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IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

what are peroxisomes

A

catalase containing vesicles, which converts 2H2O2 to 2H2O and O2
- beta oxidation of fatty acids

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2
Q

what are the structures found in the mitochondria

A

matrix (where krebs occurs), crista (ETC) and the inner membrane

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3
Q

what is the function of mitochondria

A

respiration and energy generation

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4
Q

what is the function of ribosomes

A

Site of protein synthesis

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5
Q

what is the function of RER

A

synthesis and processing of proteins

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6
Q

what is the function of SER

A

lipid synthesis

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7
Q

what is the function of the golgi

A

processing and packaging of proteins

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8
Q

what is the function of lysosomes

A

contains acid hydrolases for digestion and recycling

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9
Q

what is the function of peroxisomes

A

fatty acid and ethanol oxidation - contains catalase

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10
Q

what is lipofuscin

A

yellow brown pigment granules which is made from lipids containing residues of lysosomal digestion. (wear and tear pigment from peroxidation of lipids)

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11
Q

where are lipids stored

A

they are stored in adipocytes as triglycerides, in cell membranes, in lipoproteins as HDLs and LDLs

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12
Q

what are the different ways molecules move across a membrane

A

simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport

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13
Q

what are the different cell junctions

A

Tight junction, adherends junction, desmosome, hemidesmosome and gap junction

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14
Q

what is a tight junction

A

seals neighboring cells together in an epithelial sheet and prevents leakage between them

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15
Q

what are adherends junctions

A

joins an actin bundle in one cell to one in another cell

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16
Q

what is the function of desmosomes

A

they join the intermediate filaments from one cell to those in another

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17
Q

what is the function of hemidesmosomes

A

anchors the intermediate filaments in a cell to basal lamina

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18
Q

what is the function of gap junctions

A

allows the passage of small water soluble ions and molecules

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19
Q

what is the definition of homeostasis

A

maintenance of constant internal environment

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20
Q

what is merocrine, apocrine and holocrine secretion

A

merocrine is no part of the cell is lost in secretion. apocrine is that the top of the cell is lost in secretion and holocrine is the whole cell is lost with secretion

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21
Q

Based on a 70kg male, what is the water distribution in their fluid compartments

A

total is 42L. intracellular fluid is 28L, ECF is 14L, interstitial fluid is 11L and plasma is 3L

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22
Q

what is osmosis

A

the net diffusion of water across a partially permeable membrane from a high to low water potential

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23
Q

what is osmolality

A

the total solute concentration of a solution - number of solute particles per Kg, the higher the osmolality the lower the water potential

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24
Q

what is osmolarity

A

total solute concentration of a solution the number of solute particles per 1L of solvent (high osmolarity is a lower water potential)

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25
Q

what is the osmotic pressure

A

pressure that must be applied to a solution on side of a membrane to prevent osmotic flow of water across the membrane from a compartment of pure water

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26
Q

what is the oncotic pressure

A

form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins (albumin)

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27
Q

what is the structure of a phospholipid

A

hydrophilic phosphate head and a hydrophobic hydrocarbon tail. 2 fatty acids and a phosphate group

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28
Q

what are the purines

A

adenine and guanine

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29
Q

what are the pyrimidines

A

cytosine, uracil and thymine

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30
Q

what is the general structure of an amino acid

A

amino group, a side chain and a carboxyl group

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31
Q

what are the different forces acting on proteins

A

hydrophobic interactions, disulphide bridge, hydrogen bond, hydrophilic reactions and ionic bonds

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32
Q

what is topoisomerase

A

required to unwind the supercoils and unwind the double helix

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33
Q

what is the function of DNA helicase

A

breaks the hydrogen bonds between the two strands exposing the nucleotides

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34
Q

what is transcription

A

free mRNA nucleotides line up against complementary bases on the template strand which begins at the promotor region. this forms an antiparallel RNA which leaved the nucleus and attaches to the ribosome

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35
Q

what is translation

A

the mRNA attaches to the ribosome. the tRNA molecules with anticodons bind to the complementary mRNA codon. along with this the tRNA brings an amino acid in, and once two tRNA are bound to their complimentary codons, their amino acids join via a peptide bond. this process is repeated until a stop codon is reached

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36
Q

what are the different types of mutations that can occur in DNA

A

missense, nonsense and silent

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37
Q

what are the stages of the cell cycle

A

interphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis

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38
Q

what happens in prophase

A

the nuclear envelope breaks down, chromosomes condense and become visible

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39
Q

what happens in prometaphase

A

spindle fibers form

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40
Q

what happens in metaphase

A

chromosomes line up along the central line and each sister chromatid attaches to the spindle fibers from opposite poles

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41
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

spindle fibers contract and sister chromatids pulled towards opposite poles

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42
Q

what happens in telophase

A

the nuclear envelope reforms and cleavage begins, the spindle fibers breaks down

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43
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

this is the last stage of mitosis where the cell splits resulting in two identical daughter cells in mitosis, and 4 non identical haploid cells in meiosis

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44
Q

what happens in meiosis

A

there are 4 non identical gametes produced. there is genetic variability through splitting and crossing over

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45
Q

what is nondisjunction

A

caused by a failure of homologous chromosomes to separate properly

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46
Q

what is a numerical chromosomal defect

A

when there are a different number of chromosomes in each cell, i.e trisomy 21

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47
Q

what is a structural chromosomal defect

A

parts of an individual chromosome missing, duplicated or transferred to another chromosome or turned upside down

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48
Q

What is gonadal mosaicism

A

mutation where more than one set of genetic information is present, specifically within the gamete cells. all or part of the prenatal germline is affected by the mutation

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49
Q

what is a karyotype

A

the number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the nucleus of an organism or species

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50
Q

what is multifactorial genetics

A

where both genetic and environmental factors produce a trait of condition

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51
Q

what are different patterns or inheritance

A

autosomal dominant and recessive, sex linked, lyonization

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52
Q

what is lyonization

A

X inactivation, process by which females have one X chromosome inactivated

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53
Q

what is penetrance

A

proportion of individuals carrying a particular variant allele or a gene and the expression of the associated trait

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54
Q

what is variable expression

A

when one genotype can produce a range of different phenotypes - one individual may be more severely affected by another

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55
Q

what is sex limitation

A

genes may be present in both sexes but only expressed in one and remains turned off in another

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56
Q

what are some examples of a genetic disease

A

downs syndrome, cystic fibrosis, huntingtins, edwards syndrome (trisomy 18) and patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

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57
Q

what are some examples of multifactorial disease

A

spinal bifida, cleft lip/palate, diabetes, schizophrenia

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58
Q

what are some examples of environmental disease

A

poor diet, infection, drug related illness, trauma related illness

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59
Q

what is produced during glycolysis

A

2NADH, 2ATP and 2 pyruvate

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60
Q

what is the regulatory enzyme of glycolysis

A

phosphofructokinase - rate limiting

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61
Q

what happens to pyruvate after glycolysis

A

goes to the link reaction in aerobic conditions and becomes acetyl-coA. in anaerobic conditions they it goes into the lactate cycle

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62
Q

where does krebs reaction occur

A

happens in the matrix of the mitochondria

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63
Q

what occurs in the krebs cycle

A

Acetly-coA - citrate - isocitrate - alpha ketoglutarate, succinyl coA, succinate, fumarate, malate, oxaloacetate

can I keep selling socks for money officer

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64
Q

what is produced in the krebs cycle

A

1 pyruvate in and one ATP, 3 NADH and 1 FADH2 out, as well as 2CO2

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65
Q

what is the rate limiting step of krebs cycle

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

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66
Q

where does oxidative phosphorylation occurs

A

in the mitochondrial matrix

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67
Q

what happens during oxidative phosphorylation

A

electron from NADH or FADH2 is donated to complex I (or II in the case of FADH2). this is transported from complex to complex (as well as cytochrome c). this then goes to the final electron acceptor (O2). the energy from the electron pumps hydrogen ions into the intermembrane space. this causes a hydrogen gradient. hydrogen is then moved back through the ATP synthase - gradient energy is used to make ATP

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68
Q

what happens during fatty acid beta oxidation

A

this is where fatty acids are broken down to make ATP. first fatty acids are converted into acyl COA in the cytoplasm. (NOT ACETLY COA). the carnitine shuffle transports the acyl coA across the mitochondrial membrane and the oxidation occurs

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69
Q

how are ketones made

A

ketones are made in the liver from two acetyl - coA molecules

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70
Q

what are the main ketones to know

A

acetone, acetoacetate and beta hydroxybutyrate

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71
Q

what happens between weeks 1 and 8 of fertilization

A

week 1 - fertilisation and blastocyst formation
week 2 - bilaminar disc and implantation
week 3 - trilaminar disc and gastrulation
week 4 - folding of the embryo
week 5-8 - most organs are developing and becoming a fetus

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72
Q

what is gastrulation

A

forming of the trilaminar disc

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73
Q

what are the three layers formed during gastrulation

A

ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm

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74
Q

what does the ectoderm form

A

the epidermis of the skin, the CNS, the PNS, the hair nails and eyes

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75
Q

what does the endoderm form

A

forms the GI tract, the thyroid, parathyroid, liver and respiratory tract

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76
Q

what does the mesoderm form

A

connective tissue in between muscle, bones, cartilage, urogenital system and blood vessels

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77
Q

what happens during neurulation

A

the notochord is derived from the mesoderm through release of chemical messengers which affects the overlying ectoderm. this causes in folding which creates the neural tube and the central canal

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78
Q

what are the three structures in the cytoskeleton

A

microtubules, intermediate filaments and microfilaments

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79
Q

what is the size and function of microtubules

A

they are 25nm long. they are a tubulin motor protein and their function is for mitosis as well as a component of cilia

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80
Q

what is the size and function of intermediate filaments

A

10nm. their function is cell integrity and cell to cell contact

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81
Q

what is the size and function of microfilaments

A

5-7nm. they are myosin motor proteins and their function is cell shape and motility

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82
Q

what are the different receptor types

A

enzyme linked, ion linked and G coupled

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83
Q

what are the different types of channel protein

A

ligand gated, voltage gated and mechanical gated

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84
Q

what is a focal adhesion

A

it is tethers the actin filaments in a cell to the extracellular matrix

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85
Q

what is direct active transport

A

when you directly use energy to move a substance though a cell membrane

86
Q

what is indirect active transport

A

when you co transport a molecule with another - one down its concentration gradient and the other up its concentration gradient

87
Q

what are the three different types of hormones

A

peptide, steroid and amino acid derived

88
Q

describe a peptide hormone

A

they are made from amino acids and are water soluble so travel directly in the blood. they bind to cell surface membranes of a target cell and act quickly. they can be premade and stored in vesicles.

89
Q

give an example of a peptide hormone

A

ADH and insulin

90
Q

describe steroid hormones

A

they are made from cholesterol and are lipid soluble. therefore they need a carrier protein to travel in the blood (usually albumin). they diffuse directly through cell membranes and have a slower course of action. it can not be premade

91
Q

give an example of a steroid hormone

A

oestrogen and testosterone

92
Q

describe an amino acid derived hormone

A

this is a hormone made directly from an amino acid and has the same properties as a peptide hormone

93
Q

give an example of a peptide hormone

A

adrenaline

94
Q

what is the main intracellular ion

A

potassium

95
Q

what is the main extracellular ion

A

sodium

96
Q

what is sensible water loss

A

this is measurable water loss for example urine

97
Q

what is insensible water loss

A

this is water loss that isnt measurable for example sweat or breathing

98
Q

what activates the RAA system

A

when there is low blood pressure, detected by the juxtaglomerular cells in afferent arterioles. also stimulated by low NaCl detected by macula densa cells of the distal convoluted tubule

99
Q

what cells secrete renin

A

the juxtaglomerular cells

100
Q

describe what happens in the RAA system

A

Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1 . this is then converted to angiotensin 2 by ACE. angiotensin 2 acts on the adrenal glands to produce aldosterone, as well as increasing ADH release and acting as a vasoconstrictor

101
Q

where is ACE released from

A

the lungs

102
Q

where is angiotensinogen made

A

the liver

103
Q

what is the action of ADH

A

it acts on the AP - II receptor on the collecting ducts to increase the permeability and increases water retention. this increases ECF and therefore BP

104
Q

where is ADH released from

A

the pituitary gland

105
Q

what is the effect of aldosterone

A

it increases sodium resorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Water then follows the sodium, increasing ECF and therefore BP

106
Q

what is ANP and what is its action

A

it is atrial natriuretic peptide. It is released from the atria when it is enlarged and acts as an antagonist to aldosterone

107
Q

what is hypernatremia

A

it is too much sodium. it is caused by dehydration, increased aldosterone and kidney failure

108
Q

what is hyponatremia

A

it is excess water, not enough sodium. its symptoms are nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion

109
Q

what is hyperkalemia

A

it is too much potassium caused by kidney failure. it causes nerve and muscle issues

110
Q

what is hypokalemia

A

it is not enough potassium, caused by diarrhoea and increased aldosterone. it causes weakness and heart problems

111
Q

what is hypercalcemia

A

it is too much calcium. caused by increased vitamin D and skeletal metastasis. it causes bone and muscle weakness as well as calcification

112
Q

what is hypocalcemia

A

it is too little calcium. it is caused by decreased vitamin D, decreased PTH and GI malabsorption. it causes muscle twitch/spasms

113
Q

what is a nucleoside

A

it is a nucleotide without the phosphate group

114
Q

what are the 4 structures of a protein

A
  1. amino acid sequence
  2. H bonds between amino acids forming alpha helix or beta sheet
  3. 3D folding - ionic and disulphide bonds
  4. more than 1 polypeptide chain
115
Q

what is the structure of haemoglobin. how is it different in the foetus

A

it has two alpha and two beta subunits. in the foetus is has two alpha and two gamma which increases the affinity to oxygen

116
Q

what happens in sickle cell anemia

A

where there is two alpha and two mutated beta chains. there is a mutation at the 11p locus which causes a GAG to become a GTG, which means a valine is coded for rather than a glutamic acid

117
Q

what are the bases in RNA

A

adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine

118
Q

what direction does DNA polymerase run in

A

it joins the free nucleotides together in a 5-3’ direction

119
Q

what are formed on the antisense strand of DNA during DNA replication

A

Okazaki fragments

120
Q

what happens in G1, S and G2 phases of interphase

A

G1 - organelles replicate
S - DNA replicates
G2 - preparation for mitosis

121
Q

what are the two checkpoints in interphase and what are they checking

A

G1 checkpoint checks for DNA damage or mutations before replication
G2 checkpoint checks for DNA damage or mutations after replication

122
Q

what is the sequence of sperm formation from most immature to most mature

A

spermatogonia - primary spermatocyte - 2 X secondary spermatocyte - 4 X spermatids
these then differentiate into spermatozoa

123
Q

when does spermatogenesis begin

A

it begins at puberty and is consistent after that

124
Q

when does oogenesis begin

A

it begins at birth/in utero and is then suspended until ovulation

125
Q

is the formation of oocytes even or uneven

A

uneven cytoplasm division

126
Q

what is the pathway of oocyte generation from most immature to most mature

A

oogonia - primary oocyte - secondary oocyte (plus 1 polar body) - ootid (plus 3 polar bodies) - ovum

127
Q

what is penetrance

A

the percentage of people with the expected phenotype from their genotype

128
Q

what is anticipation

A

it is when the trinucleotide repeats of the mutated sequence increases over generations. symptoms show earlier and they are more severe

129
Q

what is autozygosity

A

the same mutation found on both sides of the family

130
Q

what is hemizygous

A

where the genes are carried on an unpaired chromosome (i.e the Y chromosome)

131
Q

what are mandelian forms of inheritance

A

autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X linked and Y linked

132
Q

what is a non traditional form of inherited disease

A

mitochondrial inheritance

133
Q

In a pedigree chart what does_ mean:

  • box
  • circle
  • unshaded
  • shaded
  • line through symbol
  • two lines to two symbols
  • diamond
  • diamond sb
  • triangle with a line through it
  • triangle
  • two lines between a circle and square
A

Male, Female, Unaffected, Affected, Deceased, Twins, Unborn sex unknown, Still born sex unknown, Termination, Ongoing pregnancy, Consanguinity

134
Q

what are some examples of chromosomal abnormalities

A

Turners syndrome - X monosomy
Downs syndrome - Trisomy 21
Edwards syndrome - Trisomy 18

135
Q

how much energy released from carbohydrates

A

4 kcal/g

136
Q

how much energy release from protein

A

4 kcal/g

137
Q

how much energy is released from alcohol

A

7kcal/g

138
Q

how much energy is released from fat

A

9kcal/g

139
Q

how many grams of alcohol is the same as a unit

A

8

140
Q

what is the absorptive state

A

when youre eating

141
Q

where are fat, carbohydrates and proteins stored

A

fat - adipocytes, ito cells and triglycerides
carbs - liver and skeletal muscle as glycogen stores
protein - muscle and liver

142
Q

what is the first step of glycolysis and what is the enzyme that catalyzes it

A

it is glucose to glucose 6 phosphate

Hexokinase (in liver its glucokinase)

143
Q

what is glucose 6 phosphate converted to in glycolysis (second step)

A

fructose 6 phosphate

done by enzyme phosphoglucoisomerase

144
Q

what is fructose 6 phosphate converted to in glycolysis (3rd step)

A

fructose 1 6 bisphosphate

done by phosphofructokinase 1

145
Q

what is fructose 1 6 bisphosphate converted to in glycolysis
4th step

A

into dihydroxyacetone phosphate or G3P.

enzyme is aldolase

146
Q

can G3P and DHP be converted into each other in glycolysis

A

yes, it is catalysed by triose phosphate isomerase

147
Q

what does G3P get converted to in glycolysis

5th step

A

to 1 3 bisphosphoglycerate

catalysed by G3P dehydrogenase

148
Q

what is 1 3 bisphosphoglycerate converted into in glycolysis
6th step

A

3 phopsphoglycerate

catalysed by phosphoglycerate kinase

149
Q

what is 3 phosphoglycerate converted to in glycolysis

7th step

A

2 phosphyglycerate

catalysed by phosphoglycerate mutase

150
Q

what does 2 phosphoglycerate get converted to in glycolysis

8th step

A

to phosphoenolpyruvate

catalysed by mutase

151
Q

what does phosphoenolpyruvate get converted to in glycolysis
last step

A

to pyruvate by pyruvate kinase

152
Q

what is the secondary regulatory enzyme of glycolysis

A

hexokinase - it is controlled by the amount of glucose 6 phosphate

153
Q

what are the two steps in glycolysis that produce ATP

A

1 3 bisphosphoglycerate to 3 phosphoglycerate

phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate

154
Q

what is are the substrates made in the krebs cycle, from first to last starting with acetyl coA

A

acetyl coA, citrate, isocitrate, alpha ketoglutarate, succinyl coA, succinate, fumarate, malate, oxaloacetate (cycle starts again)

155
Q

what are the enzymes in krebs, in order of use from start (citrate synthase)

A

citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl coA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, mutate dehydrogenase

156
Q

when is carbon dioxide given off in the krebs cycle

A

isocitrate to alpha ketoglutarate

alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl coA

157
Q

what step(s) in krebs is FADH2 given off at

A

from conversion of succinate to fumarate

158
Q

what step(s) is NADH produced in krebs

A

between malate to oxaloacetate,
isocitrate to alpha ketoglutarate,
alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl coA

159
Q

what are the regulation steps in the krebs cycle

A

citrate synthase - inhibited by ATP and NADH
isocitrate synthase - this is the most regulatory one. the more oxidative phosphorylation the faster krebs will go
AKG dehydrogenase - affected by succinyl coA and NADH

160
Q

what are the two ways acetyl coA can enter into the krebs cycle

A

from the link reaction, or from beta oxidation of fatty acids

161
Q

what occurs in beta oxidation of fatty acids

A

the fatty acids are converted to acyl adenylate in the cytoplasm (ATP-ADP). this is then converted into acyl coA by acyl coA synthase.
this is then shuttles into the mitochondrial matrix by the carnitine shuttle. it will then undergo a series of hydrolysis and oxidation reactions to form acetyl coA

162
Q

how much of the bodies ATP is made though beta oxidation of fatty acids

A

60%

163
Q

what is the rate limiting step of beta oxidation

A

the carnitine shuttle

164
Q

what is the factor determining if acyl coA can use the carnitine shuttle

A

it needs to have 12 or more carbons in its fatty acid tail

165
Q

what happens to excess acetly coA in beta oxidation

A

it will be turned into ketones

166
Q

what does the body use as its buffering system

A

bicarbonate

167
Q

how does haemoglobin act as a buffer in the body

A

it mops up excess hydrogen, it can transport NO for vasodilation

168
Q

what happens during metabolic acidosis

A

there is low pH, low HOC3-

compensation is deep hyperventilation to increase carbon dioxide excretion

169
Q

what happens during metabolic alkalosis

A

increased pH, increased HCO3-
compensation is hypoventilation and renal excretion of HCO3-
increase CO2 retention

170
Q

what happens in respiratory acidosis

A

there is a decreased pH, increased co2

compensation is increased renal HCO3- retention

171
Q

what happens in respiratory alkalosis

A

increased pH, decreased CO2

compensation is increased renal excretion of HCO3-

172
Q

how can you tell the difference between metabolic and respiratory alkalosis/acidosis

A

in metabolic the CO2 and HCO3- move in the same direction, where as in respiratory they move in opposite directions

173
Q

what are the antioxidant vitamins

A

E and C

174
Q

what is ROS function in the respiratory burst

A

phagocytes engulphs the material into a phagolysosome. the pathogen is then destroyed using ROS, myeloperoxidase and OH+

175
Q

what is the equation for the anion gap

A

([NA+]+[K+]) - ([Cl-]+[HCO3-])

176
Q

what enzyme causes the DNA double helix to unzip

A

Helicase

177
Q

why can sickle cell anemia be treated with hydroxyurea

A

because it increases the synthesis of HbF (foetal Hb)

178
Q

why does the HbS cause sickling

A

Deoxygentaed HbS polymerises and binds to the cell cytoskeleton which distorts the normal cell shape into the classic sickle shape

179
Q

what is sickle cell anemia caused by

A

Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive inherited condition which substitutes valine for the normal glutamine in the beta globin chain.

180
Q

Which of the following is defined as ‘A weak attractive interaction between two atoms due fluctuating electrical charges’

A

Van der Waals force

181
Q

what happens during sickle cell disease capillary occlusion

A

there is endothelial damage which causes platelets and white cells to aggregate and therefore occlude the capillary

181
Q

what happens during sickle cell disease capillary occlusion

A

there is endothelial damage which causes platelets and white cells to aggregate and therefore occlude the capillary

182
Q

capillary occlusion in what causes acute pain crisis in sickle cell disease

A

capillary occlusion in the bone

183
Q

wat enzyme unwinds supercoiled DNA

A

topoisomerase

184
Q

what happens to HbS during hypoxia

A

it polymerases

185
Q

what are alpha helixes and beta sheets examples of

A

secondary structure

186
Q

The process in which mRNA is used to specify the amino acids required for protein formation is known as …

A

Translation

187
Q

what is the action of renin

A

angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1

188
Q

what is an example of insensible fluid loss

A

water from respiration, sweat

189
Q

What is the site of synthesis of aldosterone?

A

Adrenal cortex

190
Q

What is the site of synthesis of ADH (antidiuretic hormone)?

A

Synthesised by the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
However it is then stored in the posterior pituitary gland

191
Q

Total body water (TBW) is distributed into three compartments (Intracellular/interstitial/intravascular). How is the TBW distributed by volume? (Assume healthy 70 Kg man)

A

28L/11L/3L

192
Q

What is the principal site of renin production?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells

193
Q

You examine a patient and note he has lower leg pitting oedema. You also note that his blood albumin level is low. What is the relationship between albumin and body fluid?

A

A low albumin causes a decrease in oncotic pressure and water diffuses from the blood into the interstitial fluid

194
Q

A healthy student drinks 2 litres of water in 5 mins. What describes the physiological response?

A

The excess fluid causes a decrease in blood osmolality (osmolarity) which in turn causes a reduction / stopping of Anti Diuretic Hormone release. The kidneys therefore excrete more water leading to increased urine volume.

195
Q

what is a high energy bond

A

a chemical bond that releases as much or more energy than that released by ATP hydrolysis

196
Q

what is the end product of fatty acid beta oxidation

A

Acetyl coA

197
Q

what blood measurements are associated with diabetic ketoacidosis

A

high glucose, high H+, low pCO2 and low pH

198
Q

what are steroid hormones made from

A

cholesterol

199
Q

what is an anabolic reaction

A

synthesis of larger molecules from smaller components

200
Q

what is the average amount of protein we require each day

A

0.8g/kg body mass

201
Q

what is the bodies normal response to an increase in ECF osmolality

A

release ADH from the posterior pituitary

202
Q

what are the features of urothelium

A

it can stretch

it has a layer of umbrella cells on the top of pseudo stratified cells

203
Q

how many kcal are there in 1 unit of alcohol

A

56 kcal

1g alcohol is 7kcal and 1 unit is 8 grams

204
Q

what will raise basal metabolic rate

A

increased body weight, hyperthyroidism, low ambient temperature, fever and caffeine

205
Q

what will lower basal metabolic rate

A

dieting/starvation, low body mass index, high ambient temperature, increasing age and being female

206
Q

when does implantation of a blastocyst occur

A

7-8 days post fertilisation

207
Q

what will the embryological epiblast become

A

ectoderm

208
Q

what do paraxial mesodermal cells in an embryo form

A

somites

209
Q

what is the embryological circulation formed from

A

lateral plate mesodermal cells

210
Q

what proportion of body water is found in the plasma

A

7%

211
Q

A genetic disease is present within multiple generations of a family. With each generation, the disease presents earlier and is more severe. What is this an example of?

A

Anticipation

Jemima Flash Cards (9 decks)

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