct pain impulses to the sensory ganglion of the vagus nerve

200
Q

what is the lymphatic drainage of the lungs

A

the superficial and the deep

- superficial drains lung parenchyma and deep drains structures of lung root

201
Q

what week in embryology does surfactant production begin

A

at 34 weeks

202
Q

what is the average TLC

A

6L

203
Q

what occurs to FEV1 and FVC in airway obstruction

A

the FVC stays the same (or is slightly decreased) as you can still breath out fully it just takes much longer. You have a significantly reduced FEV1 (below 80%) and therefore in these patients there is a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio (below 0.7)

204
Q

what causes airway obstruction

A

COPD - there is reduced airflow and an increased air trapping causing hyperinflation of the lungs

205
Q

what happens in airway restriction with regards to FEV1 and FVC

A

there is an impaired compliance due to fibrosis. The FEV1 is either normal or reduced but not significantly. the FVC is significantly reduced. because of this the FEV1/FVC ratio is not as affected and is often still above 0.7

206
Q

what is the normal FEV1/FVC

A

80% or above

Jemima Flash Cards (9 decks)

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