CARDIOVASCULAR Flashcards

1
Q

what is plasma

A

translucent liquid component of the blood that holds the cellular components of blood in a suspension
about 90% water, 7% carrier proteins and the rest is electrolytes, hormones gases and nutrients

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2
Q

what is serum

A

plasma without the clotting factors

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3
Q

what are red blood cells

A

they are erythrocytes, which are anuclear, and are important for the carrying of oxygen around the body

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4
Q

what is the lifespan of a RBC

A

about 120 days

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5
Q

what are the different types of leukocytes and their groupings

A

monocytes, lymphocytes, basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular and basophils, eosinophils and neutrophils are granular

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6
Q

what are the granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils

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7
Q

what is the most abundant leukocyte

A

neutrophils

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8
Q

what are neutrophils function

A

they are the first line of defense and phagocytose pathogens, they are part of the innate immune response

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9
Q

what is the function of eosinophils

A

combats parasite infections and neutralises histamine

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10
Q

what is the basophil function

A

they produce histamine - responsible for anaphylaxis

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11
Q

what are the agranulocytes

A

monocytes and lymphocytes

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12
Q

what is the function of monocytes

A

monocytes in the blood and macrophages in the tissue. they phagocytose foreign material - examples are kupfer cells, microglial cells

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13
Q

what is the function of lymphocytes

A

they are part of the adaptive immune system, T cells, B cells and natural killer cells. they produce antibodies and attack cells, as well as activating other parts of the immune system

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14
Q

what are platelets

A

they are anucleate cells that become spiculated which they are activated. they form a platelet plug to prevent damage to underlying cells during vessel wall damage

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15
Q

what is hemostasis

A

process to prevent and stop bleeding

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16
Q

what happens during vessel injury

A

in vessel injury there is endothelium exposure and endothelin release. this causes vasoconstriction. you then get adhesion of platelets to the subendothelial collagen via vWF using receptor GP1B. once the platlets bind there is activation inducing a shape change. the platelets release their alpha and dense granules containing vWF, thromboxane A2, fibrinogen and fibrin stabilizing factor, and ADP, CA2+ and serotonin respectively. this release causes aggregation of further platelets

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17
Q

what are the different parts of the coagulation cascade

A

there is an intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, with the most important aspect being fibrin

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18
Q

how does the common pathway work

A

fibrinogen is in the blood and in the inactive form. it requires thrombin to be active. through the coagulation cascade prothrombin is converted to thrombin. this then converts fibrinogen into fibrin

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19
Q

what are important factors in the coagulation cascade

A

IIa (thrombin), Ia(fibrin), XIIIa (fibrin stabilizing factor), IV (Ca2+)

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20
Q

what are the vitamin K dependent factors

A

X, IX, VII, II

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21
Q

what does warfarin do

A

warfarin inhibits the vitamin K dependent clotting factors

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22
Q

what is the fibrinolytic pathway

A

this is plasmin mediated fibrin breakdown. plasminogen is activated into plasmin by factor X. this then degrades fibrin

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23
Q

what is required before a blood transfusion occurs

A

cross matching to see if the donors blood is safe for the recipient

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24
Q

what are the 4 main blood groups

A

A, B, AB and O

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25
Q

how is membrane potential in a cardiac myocyte maintained

A

it is maintained by the sodium potassium pump (as well as smaller diffusion channels)

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26
Q

what is the cardiac myocyte cycle

A

in depolarisation there is an influx of sodium into the cell, and this causes the membrane potential to increase. once it reaches -60mV this causes depolarisation and more sodium channels to open. at 30mV sodium channels close and there is partial repolarisation. there is then the plateau phase as L type calcium channels are open and allow for influx of calcium into the cell, which balances to potassium efflux. there is then repolarisation, as the calcium channels close and there is a net movement of potassium out of the cell

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27
Q

what is the absolute refractory period

A

the cell can not be excited again no matter the stimulus

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28
Q

what is the relative refractory period

A

where the threshold potential is higher, but you can cause depolarisation with a strong stimulus

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29
Q

what is pacemaker potential

A

the pacemaker potential is responsible for the automaticity of the heart, which is generated by nodal cells. the primary pacemaker is the SAN

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30
Q

what happens when there is sympathetic stimulation of the SAN

A

noradrenaline increases the calcium channel opening, which causes a steeper depolarisation, increasing the heart rate and the force of contration

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31
Q

what happens when there is parasympathetic activity on the SAN

A

this is via the vagus nerve, this decreases the heart rate. Ach activated the potassium channels which hyperpolarises the membrane

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32
Q

what is excitation-contraction coupling

A

this is when calcium moving into the cell binds onto the ryanodine receptor on the SR and releases more intracellular calcium. this calcium binds onto troponin on the myofilaments which uncovers the binding site for actin on the tropomyosin strand.

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33
Q

in an ECG, what is a lead

A

a lead is the plane in which you are looking at the heart

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34
Q

in ECG what is an electrode

A

an electrode is what you place on a body to pick up electrical signals

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35
Q

in EGC where is lead 2 placed

A

from the right arm to the left leg

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36
Q

how many leads are looked at on an ECG

A

12

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37
Q

what is lead 1 placed in ECG

A

from the right arm to the left arm

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38
Q

where is lead 3 placed in an ECG

A

left arm to the left leg

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39
Q

what are the three unipolar leads in ECG

A

aVR, aVL and aVF

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40
Q

where are the 6 chest leads places

A

lead V1 - 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternal border
lead V2 - the 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternal border
lead V3 - midway between V2 and V4
lead V4 - 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
lead V5 - anterior axillary line at the same level as V4
lead V6 - mid axillary line at the same level as V4 and 5

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41
Q

what does the initial two heart tubes develop from

A

the visceral mesoderm

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42
Q

then do the 2 primitive heart tubes fuse

A

during lateral folding

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43
Q

what are the primitive heart tube divisions

A

the truncus arteriosus, the bulbus cordis, the primitive ventricle, the primitive atrium and the sinus venosus

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44
Q

what does the truncus arteriosus become

A

the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk

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45
Q

what does the bulbus cordis become

A

the smooth parts of the left and right ventricles

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46
Q

what does the primitive ventricle become

A

forms the majority of the ventricles

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47
Q

what does the primitive atrium become

A

the entire left atrium and the anterior part of the right atrium

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48
Q

what does the sinus venosus become

A

the smooth part of the right atrium, the venal canal and the coronary sinus

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49
Q

what is the process of septation in embryology

A

the formation of the left and the right heart

the tube folds and pinches

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50
Q

what does the first aortic arch become

A

becomes the maxillary artery

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51
Q

what does the second aortic arch become

A

becomes the stapedial and hyoid artery

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52
Q

what does the third aortic arch become

A

the common carotid - part of the internal carotids

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53
Q

what does the fourth aortic arch become

A

branches. the left becomes the aortic arch and the right becomes the right subclavian

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54
Q

what happens to the fifth aortic arch

A

it regresses and doesnt become anything

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55
Q

what happens to the sixth aortic arch

A

it becomes the pulmonary arteries, and the left becomes the ductus arteriosus

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56
Q

when does the heart appear in utero, and when does it start beating

A

it appears in the third week and begins beating on day 23

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57
Q

describe the cardiac cycle

A

starts with ventricular systole. there is isovolumetric contraction where the ventricles contract, with all valves closed and the pressure increases. the pressure continues to increase until it is above the aortic pressure. the aortic valve opens and the blood is forced into the aorta. as this happens the ventricular pressure reduces, eventually below the aortic and the valve will shut. this again causes a closed system. the atria fills with blood and contracts, its pressure rising above ventricular pressure. this causes the atrioventricular valve to open and blood to flow into the ventricle and the cycle starts again

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58
Q

what is the end diastolic volume

A

this is the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction

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59
Q

what is the stroke volume

A

the amount of blood that is pumped out during ventricular systole (~70%)

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60
Q

what is the ejection fraction

A

ejection fraction is the stroke volume divided by the end diastolic volume

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61
Q

what factors effect stroke volume

A

preload, afterload and contractility

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62
Q

what is preload

A

preload is the same as the end diastolic volume. the larger the preload the larger the stroke volume

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63
Q

what factors can effect preload

A

atrial contractility, venous return, ventricular compliance, valvular resistance and the heart rate

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64
Q

what is contractility

A

the force of contraction that the heart beats with. can increase contractility via the sympathetic nervous system

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65
Q

what is afterload

A

afterload is the amount of pressure that the heart needs to exert to eject the blood during ventricular contraction. it is affected by valvular disease, aortic pressure and resistance

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66
Q

what is resistance to blood flow related to

A

its directly proportional to the viscosity and the length, and inversely proportional to the radius of the vessel to the 4th power

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67
Q

what is intrinsic control of resistance

A

myogenic autoregulation. an arteriole regulates its own blood pressure based on stretch. there are local mediators which can vasoconstrict and dilate.
constrictor - endothelin
dilators - prostacyclin, hypoxia, tissue factor, nitric oxide

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68
Q

what is extrinsic control or resistance

A

hormones
vasoconstrictors = adrenaline acting on alpha receptors, angiotensin II and vasopressin.
Vasodilators = adrenaline actin on beta 2 receptors

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69
Q

what are baroreceptors

A

the detect pressure changes

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70
Q

where do baroreceptors talk to

A

they feed impulses via CN 9 and 10 to the medulla oblongata

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71
Q

what are the separations of the mediastinum

A

divided into superior and inferior by the sternal angle. the inferior is then separated into the anterior, middle and posterior

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72
Q

what structures are present in the muddle mediastinum section

A

the heart, aorta, vena cava, trachea, vagus and phrenic nerve

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73
Q

what is the pericardium

A

the pericardium is a fibro serous sac that surround the heart.
the outermost layer is fibrous, the serous layer is divided into the parietal and visceral layer.
the visceral layer contains vessels and nerves.

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74
Q

what are the borders of the heart

A

right - right atrium
the inferior - left and right ventricle
left - the left atria and some of the left ventricle
superior - left and right atria and great vessels

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75
Q

how does the heart receive a blood supply

A

when the aortic valve closes the cusps fill with blood when then supplies the left and right carotid arteries. the heart gets perfused during diastole

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76
Q

what are the divisions of the right coronary artery

A

the right coronary has two branches the right marginal and the right posterior interventricular artery.

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77
Q

what does the right marginal artery supply

A

the right marginal supplies the right ventricle including the SAN

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78
Q

what does the posterior interventricular artery supply

A

the posterior 1/3 of the interventricular septum and the AVN (in 60% of people)

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79
Q

what does the left coronary artery divide into

A

the left anterior descending, the left marginal and the circumflex.

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80
Q

what does the left anterior descending artery supply

A

the LAD supplies 2/3 of the interventricular septum and the right and left ventricle

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81
Q

what does the left marginal artery supply

A

the left ventricle

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82
Q

what does the circumflex artery supply

A

it supplies the left atrium and the left ventricle

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83
Q

what does carotid artery dominance mean

A

this is where the posterior interventricular artery gets its supply from. in 70% of people it is from the right only, in 10% of people it is from the left only and in 20% of people it is from both

84
Q

where is the apex of the heart found

A

the midclavicular line in the 5th intercostal space

85
Q

where on surface anatomy are the aortic and pulmonary valves found

A

the second intercostal space

86
Q

what are the aortic arch and pulmonary trunk connected by

A

the ligamentum arteriosum

87
Q

what are the 4 parts of the aorta

A

ascending, arch, thoracic/descending and abdominal

88
Q

where does the aorta end

A

T4

89
Q

what are the three main branches found at the aortic arch

A

the subclavian, the common carotid and the brachiocephalic

90
Q

what are the three main branches found at the aortic arch

A

the subclavian, the common carotid and the brachiocephalic

91
Q

what are the nerves found in the thorax

A

phrenic and vagus

92
Q

what is the right and left phrenic nerve route

A

the right phrenic nerve descends anteriorly along the right lung root. it travels along the pericardium to the right atrium and passes through the diaphragm at the IVC opening at T8.

the left phrenic nerve ascends anterior to the left lung root and crosses the aortic arch bypassing the vagus. it travels along the pericardium of the left ventricle and through the diaphragm

93
Q

what does the phrenic nerve innervate

A

the diaphragm - c3,4,5 keeps the diaphragm alive

94
Q

what is the vagus nerve route

A

similar to the phrenic, but it passes behind the lung roots, and passes through the diaphragm at T10

95
Q

what are the three main structures that go through the diaphragm

A

the vena cava (T8), the aorta (T12) and the oesophagus (T10)

96
Q

what are the layers of a blood vessel from outer to inner

A

Adventitia, external elastic lamina, tunica media, internal elastic lamina, intima and the basement membrane (endothelial cells)

97
Q

where is most of the resistance in the circulation

A

in the arterioles

98
Q

what factors effect cardiac output

A

exercise, emotion, pregnancy, posture, sweating, age, gender

99
Q

what factors effect stroke volume

A

preload, afterload, contractility and heart rate

100
Q

what is tachycardia and bradycardia

A

tachycardia - high heart rate

bradycardia - low heart rate

101
Q

what is frank starling’s law

A

the force of contraction is directly proportional to the initial length of the muscle fibre within physiological limits

102
Q

what is the pathway of cardiac impulses during a cardiac cycle

A

starts at the SAN, travels to the AVN, then to the bundle of his and finally the perkinje fibres

103
Q

describe the pacemaker potential

A

phase 0 - opening of voltage gated calcium channels and depolarisation
phase 3 - closure of the calcium channels and opening of voltage gated potassium channels causing repolarisation
phase 4 - closure of the potassium channels and sodium moves into the cell via HCN channels and calcium moves in via T type channels.

technically there is no resting membrane potential

104
Q

how does sympathetic activity act on the heart

A

it increases the heart rate and force of contraction by noradrenaline acting on beta 1 receptors, increasing calcium channel opening

105
Q

how does parasympathetic activity act on the heart

A

decreases the heart rate, by Ach acting on the muscarinic 2 receptors which activates potassium channels and causes hyperpolarization of the membrane

106
Q

what is the mean arterial pressure

A

average pressure during a cardiac cycle

107
Q

how do you calculate mean arterial pressure

A
diastolic + (1/3 X systolic) 
OR 
2/3 diastolic + 1/3 systolic 
OR 
CO X TPR
108
Q

how long does systole and diastole last

A

systole lasts for 0.3 seconds

diastole lasts for 0.5 seconds

109
Q

what insulates the atria from the ventricles

A

fibro granular rings around the AV valve

110
Q

where is the apex of the heart found

A

In the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line

111
Q

where are the sulci of the heart

A

coronary sinus runs transversely on the heart and separates atria and ventricles
the anterior and posterior interventricular sulci can be found running vertically on their retrospective sides and represent the wall separating of the ventricles

112
Q

where is the apex of the heart found

A

in the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line

113
Q

how is the heart muscle supplied with blood

A

when the aortic valve closes, there is a backflow of blood, which then allows the blood to enter the coronary vessels

114
Q

what are the main cardiac veins

A

the great cardiac vein, the small cardiac vein, the middle cardiac vein and the posterior cardiac vein

115
Q

what is the path of the great cardiac vein

A

it originates from the apex of the heart and ascends in the anterior interventricular groove

116
Q

what is the endocardium

A

it is the innermost layer of the cardiac wall

117
Q

what is the endocardium composed of

A

loose connective tissue and simple squamous epithelium

118
Q

what is the subendothelial layer

A

it lies between the endocardium and the myocardium. it consists of a fibrous tissue which contains the vessels and nerves

119
Q

what is the myocardium

A

it is composed of cardiac muscle and involuntary striates muscle = contraction of the heart

120
Q

what are the two types of myocardial infarction

A

Nstemi (non S-T elevated myocardial infarction - coronary artery partially blocked) and stemi (S-T elevated myocardial infection - coronary artery blocked fully)

121
Q

what is the epicardium, and what is it composed of

A

it is the outermost layer of the heart and is formed by the visceral layer of the pericardium, made of connective tissue and fat

122
Q

what is the interior surface of the right atrium like

A

the interior surface can be divided into two parts, which is separated by a muscular ridge called the crista terminalis. the two portions are

  • the sinus venarum, posterior to the crista terminalis, smooth walls and receives blood from superior and inferior vena cava
  • the atria proper which is anterior to the crista terminalis and includes the right auricle. it has a rough muscular wall formed by the pectinate muscles
123
Q

what is the interatrial septum

A

it separates the two atria and is where the fossa ovalis is - remnant of the foramen ovale

124
Q

what is the interior of the left atrium like

A

inflow portion - receives blood, with a smooth surface

outflow portion - anteriorly and includes the left auricle, it is lined by the pectinate muscles

125
Q

what is the inflow and outflow portions of the right ventricle separated by

A

a muscular ridge called the supraventricular crest

126
Q

what is the inflow portion of the right ventricle like?

A

it is covered with irregular muscular elevations called trabeculae carnage which can be divided into ridges, bridges and pillars which are anchored at their base to the ventricle

127
Q

what are the papillary muscles in the ventricle attached to

A

they are attaches to the fibrous cords called chordae tendineae which are in turn attached to the three tricuspid valves

128
Q

what is the outflow portion of the right ventricle like

A

it has smooth walls and no trabeculae carinae, it is derived from the bulbus cordis

129
Q

what is the inflow portion of the left ventricle like

A

it is lines with trabeculae carneae, there are papillary muscles present which attach to the cusps of the mitral valve

130
Q

what is the outflow portion of the left ventricle like

A

this is also known as the aortic vestibule, it is smooth walled and no trabeculae carneae

131
Q

where is the tricuspid valve located

A

between the right atrium and ventricle, it consists of three cusps (anterior, posterior and septal) with the base of each being bound to a fibrous ring that surrounds the opening

132
Q

where is the mitral valve located

A

this is located between the left atrium and ventricle, this is known as the bicuspid valve as it has only two cusps (anterior and posterior)

133
Q

how many papillary muscles are there in total

A

there are three in the right ventricle and two in the left

134
Q

describe the flow of electricity in the cardiac conduction system

A

excitation signal created in the SAN, and a wave of excitation spreads across the atria causing contraction. Upon reaching the AVN the signal is delayed. It is then conducted into the bundle of His, and spreads down the interventricular septum. The bundle of His and Purkinje fibres spread the wave impulses along the ventricles

135
Q

What nerve innervates the pericardium

A

the phrenic nerve

136
Q

what is the parasympathetic relationship between BP and systemic vascular resistance

A

parasympathetic nerves do not have a major influence on peripheral blood vessel diameter - they don’t have parasympathetic innervation

137
Q

occlusion of what coronary artery is most likely to result in a fatal heart attack

A

the left main coronary artery

138
Q

what is the equation of cardiac output

A

Heart rate X stroke volume

139
Q

what is the normal conduction pathway in the heart

A

SAN, contraction of atria, AVN, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres, contraction of ventricles

140
Q

increase in what pressure indicates left heart failure

A

left ventricular end diastolic pressure

141
Q

increase in what pressure indicated a mitral valve stenosis

A

left atrial end systolic pressure - an increased resistance to blood flow across the valve therefore a higher pressure is required to force blood from atrium to ventricle

142
Q

what does shortness of breath, severe peripheral oedema and ascites after a heart attack indicate

A

biventricular failure

143
Q

what is the relationship between systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure with regards to the sympathetic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nerves decrease peripheral blood vessel diameter thereby increasing systemic vascular resistance and increasing blood pressure.

144
Q

what is pulmonary oedema in the presence of a normal central venous pressure a sign of

A

Left sided heart failure causes an increase in pulmonary pressure leading to pulmonary oedema.

145
Q

what is a raised central venous pressure a reflection of

A

right sided heart failure

146
Q

severe pulmonary hypertension is a cause of what

A

Right heart failure

Severe pulmonary hypertension means the right ventricle has to work harder to pump blood through the pulmonary artery. Ultimately the right ventricle is unable to generate sufficient pressure and therefore starts to fail.

147
Q

What is the purpose of the Ductus Arteriosus in the foetal cardiovascular system?

A

allow blood to bypass the foetal lungs by shunting it from the Pulmonary Artery to the Aorta

148
Q

Which artery most frequently supplies the Atrio Ventricular Node?

A

Right coronary artery

The RCA supplies the area above including both SA & AV nodes.
The LAD supplies most of the area below the AV conducting system, the His-Purkinje system

149
Q

what does the right coronary artery split into

A

the right marginal and the right posterior interventricular artery

150
Q

what does the left coronary artery branch into

A

the left anterior descending, the circumflex and the marginal

151
Q

what is the venous drainage of the heart

A

it is the coronary veins which drain into the right atrium via the coronary sinus
there is the small, middle and great cardiac vein

152
Q

at what spinal level does the aorta end

A

L4

153
Q

where does the aortic arch begin and end

A

it begins at the level of the second sternocostal joint and ends at the level of the T4 vertebrae

154
Q

what are the three main branches off of the aortic arch

A

the brachiocephalic, the left common carotid and the left subclavian

155
Q

what are the two divisions in the right atria

A

smooth atrium, and trabeculated atrium

156
Q

what does the circumflex artery divide into

A

the obtuse marginal arteries

157
Q

where does the circumflex artery travel to in the heart

A

in 70% of people it finishes before the posterior interventricular groove. in 30% of people it runs into the groove.

158
Q

where is the SAN present in the heart

A

in the ridge of tissue called the crista terminalis

159
Q

when does the blood flow to the myocardium occur

A

during diastole

160
Q

oxygen saturation in the coronary venous blood is very low (compared to other veins). Why is this

A

oxygen extraction by the heart is very high

161
Q

what does the right coronary artery supply

A

the inferior surface of the heart

162
Q

what is responsible for synthesizing coagulation factors and fibrinogen

A

the liver

163
Q

what is the precursor to the enzyme that lyses clots

A

plasminogen

164
Q

what cleaves fibrinogen to make fibrin

A

thrombin

165
Q

where do you find the apex beat of the heart

A

left 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line

166
Q

what prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole

A

the mitral valve

167
Q

what prevents high pressures developing in the jugular veins during ventricular systole

A

the tricuspid valve

168
Q

on an ECG what wave represents ventricular repolarisation

A

T wave

169
Q

what is the normal duration of the PR interval on an EGC

A

120 - 200 ms

170
Q

what heart leads assesses the electrical activity within the lateral myocardial territory

A

Leads I, aVL, V5 and V6

171
Q

what leads assesses the electrical activity within the inferior myocardial territory

A

leads II, III and aVF

172
Q

how long does QRS take

A

should be less than 120 ms

173
Q

what spinal level does the pulmonary trunk split into the right and left pulmonary arteries

A

T5 - T6

174
Q

how many surfaces does the heart have

A

5

175
Q

what is the anterior surface of the heart (sternocostal)

A

the right ventricle

176
Q

what is the posterior surface of the heart (base)

A

left atrium

177
Q

what is the inferior surface of the heart (diaphragmatic)

A

left and right ventricles

178
Q

what is the right pulmonary surface of the heart

A

the right atrium

179
Q

what is the left pulmonary surface of the heart

A

the left ventricle

180
Q

what is the oblique pericardial pathway

A

a blind ending passageway located on the posterior surface of the heart

181
Q

what is the transverse pericardial sinus

A

found superiorly on the heart

182
Q

where is the right auricle and where is it found

A

it is in the right atrium and is a muscular pouch that acts to increase the capacity o the atrium

183
Q

what are the two embryological origins of the right atrium

A

the sinus venosus - this becomes the smooth part of the atrium
the primitive atrium - becomes the rough muscular wall

184
Q

what are the two embryological origins of the left atrium

A

inflow portion - derived from the pulmonary veins

outflow portion - lined by pectinate muscles and derived from the embryonic atrium

185
Q

what separates the right ventricular inflow and outflow portions

A

the supraventricular crest

186
Q

what are the three main types of trabeculae carnae found in the right ventricle

A

ridges - entire length on one side of the ventricle
bridges - attaches the ventricle at both ends but free in the middle (moderator band)
pillars (papillary muscle) - attach the tricuspid valve via their chordae tendineae

187
Q

what is the embryological origin of the outflow portion of the right ventricle

A

the bulbus cordis

188
Q

how many papillary muscles are there attached to the left mitral valve

A

2

189
Q

what is the embryological origin of the left ventricular outflow portion

A

the bulbus cordis

190
Q

what are the three layers of the heart

A

endocardium, myocardium and epicardium

191
Q

what is the structure of endocardium

A

it is the innermost layer - loose connective tissue and simple squamous epithelial tissue

192
Q

what layer are the purkinje fibres located in

A

the subendothelial layer

193
Q

what is found in the subendocardial layer

A

vessels and nerves of the conducting system of the heart

194
Q

what is the myocardium composed of

A

cardiac muscle (involuntary striated muscle)

195
Q

what is the structure of epicardium

A

outermost layer - composed of connective tissue and fat, formed by the visceral layer of the pericardium

196
Q

what is the pericardium

A

fibro-serous, fluid filled sack that surrounds the muscular body of the heart and the roots of the great vessels

197
Q

what are the two main layers of pericardium

A

tough fibrous pericardium

thin serous pericardium

198
Q

what are the two divisions of the serous pericardium

A

parietal (outer) and visceral (inner)

199
Q

what are the functions of the pericardium

A

fixes the heart, prevents overfilling, lubrication and protection from infection

200
Q

what artery of the heart does the left circumflex contribute to in 20-25% of people

A

the posterior interventricular artery

201
Q

what does the right coronary artery supply

A

right atrium the SA and AV nodes and the posterior part of the interventricular septum

202
Q

what does the right marginal artery supply

A

the right ventricle apex

203
Q

what does the posterior interventricular artery supply

A

the right and left ventricle and the posterior 1/3 of the interventricular septum

204
Q

what does the left coronary artery supply

A

the ;eft atrium and ventricle, the interventricular septum and the AV bundles

205
Q

what does the left anterior descending artery supply

A

the right and left ventricle and the anterior 2/3 of the interventricular septum

206
Q

what does the left marginal artery supply

A

the left ventricle

207
Q

what does the circumflex artery supply

A

the left atrium and ventricle