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Jemima Flash Cards > NEUROSCIENCE > Flashcards

NEUROSCIENCE Flashcards

1
Q

what separates the temporal, frontal and parietal lobes

A

the lateral fissure

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2
Q

where is the central sulcus found

A

it is from the longitudinal to the lateral fissure

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3
Q

what does the central sulcus separate

A

the frontal from the parietal lobes

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4
Q

what is the grove down the middle of the brain called

A

the longitudinal fissure

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5
Q

what is found on the inferior surface of the brain

A

the frontal and temporal lobes, as well as the pons

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6
Q

what are the three layers of the meninges

A

the dura mater, the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

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7
Q

what are the two layers of the dura mater

A

the outer endosteal layer and the inner meningeal layer

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8
Q

what is the arachnoid mater made from

A

loose web like substance - collagen fibres

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9
Q

what is the function of the dura mater

A

it has a mechanical role, stops the brain moving in the skull and forms the venous sinuses

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10
Q

what is the falx cerebri

A

strong crescent-shaped sheet that represents an invagination of the meningeal layer of the dura mater into the longitudinal fissure, found between the medial surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres

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11
Q

what does the posterior circulation of the brain arise from

A

the vertebral arteries (and basilar)

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12
Q

what is the functions of the frontal lobe

A

voluntary movement of the contralateral part of the brain. the dominant hemisphere has Broca’s area which controls speech. there is intellectual functioning and personality

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13
Q

what is the function of the temporal lobe

A

understanding language and processing auditory information. Wernicke’s area is present here. Also involves in long term memory

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14
Q

what is the function of the parietal lobe

A

receives and interprets sensation such as pain, touch, pressure, size, shape. important from proprioception

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15
Q

what is the function of the occipital lobe

A

visual, and meaning of written words. Visuospatial processing and object/facial recognition and colour determination

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16
Q

what are the arteries that are in the circle of willis

A

the internal carotid, middle, anterior and posterior cerebral arteries, joined by the anterior and posterior communicating arteries

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17
Q

what are the branches off the basilar artery

A

the anterior inferior cerebellar artery , the pontine arteries and labyrinthine arteries, superior cerebellar artery

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18
Q

what is a berry aneurysm

A

out pouching in the circle of willis which occurs at the bifurcations

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19
Q

what part of the brain does the anterior cerebral artery supply

A

medial surface of each hemisphere, most of the frontal, most of the corpus callosum, some deep structures

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20
Q

where does the middle cerebral artery supply

A

the lateral aspect of the brain - most of the primary motor and sensory cortex

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21
Q

where does the posterior cerebral artery supply

A

occipital lobe, inferior and posterior temporal lobe, thalamus and choroid plexus

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22
Q

what does loss of the anterior cerebral artery cause

A

loss of contralateral motor and sensory functions of the lower limbs. Loss of speech

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23
Q

what does loss of the middle cerebral artery cause

A

contralateral motor and sensory function loss of the upper limb and face

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24
Q

what does loss of the posterior cerebral artery cause

A

vision loss leading to contralateral homonymous hemianopia

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25
Q

what is the venous drainage of the brain

A

two veins - the internal and external cerebral veins, the internal veins drain into the external cerebral veins

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26
Q

where do the external cerebral veins drain into

A

into the dural venous

sinuses

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27
Q

what are the main cerebral sinuses

A

the straight, inferior and superior sagittal sinuses, which all flow into the confluence of the sinuses.

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28
Q

where does blood flow after the confluence of the sinuses

A

into the transverse sinus, then to the sigmoid sinus, and finally into the internal jugular vein

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29
Q

where does the cavernous sinus flow into

A

the superior and inferior petrosal sinus

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30
Q

what is found in the cavernous sinus

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, maxillary, abducens and trochlear nerves as well as the carotid artery

O TOM CAT

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31
Q

what cranial nerves have parasympathetic activity

A

10, 9, 7, 3

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32
Q

what is CN1

A

olfactory

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33
Q

what is the function of CN1

A

smell

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34
Q

what is the path that CN1 takes

A

olfactory epithelium to the olfactory bulb. from there to the primary olfaction cortex

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35
Q

what is the function of CN2

A

vision and pupillary reflex

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36
Q

what is the function of CN3

A

light reflex (constricts the pupil) and supplies all eye muscles bar the lateral rectus and the superior oblique

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37
Q

what is the function of CN4

A

supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye

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38
Q

what is the function of CN5

A

supplies the face with the three divisions dividing the face up. the mandibular branch also has motor function which helps with mastication

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39
Q

what is the function of CN6

A

supplies the lateral rectus in the eye

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40
Q

what are the different divisions of the CN7

A

temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular and cervical

Ten Zombies Bit My Cat

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41
Q

what is the function of CN7

A

controls the muscles of facial expression, and gives taste sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue

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42
Q

what is the function of CN8

A

supplies the vestibular system and cortical system in the ear for hearing and balance

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43
Q

what is the function of CN9

A

Sensory: Innervates the oropharynx, carotid body and sinus, posterior 1/3 of the tongue, middle ear cavity and Eustachian tube.

Special sensory: Provides taste sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue.

Parasympathetic: Provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland.

Motor: Innervates the stylopharyngeus muscle of the pharynx.

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44
Q

what is the function of CN10

A

Sensory: Innervates the skin of the external acoustic meatus and the internal surfaces of the laryngopharynx and larynx. Provides visceral sensation to the heart and abdominal viscera.
Special Sensory: Provides taste sensation to the epiglottis and root of the tongue.
Motor: Provides motor innervation to the majority of the muscles of the pharynx, soft palate and larynx.
Parasympathetic: Innervates the smooth muscle of the trachea, bronchi and gastro-intestinal tract and regulates heart rhythm.

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45
Q

What is the function of CN11

A

supplies motor function to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscle

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46
Q

what is the function of CN12

A

it innervates the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue

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47
Q

what are the three layers of the eye

A

the outer, middle and inner eye

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48
Q

what is in the outer eye

A

the sclera (white part) and the cornea which is the first point of refraction

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49
Q

what is in the middle eye

A

the iris which contains the sphincter pupillae, the dilator papillae and the colour of the eye, and the choroid, the ciliary body and the lens

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50
Q

what is in the inner eye

A

the retina which detects light , has an outer pigmented layer which has melanin and an inner neural layer which contains photoreceptors

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51
Q

what are the 6 main muscles of the eye

A

the superior, inferior, lateral and medial rectus

the superior and inferior oblique

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52
Q

what is the function of the lateral rectus

A

moves the eye away from the midline - abduction

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53
Q

what is the function of the medial rectus

A

adducts the eye, brings the eye closer to the midline

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54
Q

what is the function of the superior rectus

A

brings the eye upward, also has a slight adduction and intorsion effect

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55
Q

what is the function of the inferior oblique

A

corrects adduction from the superior rectus (extorsion)

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56
Q

what is the function of the inferior rectus

A

looks down and abducts the eye extorsion

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57
Q

what is the function of the superior oblique

A

corrects abduction from the interior rectus - intorsion

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58
Q

what do you have to do to the visual field to give you the retinal field

A

you have to flip it horizontally and then vertically

- same as flipping it diagonally

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59
Q

describe the optic pathway

A

the left and right optic nerves meet at the optic chiasm. here fibres from the medial retinal field (both eyes) decussates. the two optic tracts then travel to the right and left geniculate nucleus and then to the visual cortex, travelling through either the temporal or parietal lobe (upper and lower radiations)

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60
Q

what happens if you damage an optic tract

A

you get contralateral homonymous hemianopia (lose the same side of vision on both eyes)

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61
Q

what is the external ear

A

the auricle, the external acoustic meatus and the tympanic membrane

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62
Q

what is the middle ear

A

middle ear bones, muscles and cavity

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63
Q

what are the middle ear bones

A

the ossicles - the malleus, the incus and stapes.

they connect middle and inner ear

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64
Q

what are the middle ear muscles

A

the stapedius and the tensor tympani

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65
Q

what is the function of the stapedius muscle

A

to dampen the stapes bone

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66
Q

what is the function of the tensor tympani

A

it tenses the tympanic membrane to prevent excessive vibrations

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67
Q

what is the middle ear cavity

A

the Eustachian tube which connects the inner ear to the nasopharynx

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68
Q

what is the purpose of the Eustachian tube

A

to balance pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane

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69
Q

what are the sections of the inner ear

A

the semicircular canals, the vestibule and the cochlea

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70
Q

what is the function of the semicircular canals

A

detects changes in dynamic equilibrium and is important in balance

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71
Q

what is the function of the vestibule of the inner ear

A

utricle and saccule - detects changes in dynamic equilibrium (position)

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72
Q

what is the function of the cochlea

A

sound detection

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73
Q

what are the parts of the cochlea

A

scala vestibuli, scala media/cochlear duct - organ of corti and scala tympani

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74
Q

what part of the tectorial membrane detects high pitched and low pitched sounds

A

the far end of the membrane detects low pitched sound, and the close end detects high pitched sound

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75
Q

what is the pathway that the CN8 takes

A

cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus, lateral lemniscus, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate body, auditory cortex

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76
Q

what is the function of the basal ganglia

A

important in control of movement - smooth and fine tuning of movement

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77
Q

what are the parts of the basal ganglia

A

caudate nucleus, thalamus, external globus pallidus, internal global pallidus, substantia nigra, putamen

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78
Q

what structure does the caudate and putamen form

A

the striatum

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79
Q

what structure does the globus pallidus and putamen form

A

the lentiform nucleus

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80
Q

what is the substantia nigra made up of

A

the pars reticularis and pars compacta

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81
Q

what are the three pathways involved with the basal ganglia

A

the direct, indirect and nigrostriatal

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82
Q

what is the function of the direct basal ganglia pathway

A

stimulates desirable movement

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83
Q

what is the function of the indirect basal ganglia pathway

A

inhibits undesirable movement

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84
Q

what is the function of the nigrostriatal basal ganglia pathway

A

modulates the direct and indirect pathways

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85
Q

what happens in parkinsons

A

there is a depletion of dopamine in the substantia nigra

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86
Q

what happens in huntingtons

A

there is too many CAG repeats which causes too much dopamine (not enough GABA to inhibit it)

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87
Q

what are the two sections of the sphenoid bone

A

the petrous and squamous parts

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88
Q

where does CN 1 leave the skull

A

the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone

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89
Q

where does CN2 leave the skull

A

the optic canal

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90
Q

where does the CN3 leave the skull

A

the superior orbital fissure

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91
Q

where does CN4 leave the skull

A

the superior orbital fissure

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92
Q

where does CN5 leave the skull

A

ophthalmic - superior orbital fissure
maxillary - foramen rotundum
mandibular - foramen ovalae

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93
Q

where does CN6 leave the skull

A

superior orbital fissure

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94
Q

where does CN7 leave the skull

A

internal acoustic meatus

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95
Q

where does CN8 leave the skull

A

the internal acoustic meatus

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96
Q

where does CN9 leave the skull

A

jugular foramen

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97
Q

where does CN10 leave the skull

A

the jugular foramen

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98
Q

where does CN11 leave the skull

A

the jugular foramen

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99
Q

where does CN12 leave the skull

A

the hypoglossal canal

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100
Q

what passes through the foramen spinosum

A

the middle meningeal artery (for the jaw and meninges)

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101
Q

what path does the internal carotid artery take

A

enters into the base of the skull and through the petrous portion of the temporal bone (carotid canal) and then travels superior to the foramen lacerum, doing a right angle to enter the skull

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102
Q

what are the sections of the spine

A 
cervical - 7 
thoracic - 12 
lumbar - 5 
sacrum - 5 fused 
coccyx - 4 fused
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103
Q

what is the anterior portion of the vertebrae

A

the vertebral body

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104
Q

what are the transverse processes of the spine

A

small bony projection off the right and left side of each vertebrae

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105
Q

where are the spinal processes of the vertebrae

A

Spinous process is a bony projection off the posterior (back) of each vertebra

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106
Q

what are the defining features of the cervical vertebra

A

atlas, axis, there are bifid spinous processes and a transverse foramen

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107
Q

what are the defining features of the thoracic vertebra

A

they have rib articulations by the costovertebral joints. they have longer thin spinal processes

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108
Q

what are the defining features of the lumbar vertebra

A

the vertebral body is much lager, the spinous processes are thicker and there is triangular foramen

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109
Q

what are the features of the spinal cord

A

there are two thicker cervical and lumbar enlargements. spinal cord ends at the conus medullaris and becomes the cauda equina from L2 and finally ends with the filum terminale

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110
Q

where does an epidural go

A

goes between the dura and the vertebral bodies

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111
Q

where does spinal anesthetic go

A

between the dura and subarachnoid space

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112
Q

where does a lumbar puncture go

A

inserts into the subarachnoid space to take a sample of CSF

L3/4

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113
Q

what nerves are in the dorsal/posterior root

A

sensory

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114
Q

what nerves are in the anterior/ventral root

A

motor

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115
Q

what are the two divisions of the spinothalamic tract

A

lateral and anterior

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116
Q

what does the anterior spinothalamic tract detect

A

crude touch and pressure

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117
Q

what does the lateral spinothalamic tract detect

A

temperature and pain

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118
Q

what does the DCML detect

A

fine touch, vibration and proprioception

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119
Q

what is the path the DCML takes

A

upper limb - T6 and above, with information traveling in the fasciculus cuneatus in the lateral portion. this synapses in the nucleus cuneatus. T6 and below travels in the fasciculus gracile in the medial portion and synapses at the gracile nucleus.
it decussates at the medulla to the thalamus and then to the sensory cortex

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120
Q

what are the spinocerebellar tracts

A

posterior spinocerebellar
cuneocerebellar
anterior cerebellar
rostral cerebellar

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121
Q

what does the posterior spinocerebellar tract detect

A

proprioceptive sensation in the lower limbs - ipsilateral

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122
Q

what does the cuneocerebellar tract detect

A

proprioceptive sensation from upper limbs - ipsilateral

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123
Q

what does the anterior spinocerebellar tract detect

A

sensation from lower limbs and ipsilateral but it decussates twice

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124
Q

what does the rostral spinocerebellar tract detect

A

sensation in upper limbs and ipsilateral

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125
Q

what is the path of the corticospinal tract

A

starts in the motor cortex, moving to the internal capsule, crus cerebri and then divides at the most inferior aspect of the medulla oblongata into anterior and lateral.
lateral (80%) decussates straight after the medulla and supplies muscle fibres in the body. the anterior remains ipsilateral and decussates at the exit level in the spine

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126
Q

what happens in a lenticulostriate artery hemorrhage/stroke

A

can cause damage to the internal capsule which means no motor/sensory function

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127
Q

what are the extrapyramidal tracts

A

vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, rubrospinal, tectospinal

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128
Q

what is the vestibulospinal tract for

A

balance and posture information to antigravity muscles - flexors and extensors

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129
Q

what is the reticulospinal tract function

A

medial from the pons involved in voluntary movement and increases muscle tone

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130
Q

what is the rubrospinal tract function

A

red nucleus in involved in fine hand movement - decussates

131
Q

what is the tectospinal tract function

A

vision - controls movement of the head to visual stimuli. decussates

132
Q

what are the two main neurotransmitters in the CNS

A

glutamic acid (excitatory) and GABA (inhibitory)

133
Q

what are the two main neurotransmitters in the PNS

A

acetylcholine and noradrenaline

134
Q

Woman has a stab wound to the back which has completely severed the right side of her spinal cord at T12. what typical pattern of a hemi-section of the spinal cord

A

There everything on the right will be affected below the level of damage
Below T6 there will be no corticospinal (motor) to ipsilateral lower limbs
Damage to the DCML ipsilateral loss of vibration, pine touch and proprioception
On the contralateral side there will be spinothalamic problems, you will lose pain, temperature and crude touch sensations

135
Q

what is the motor supply to the tongue

A

all intrinsic muscles are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve 12 , except the palatoglossus which is supplied by nerve 10

136
Q

what is the general sensation nerve supply to the tongue

A

anterior 2/3 is the inguinal branch of the mandibular nerve
posterior 1/3 is by the glossopharyngeal nerve
the base of the tongue is by the superior laryngeal nerve (vagus)

137
Q

what is taste nerve supply of the tongue

A

anterior 2/3 by the chorda tympani branch of the facial
posterior 1/3 by the glossopharyngeal nerve
base of the tongue is by the superior laryngeal nerve (vagus)

138
Q

what happens in upper motor neuron damage

A

hypertonia, Babinski sign, hyperreflexia, increased spasticity, decreased control of movement

139
Q

what happens in lower motor neuron lesion

A

muscle paralysis, fasciculations, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, muscle weakness and wasting

140
Q

what happens when there is an optic nerve lesion

A

monocular vision loss

141
Q

what happens when there is a lesion at the optic chiasm

A

bitemporal hemianopia

- half blindness in both eyes

142
Q

what happens when there is a lesion in one of the optic tracts

A

homonymous hemianopia

-loose vision on the same side of both eyes

143
Q

what happens when you have a lesion in the optic radiations

A

quadrantanopia - will be either inferior or superior depending on if the inferior or superior optic radiations are damaged

144
Q

what cranial nerve supplies the levator palpebrae superioris

A

the oculomotor nerve

145
Q

what is macula sparing

A

macular sparing is visual field loss that preserves vision in the center of the visual field

146
Q

what nerve supplies the frontal, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses

A

the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

147
Q

what nerve supplies the maxillary and sphenoid sinuses

A

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

148
Q

what is bells palsy

A

it is unilateral weakness to the fac due to an issue with the facial nerve

149
Q

which of the cranial nerves leave the brainstem

A

from cranial nerve 3 onward

150
Q

what are the different neuroglial cells

A

schwann cells, atrocytes, microglial cells, ependymal cells

151
Q

what is the function of astrocytes

A

coats capillaries, provides physical support and can uptake certain neurotransmitters and potassium ions - helps maintain blood brain barrier

152
Q

what is the function of microglial cells

A

protection from bacteria and viruses, helps with reaggregation after injury

153
Q

what is the function of ependymal cells

A

small ciliated cuboidal epithelial cells that line the ventricles and make CSF

154
Q

what is the diencephalon

A

The diencephalon is a small part of the brain that is mostly hidden from view when you are looking at the outside of the brain. It is divided into four parts: the epithalamus, thalamus, subthalamus, and hypothalamus.

155
Q

what is the function of the hypothalamus

A

for emotions as well as controlling your hormone system

156
Q

where is the cingulate gyrus found

A

it is found above the corpus callosum

157
Q

what is the corpus callosum

A

the area which connects the two hemispheres of the brain

158
Q

what is the function of the limbic system

A

short term memory, emotions and behaviour

159
Q

what structures are found in the limbic system

A

the amygdala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, and cingulate gyrus.

160
Q

what connects the cerebellum to the brainstem

A

the peduncles,

superior, middle and inferior

161
Q

what is the function of the superior peduncle

A

connects the cerebellum to the midbrain, feedback to the cerebrum

162
Q

what is the function of the middle peduncle

A

conveys impulses of voluntary movement from the cerebrum through the pons to the cerebrum

163
Q

what is the function of the inferior peduncle

A

connects the cerebellum to the medulla and the spinal cord, it contains both incoming vestibular and proprioceptive fibres and outgoing motor fibres

164
Q

how does the cerebellum help with movement

A

Motor cortex will send signals via the thalamus to the cerebellum - intent to start movement. This will be sent through the middle peduncle.
Information from the proprioceptors will enter into cerebellum via the inferior peduncles. The cerebellum will send signals via the superior peduncle, via thalamus to the motor cortex. Then the motor cortex will send a signal from the motor cortex via the brainstem to the muscles.

165
Q

which spinal tract is involved with pain sensation

A

the spinothalamic tract

166
Q

what is the function of the basal ganglia

A

Subcortical structures in deep white matter - extrapyramidal motor movement
Regulation of involuntary movement
Fine tunes voluntary movement
Involved in posture

167
Q

what nerves supply the external ear

A

trigeminal, C2 and C3 spinal nerves

168
Q

what structures make up the uvula

A

the choroid ciliary bodies and the iris

169
Q

what fluid is found in the posterior cavity of the eye

A

vitreous humour

170
Q

what fluid is found in the posterior chamber of the anterior cavity of the eye

A

aqueous humour

171
Q

what are the sinuses in the head

A

sphenoid sinus, frontal sinus, maxillary sinus, ethmoid sinus

172
Q

what is the inferior border of the nasal cavity

A

the palate - hard and soft

173
Q

where is the sphenoid sinus in relation to the nasal cavity

A

posterior and superior

174
Q

what is present on either side of the nasal cavity

A

the nasal conchae - inferior, middle and superior

175
Q

what is found behind the nasal conchae

A

the nasal meatus - inferior middle and superior

176
Q

where does the sphenoid sinus drain into

A

the superior meatus

177
Q

where does the frontal sinus drain into

A

the middle meatus

178
Q

what is olfactory epithelium

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

179
Q

where does the maxillary sinus drain into

A

the middle meatus

180
Q

where does the ethmoid sinus train into

A

the middle and superior meatus

181
Q

what is ptosis

A

inability to lift the eyelid properly

182
Q

what is the roof of the orbit of the eye

A

the frontal and sphenoid bone

183
Q

what is the medial boundary of the orbit of the eye

A

the maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid and sphenoid bone

184
Q

what is the inferior border of the orbit of the eye

A

the roof of the maxillary sinus (maxilla, zygomatic and palatine bones)

185
Q

what is the lateral border of the orbit of the eye

A

zygomatic bone and wing of sphenoid bone

186
Q

what is accommodation

A

as light passes through the eye, it is bent by the cornea and lens onto the retina.
this occurs when you focus on something up close

187
Q

what are the two muscles of the iris

A

the sphincter and dilator muscles

188
Q

what does parasympathetic innervation to iris muscles cause

A

sphincter muscle innervation, contraction of the iris causing a rounded strong lens, and smaller pupil

189
Q

what is the outermost layer of the eye

A

the conjunctiva

190
Q

what are the emissary veins of the skull

A

those that are coming from outside the skull

191
Q

what are the diploic veins of the skull

A

they drain the bones of the skull

192
Q

what is the falx cerebri

A

a fold in the dura mater which is between the cerebral hemispheres

193
Q

what is the pathway of the ophthalmic vein to the internal jugular vein

A

ophthalmic vein, cavernous sinus, petrosal sinuses, internal jugular vein

194
Q

what are the two main functions of the meninges

A

support network for the brain and vasculature and acts with the CSF to protect the brain from mechanical damage

195
Q

where is CSF produced in the brain

A

the choroid plexus - by ependymal cells

196
Q

what are the ventricles of the brain

A

the two lateral ventricles, 3rd and 4th ventricle

197
Q

how does CSF drain between the third and fourth ventricle

A

via the cerebral aqueduct

198
Q

how does CSF drain into the subarachnoid space

A

via the foramina of lushka, or via the foramen of megendie

199
Q

where does the fourth ventricle become the central canal

A

at the obex

200
Q

what are the structures of the forebrain

A

the telencephalon and the diencephalon

201
Q

what is the structure of the midbrain

A

the mesencephalon

202
Q

what is are the structures of the hindbrain

A

the metencephalon and myelencephalon

203
Q

what is found in the telencephalon

A

the cerebral hemispheres

204
Q

what is found in the diencephalon

A

the thalamus and hypothalamus

205
Q

what is found in the metencephalon

A

the cerebellum and pons

206
Q

what is found in the myelencephalon

A

the medulla

207
Q

what is Broca’s area responsible for

A

language production - control of mouth and laryngeal muscles

208
Q

what is Wernickes area responsible for

A

understanding speech and written language

209
Q

what does the direct pathway of the basal ganglia do

A

it initiates motor movement - excitatory

210
Q

what does the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia do

A

it inhibits motor movement

211
Q

describe the direct pathway of the basal ganglia

A

the motor cortex excites the striatum which in turn inhibits the internal globus pallidus and the substantia nigra pars reticulata. this feeds back to the thalamus which sends excitation to the motor cortex and initiates movement

212
Q

describe the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia

A

Primary motor cortex sends excitatory signals to the putamen (dorsal striatum) via glutamate
This results in the striatum sending inhibitory signals to the external globus pallidus via GABA
This inhibits the external globus pallidus so it cannot inhibit the subthalamic nucleus
Therefore, the subthalamic nucleus sends excitatory signals to the internal globus pallidus and pars reticulata via glutamate
This results in inhibitory signals being sent to the thalamus via GABA causing a decrease or stop in movement

213
Q

what structures does the limbic system include

A

the amygdala, the fornix, the hippocampus, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the hypothalamus

214
Q

what is the papez circuit

A

the part of the limbic system responsible for memory processing

215
Q

what is the path of the papez circuit

A

cingulate gyrus to parahippocampal region (via cingulum). then to the hippocampus. from the hippocampus to the mammillary bodies via the fornix. from the mammillary bodies to the anterior thalamic nuclei via the mammillothalamic tract, and then back to the cingulate gyrus

216
Q

what is the function of the midbrain

A

motor control, vision, hearing, sleep, temperature regulation

217
Q

what is the function of the pons

A

breathing control, connection between cerebrum and cerebellum, many spinal tracts pass through here

218
Q

what is the function of the medulla

A

cardiac, respiratory, vomiting and vasomotor control. sleep wake cycle. many spinal tracts pass through here

219
Q

what are the sections of the midbrain

A

ventral portion - tegmentum
dorsal portion - tectum
made up of the superior and inferior colliculi

220
Q

what are the cerebral peduncles

A

they are white matter which connects the cerebral hemispheres with the brainstem (midbrain)

221
Q

what is the periaqueductal grey matter

A

found in the midbrain, surrounding the cerebral aqueduct - it has a role in the autonomic functions of behaviour and pain

222
Q

what cranial nerve nuclei are present in the pons

A

The nuclei of the trigeminal nerve (V), abducens nerve (VI), facial nerve (VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) are located in the pons

223
Q

what cranial nerve nuclei are in the medulla

A

The nuclei of the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), vagus nerve (X), accessory nerve (XI) and hypoglossal nerve (XII) are located in the medulla. The fibers of these cranial nerves exit the brainstem from these nuclei

224
Q

what cranial nerve nuclei are in the midbrain

A

The nuclei of the oculomotor nerve (III) and trochlear nerve (IV) are located in the midbrain.

225
Q

what structures are found in the medulla

A

the pyramids, the olivary nucleus, the anterior fissure, the cochlear nuclei

226
Q

what is the central joining structure of the cerebellum

A

the vermis

227
Q

what structures does the corda equina innervate

A

pelvic organs, bladder, sphincters and lower limb muscles

228
Q

where do the extrapyramidal tracts originate from

A

the brainstem

229
Q

what does the intermediate column and lateral horn innervate

A

visceral and pelvic organs

230
Q

what is the corticobulbar tract

A

it sends voluntary motor control to the muscles of the head and neck

231
Q

what are some examples of spinal reflexes

A

biceps reflex - C5-6
Patellar reflex - L2-4
triceps reflex - C7-8
Achilles reflex - S1

232
Q

what is the prosencephalon

A

the embryonic forebrain

233
Q

what is the rhombencephalon

A

the embryonic hindbrain

234
Q

describe an action potential

A

an action potential propagating down an axon causes voltage gated sodium channels to open, causing sodium to move into the cell. this causes membrane potential to rise above threshold (-55mV) causing depolarisation. At 30mV sodium channels close and potassium channels open, causing repolarisation as potassium moves out the cell (get hyperpolarisation with a refractory period)

235
Q

what are the two types of summation

A

spatial - several presynaptic to 1 post

temporal - increased frequency

236
Q

what is a motor unit

A

an alpha neuron plus all extrafusal fibres it innervates

237
Q

what is a muscle spindle

A

an afferent neuron wrapped round an intrafusal fibre

238
Q

what is the efferent supply for a muscle spindle

A

gamma neurons = prevents the intrafusal fibre from becoming slack

239
Q

what is the afferent supply for muscle spindles

A

type 1a and type 2 fibres (type 2 are slower)

240
Q

what do muscle spindles detect

A

amount of stretch, and the rate of change of length of a muscle

241
Q

what does a golgi tendon organ detect

A

amount of tension/weight of a muscle

242
Q

what is a golgi tendon organ

A

afferent fibres wrapped round collagen bundles in a muscle tendon

243
Q

What afferent fibres are golgi tendon organs associated with

A

Type 1 b fibres

244
Q

What is the purpose of a golfi tendon organ

A

To prevent over load or over stretch of a muscle

245
Q

what is the cerebral peduncle

A

it is the midbrain ventral to the aqueduct

246
Q

what are the gyri of the brain

A

the rolls of cerebral cortex

247
Q

what are the sulci of the brain

A

the grooves between the gyri

248
Q

what is the foramen of magendie

A

a midline communication between the 4th ventricle and the subarachnoid space

249
Q

what is the foramen of luschka

A

a lateral communication between the 4th ventricle and subarachnoid space

250
Q

where do the arteries of the brain lie

A

in the subarachnoid space

251
Q

what is the internal carotid system

A

internal carotid enters in via the temporal bone to lie in the carotid canal. the artery then pierces the dura forming the roof of the cavernous sinus to enter the cranial cavity. when it reaches the anterior perforated substance at the middle end of the lateral sulcus it divides into its terminal branches - anterior and middle cerebral arteries

252
Q

where does the vertebral artery arise from

A

the first part of the subclavian artery

253
Q

what are the internal cerebral veins

A

these run within the substance of brain tissue and end when they reach the surface of the brain where they become the external cerebral veins

254
Q

what are the external cerebral veins

A

these run onto the surface of the brain crossing the subarachnoid space to drain into the dural venous sinuses

255
Q

where does the frontal part of the brain sit in the skull

A

in the anterior cranial fossa

256
Q

what is contained within the middle cranial fossa

A

temporal, parietal and occipital lobed of the brain

257
Q

what is contained within the posterior cranial fossa

A

the occipital bone, the foramen magnum, the hypoglossal canal and the internal acoustic meatus

258
Q

what would the symptoms of a raised intercranial pressure be

A

headache, nausea, visual disturbance, later altered consciousness

259
Q

what does the lacrimal nerve supply

A

the lacrimal gland - tear duct

260
Q

what are the lacrimal puncti

A

the are small holes in the upper and lower eyelids

261
Q

what is the parasympathetic outflow from the CNS via

A

the III, VII, IX and X cranial nerves as well as the sacral spinal segments 2, 3 and 4

262
Q

where do the parasympathetic fibres in the third cranial nerve originate from

A

from the edinger - westphal nucleus in the mid brain

263
Q

what do the parasympathetic fibres in the VII cranial nerve supply

A

the lacrimal gland

264
Q

what is the sympathetic outflow from the CNS via

A

the spinal segments Thoracic 1 - Lumbar 2

265
Q

what is jugular foramen syndrome

A

compression of multiple lower cranial nerves (IX, X, XI) leads to signs and symptoms including dysphonia, loss of gag reflex, and unilateral wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

266
Q

what part o the brainstem are the mamillary bodies found on

A

the midbrain

267
Q

where is the interpeduncular fossa found

A

on the midbrain

268
Q

what is the basilar sulcus and where is it found

A

it is a shallow sulcus where the basilar artery runs and it is in the pons

269
Q

what is the anterior median fissure and where is it found

A

a partial division - found in the medulla (ventral)

270
Q

what are the pyramids and where are they found

A

they are elongated swellings making the position of the underlying fibres passeing from the cerebral hemisphere to the spine - corticospinal tract
it is found on the medulla

271
Q

what are the olives and where are they found

A

this is lateral to the ventrolateral sulcus and is caused by the presence of the underlying inferior olivary nucleus (movement)
- found in the midbrain

272
Q

what partof the midbrain makes up the tectum

A

the midbrain dorsal to the aqueduct

273
Q

what part of the midbrain makes up the tegmentum

A

the midbrain ventral to the aqueduct - made up of nerve fibres entering and leaving the cerebral hemispheres

274
Q

what is the superior colliculi and where is it found

A

it is part of the visual system - concerned with eye reflex and is found in the midbrain

275
Q

what is the inferior colliculi and where is it found

A

it is part of the auditory system and is concerned with the reflex of looking towards a noise
- found in the midbrain

276
Q

what is the pineal glands function and where is it found

A

it is found in the midbrain, and secretes melatonin

277
Q

what is the inferior brachiom pathway

A

conveys auditory information from the medial geniculate body to the inferior colliculi

278
Q

what is the function of the superior brachium

A

conveys visual information from the lateral geniculate body to the superior colliculi

279
Q

what is the contents of the tegmentum

A

the nuclei of the abducent, facial, trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory and hypoglossal nerves

280
Q

what is the gracile tubercle found on the medulla

A

a round swelling on either side of the midline

281
Q

what is the cuneate tubercle of the medulla

A

a swelling lateral to the gracile tubercle

282
Q

what are the sensory cranial nerves (not both)

A

I, II, VIII

283
Q

what are the motor cranial nerves (not both)

A

III, IV, VI, XI, XII

284
Q

what are the cranial nerves that supply both sensory and motor function

A

V, VII, IX, X

285
Q

what part of the brain does the 12 cranial nerves have their nuclei

A

1 and 2 - in the cerebrum
3 and 4 - from the midbrain
5, 6, 7, and 8 - from the pons
9, 10, 11 and 12 from the medulla

286
Q

what is the only cranial nerve that comes from the back (posterior) of the brainstem

A

the trochlear nerve

287
Q

what are the ridges of the cerebellum called

A

folia

288
Q

what is the function of the cerebral aqueduct

A

it interconnects the thirst and the fourth ventricle

289
Q

what does the primary fissure of the cerebellum separate

A

the anterior and posterior lobes

290
Q

what is the tonsil of the cerebellum

A

it is a prominent rounded swelling of the cerebellar cortex anterior on either side of the vermis

291
Q

what is the flocculo-nodular love associated with

A

it is the floccus and the noducle together and is primarily concerned with vestibular information

292
Q

what is the dentate nucleus of the cerebellum

A

it is the largest and most lateral of the deep cerebellar nuclei, and passes to the superior cerebellar peduncle. it is afferent, and uses sensory information about balance and sensation form the vestibular nucleus

293
Q

what is the rhomboid fossa in relation to the ventricles

A

the diamond shaped floor of the 4th ventricle

294
Q

what is the area postrema involved with

A

it is a site associated with nausea control - chemoreceptor trigger zone

295
Q

what structure does the hypothalamus and thalamus make together

A

the diencephalin

296
Q

what is the function of the fornix

A

connects the hippocampus with the diencephalon and the precommissural septum

297
Q

what is the function of the medial geniculate body

A

to relay auditory information from the midbrain to the auditory cortex

298
Q

what is the function of the lateral geniculate body

A

relays visual information from the optic nerve to the visual cortex via the optic radiations

299
Q

what are association fibres

A

they link cortical regions within the same hemisphere

300
Q

what are commissural fibres

A

these link similar functional areas of the two hemispheres

301
Q

what are projection fibres

A

these link the cortex with subcortical structures

302
Q

where is the choroid fissure

A

it is a narrow cleft between the thalamus and the fornix

303
Q

what happens in a limbic system lesion

A

can results in anterograde amnesia, generation of emotions and emotional responses in the absence of stimuli, production of inappropriate emotional responses, inability to detect emotional response in others

304
Q

what is hydrocephalus

A

a blockage of CSF flow in the ventricles or subarachnoid space leading to a rise in fluid pressure causing the ventricles to swell

305
Q

what is the insular cortex of the basal ganglia responsible for

A

taste and interception

306
Q

what separates the thalamus from the lentiform nucleus

A

the internal capsule

307
Q

what are the constituents that comprise the basal ganglia

A

the globus pallidus, the internal capsule, the caudate nucleus, the putamen, the substantia nigra, the subthalamic nucleus

308
Q

where do the ribs bind onto the thoracic vertibrae

A

the costal facets

309
Q

what is the uppermost part of the spinous process that is palpable

A

C7

310
Q

where in the spine is rotation at a maximum

A

thoracic region

311
Q

where in the spine is there the most limited rotation

A

the lumbar region

312
Q

where is there the least flexion and extension in the spine

A

thoracic region - due to the ribs

313
Q

what are the two parts of the intervertebral discs

A

the nucleus pulposus which is surrounded by the annulus fibrosus

314
Q

what two structures is the annulus fibrosus attached to

A

the vertebral body and the posterior longitudinal ligament

315
Q

what is found on the outer edges of the intervertebral discs

A

hyaline cartilage

316
Q

what does the ligamentum flavus connect

A

The ligamenta flavum is a short but thick ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae from C2 to S1

317
Q

what happens during spinal herniation

A

the annulus fibrosus no longer contains the nucleus pulposus and it bilges into the spinal canal/intervertebral foramina and compresses the nerve

318
Q

what spinal region is the most common for herniation

A

the lumbar region

319
Q

what is the epidural space (spine)

A

space between the vertebrae and the dura mater

320
Q

what are the segments of the spinal nerves

A

31

  • 8 cervical
  • 12 thoracic
  • 5 lumbar
  • 5 sacral
  • 1 coccyx
321
Q

where does the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine connect

A

The posterior longitudinal ligament connects and stabilizes the bones of the spinal column. It runs almost the entire length of the spine, from the 2nd vertebra in the cervical spine (neck) all the way down to the sacrum (end of the spine). The ligament is adjacent to the spinal cord.

322
Q

what is the function of the interspinous ligament of the spine

A

thin and membranous ligaments, that connect adjoining spinous processes of the vertebra in the spine. They extend from the root to the apex of each spinous process. They meet the ligamenta flava in front and blend with the supraspinous ligament behind.

323
Q

what is the function of the supraspinous ligament

A

connects together the apices of the spinous processes from the seventh cervical vertebra to 3rd or 4th lumbar vertebrae. the role of the interspinous ligament is to limit flexion (bending forwards) through restricting separation of the spinous processes of the vertebral column

Jemima Flash Cards (9 decks)

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