Reproductive System II Flashcards

1
Q

Female Reproductive System:

A
  1. Produces secondary oocytes
  2. Transports secondary oocytes to site where they can unite with sperm.
  3. Provides a suitable environment for development of the embryo and fetus.
  4. Actively involved in birthing process.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structures of female reproductive system

A
  1. Paired ovaries –> produce female sex hormone.
  2. Paired uterine tubes –> which transports secondary oocytes.
  3. Uterus –> where development of the embryo and fetus occurs.
  4. Vagina –> serves as the female copulatory organ and birth canal.
  5. External Genitalia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Female Reproductive Tract contains:

A

1.uterine tubes
2. uterus
3. vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ovaries

A

Located near the upper side walls of pelvic cavity
Outer surface is covered by the ovarian mesothelium
Under the mesothelium are ovarian follicles
The inner region has areolar connective tissue with nerves and blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ovarian follicle consists of:

A

of an oocyte enveloped by supporting cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

oogenesis

A

Process of producing oocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

true or false: oogenesis is closely related to ovarian cycle

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

By what month of fetal development, do ovaries contain several million oogonia the stem cells of the ovaries (46 chromosomes)

A

5th month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

oogonia

A

the stem cells of the ovaries (46 chromosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

true or false: Most of the oogonia mature into primary oocytes (46 chromosomes) prior to birth.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

primordial ovarian follicle

A

primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of follicular epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true or false: females are born with their total number of primary oocytes

A

true, 2 mill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

true or false: Oogenesis exists at birth

A

false; No, oogenesis, the process of female gamete (egg cell) development, does not occur at birth. In fact, the process starts during fetal development in the ovaries of the female fetus. By the time a female baby is born, she already has all the primary oocytes (immature egg cells) that she will ever have. During puberty, a series of hormonal changes trigger the activation of some of the primary oocytes in a woman’s ovaries. This activation leads to the start of ovulation, where mature eggs are released from the ovaries in a cyclical manner, typically about once a month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when does oogonia begin?

A

at puberty, a few primordial follicles are activated monthly and require nearly a year to mature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many primary oocytes complete meiosis I each month?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens prior to meiosis I with the primary oocyte?

A

chromosomes in primary oocyte replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens during metaphase of meiosis I?

A

homologous pairs line up. Random alignment and crossover occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens at the end of meiosis I?

A

primary oocyte divides into two distinct cells each with 23 chromosomes. polar body and secondary oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or false: polar body has an important function in the body?

A

false; no function; the secondary oocyte has nearly all the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is the secondary oocyte released each month?

A

during a female’s reproductive life from the ovary at ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when will meiosis II only occur?

A

if secondary oocyte is penetrated by a sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how many cells does meiosiss II produce? are they different

A

yields 2 distinct cells, each with 23 chromosomes; polar body and ovum (all cytoplasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

zygote

A

the first cell of the
preembryo. Fusion of ovum nucleus and
sperm nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Uterine tubes

A

Each extends from laterally from upper side of the uterus to an ovary; receive and transport secondary oocyte; site of fertilization; Transport preembryo if fertilization occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

infundibulum

A

partially envelops the
ovary; Possesses fimbriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

type of epithelium that lines the uterine tubes

A

simple ciliated
columnar epithelium and secretory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

true or false: Beating cilia create a current to draw the secondary oocyte into the infundibulum

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

move oocyte toward uterus (movement)

A

cilia and peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Uterus

A

Behind the urinary bladder in pelvic cavity; above the vagina and bent forward over the urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Uterus appropriate environment for?

A

developing embryo and fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3 regions of uterus:

A
  1. fundus
  2. body
  3. cervix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

at what ages does cervical cancer usually occur?

A

30 - 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Risks factors that increase cervical cancer

A

women who smoke
who began sexual activity at an early age who have histories of frequent sexually transmitted diseases
cervical inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Pap smear

A

procedure in which loose cells are removed from the cervix and vagina then microscopically examined; look for cells with signs of dysplasia or carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cervical cancer caused by _______

A

human papilloma virus (HPV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pap smear recommendations for women between the ages of 21 to 65

A

one every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Wall of uterus composed of 3 layers

A
  1. Endometrium (Inner mucosal layer)
  2. Myometrium (Middle muscular layer-thicker layer of smooth muscle that forms most of the wall thickness.)
  3. Perimetrium (Outer serous layer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vagina

A

Collapsible tube extending from uterus to the external environment; Behind the urethra and in front of the rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

function of vagina

A
  1. copulatory organ
  2. birth canal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

females external genitalia (vulva)

A

Surrounds the orifices of the urethra and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Perineum

A

Area between the mons pubis and the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Obstetrical perineum

A

between vaginal orifice and anus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

true or false: Obstetrical perineum is torn during childbirth

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Labia Majora

A

Paired, longitudinal folds of hair-covered skin covering adipose and smooth muscle;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

from what type of tissue is the labia major formed?

A

same as embryonic tissue as scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Labia Minora

A

Paired, thinner longitudinal folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Vestibule

A

Narrow space between the labia minora; Urethra opens into the front portion, while vagina opens behind it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bulbs of the Vestibule

A

Composed of corpus
spongiosum; Beneath the labia minora surrounding the beginning of the vagina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what happens to the bulbs of the vestibule during a female sexual response?

A

Engorged with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

vestibular glands

A

Lie behind the bulbs on each side of vaginal orifice and Release secretions into vestibule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Clitoris

A

Formed of two columns of corpora cavernosa near the pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Glans of the clitoris

A

Union of the two columns of the
clitoris.
Located behind the mons pubis where the labia minora meet.
Abundant sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In absence of sexual stimulation

A

Erectile tissues of bulb of the vestibule and clitoris have a small amount of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In the presence of sexual stimulation Parasympathetic action potentials

A
  1. Cause dilation of the arterioles and constriction of the venules supplying the erectile tissues to become engorged with blood and produce erection
  2. Cause enlargement of vaginal mucosa and breast and erection of nipples due to increase in blood flow in these areas.
    Stimulate vestibular gland secretion to lubricate the vestibule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the presence of sexual stimulation Sympathetic action potentials and prostaglandins in semen

A

trigger reverse peristalsis (cause the muscles to contract rhythmically) in pelvic floor muscles uterine wall, and uterine tubes. Aids in moving sperm through the uterus to the upper uterine tubes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

estrogens

A

Group of female sex hormones produced primarily by the ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Estrogen is primarily produced by

A

ovarian follicles exposed to FSH and stimulate maturation of female reproductiveorgans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

female secondary sex characteristics

A

Development of mammary glands and breasts.
Broad pelvis.
Increased subcutaneous tissue deposition
Increased blood supply to skin
Development of axillary and pubic hair (due to androgens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

progesterone

A

Produced by the corpus luteum (also releases estrogen) after ovulation under stimulation by LH; Major role is development and maintenance of endometrium in pregnancy; Also inhibits uterine contractions and dilation of the cervix during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

true or false: There are two cycles that are hormonally controlled and occur simultaneously starting at puberty

A

true: ovarian and menstrual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

Monthly formation and release of a secondary oocyte and the ovarian
events that occur in anticipation of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Menstrual cycle

A

Repetitive changes in the endometrium that causes monthly menstruation if pregnancy does not occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

length of females reproductive cycles

A

range from 24 to 35 days. 28 days is about average.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

true or false: Cycles continue from puberty until menopause

A

true; (approx. 11 years of age); (between ages of 45 to 55).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

when does reproductive cycle stop?

A

pregnancy and nursing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When is the first menstruation

A

approx. age 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

when does the ovarian cycle begin?

A

when the hypothalamus secretes GnRH; release FSH and LH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Follicular Phase

A

FSH promotes development of approx. 20 primordial ovarian follicles into primary ovarian follicles; where some primary develop into secondary ovarian follicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

secondary ovarian follicle

A

transition into tertiary ovarian follicles with small fluid-filled spaces; each with a primary oocyte surrounded by granulosa cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Granulosa Cells

A

secrete estrogens and pass nutrients to developing oocyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Dominant tertiary ovarian follicle secretes _______.

A

low levels of estrogens and inhibin into the blood; Initiates a negative-feedback mechanism on GnRH and FSH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Inhibition of FSH during ovarian cycle

A

prevents development of additional ovarian follicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

due to increased FSH sensitivity granulosa cells —–

A

increase estrogen production ; beginning at dy 7 and peaking at day 12.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

High blood levels of estrogen stimulate _____

A

GnRH production in a positive-feedback mechanism. Leading to the production of LH

73
Q

rapid increase in blood LH due to the positive feedback mechanism in the ovarian cycle

A

Causes maturation of tertiary ovarian follicle into mature ovarian follicle.
Stimulate the completion of meiosis I to form a secondary oocyte.
Stimulates ovulation of secondary oocyte.

74
Q

When does ovulation of the secondary oocyte take place?

A

occurs 14 days prior to onset of next menstruation

75
Q

Luteal Phase

A

begins after ovulation; LH stimulates remaining granulosa cells in ovary to become the corpus luteum

76
Q

corpus luteum secrete _____ for how many days

A

progesterone for approx 10 days after ovulation

77
Q

true or false: Elevated blood progesterone level Loss of GnRH inhibits the release of LH and FSH

A

true

78
Q

What happens if fertilization does not occur?

A

Corpus luteum degenerates into the nonfunctional corpus albicans ; Rapid decline in blood estrogens and progesterone during the last few days of the cycle.

79
Q

if fertilization occurs

A

Corpus luteum enlarges; increasing amounts of progesterone and estrogens

80
Q

Menstrual Cycle

A

Refers to monthly changes in the endometrium, unless pregnancy occurs

81
Q

true or false: menstrual cycle occurs in response to changes in estrogen and progesterone

A

true

82
Q

4 phase pf menstrual cycle:

A
  1. Menstruation
  2. Proliferative Phase
  3. Secretory Phase
  4. Premenstrual Phase
83
Q

Menstruation

A

Begins first day; lasts 3 to 5 days

84
Q

Proliferative phase

A

Characterized by a buildup of the endometrium; Stimulated by estrogens produced by the developing ovarian follicles

85
Q

Proliferative phase begins _____ and ends ____

A

end of menstruation phase and ends at ovulation

86
Q

Secretory Phase

A

Begins at ovulation and last approx. 10 days

87
Q

Who controls the secretory phase?

A

Controlled by hormones from the corpus luteum; estrogen (continue to stimulate endometrial thickening) and progesterone (timulates the formation of blood vessels and glands in the endometrium; preparing endometrium for pre-embryo.

88
Q

What happens during the pre-menstrual phase?

A

Breakdown of the endometrium occurs; Due to rapid decrease in blood levels of estrogens and progesterone; leading to menstruation

89
Q

Premenstrual phase

A

Occurs during the last few days of the cycle if fertilization does not occur

90
Q

What causes menopause?

A

aging of the ovaries; Fewer primary ovarian follicles exist to respond to FSH and LH. No ovulation. Secretion o festrogens and progesterone is reduced

90
Q

Menopause

A

cessation of regular menstrual cycles; begins at the age of 45-55 and can lasts up to 10 years.

91
Q

Symptoms of menopause

A
  1. headaches
  2. insomnia
  3. depression
  4. hot flashes
92
Q

true or false: Hormone replacement therapy can treat menopause symptoms

A

true but increase risk of breast cancer, strokes, and heart disease

93
Q

true or false: Both males and females possess mammary glands

A

true

93
Q

Mammary gland development is stimulated by _____ and _____ during puberty

A

estrogen and progesterone

94
Q

true or false: estrogen help the development of breast and mammary gland?

A

true

95
Q

progesterone aid in ________ so that they can secrete milk

A

mammary gland maturation

96
Q

prolactin

A

Third hormone also required for milk production

97
Q

where are mammary glands located?

A

subcutaneous tissue, on top of the pectoralis major

98
Q

Areola

A

Pigmented circle of skin near apex
of each breast

99
Q

Nipple

A

Erectile tissue in center of each areola.

100
Q

How many lobes does each gland contain>

A

15 to 25 lobes containing lobules

101
Q

What do the lobules contain?

A

glandular alveoli that produce milk under stimulation by prolactin after the birth of an infant.

102
Q

Lactiferous ducts

A

carry milk from lobules to lactiferous sinuses; sinuses lead to the nipple and the external environment.

103
Q

Types of birth control:

A
  1. hormonal
  2. chemical
  3. behavioral contraceptive methods
  4. anti-implantation devices
  5. sterilization
  6. induced abortion
104
Q

Several Types of contraception:

A

Hormonal Methods
Barriers to Sperm
Spermicides
Behavioral Methods

105
Q

Hormonal Methods

A

Drugs that possess high synthetic progesterone and low synthetic estrogens to prevent ovulation

106
Q

Side effects of hormonal contraceptive methods:

A
  1. headache
  2. irregular menstruation
  3. nausea
  4. bloating
106
Q

How do hormonal methods work?

A

Inhibit production of GnRH, which reduces the secretion of FSH and LH production; prevent maturation of ovarian follicles so ovulation does not occur.

107
Q

Do not use hormonal methods if:

A

Smoking,
blood clots,
stroke,
heart disease,
liver disease
uncontrolled diabetes

108
Q

Oral Contraceptives

A

first available method of delivery;
One pill is taken daily for 3weeks
Combination pill, which contains both progesterone and estrogens, is most commonly used

108
Q

Birth control patch

A

Adhesive skin patch containing hormones
New patch is used each week for 3 weeks

109
Q

Vaginal Ring

A

Soft plastic ring that is placed into the upper part of the vagina
Releases synthetic hormones for 3 weeks

110
Q

When is the vaginal ring removed

A

After the 4th week

111
Q

true or false: Both hormonal and non-hormonal approaches to stop sperm have been in development

A

true; Two months to become effective and require continuous treatment to remain fully effective.

112
Q

enzyme called soluble adenylyl cyclase (sAC)

A

Following ejaculation ,sperm begin to vigorously beat their tails. TDI-11861 that binds and inhibits sAC.

113
Q

Norplant

A

Silicone rods containing progesterone surgically implanted under the skin; Inhibits ovulation

114
Q

Norplant is effective for how many years

A

5

115
Q

depo- provera

A

Muscular injection of progesterone given at 3-month intervals; Prevents ovulation; Alters endometrium to inhibit pre-embryo implantation

116
Q

risks factors and side effect of depo-provera

A

weight gain
history of high blood pressure, asthma, kidney disease, migraine, headaches, breast cancer

117
Q

Condom (barrier)

A

Prevent sperm from being deposited in the vagina; reduce but do not eliminate the chance of infection by sexually transmitted diseases

118
Q

true or false: there is a female condom

A

true; thin polyurethane bag wit a flexible ring at each end.

119
Q

Diaphragm (barrier)

A

Dome-shaped sheet of rubber supported by flexible ring; Placed in the upper vagina over the cervix prior to intercourse. Blocks sperm from entering uterus.

120
Q

Cervical Cap

A

Thimble-shaped latex rubber cap that fits snugly over the cervix; Not recommended for females with abnormal pap smears of cervical infections

121
Q

Spermicides

A

Kill sperm by destroying their plasma membranes; creams, jellies, suppositories

122
Q

True or false: cervical cap and diaphragm both use spermicides?

A

true

123
Q

Rhythm method (behavioral method)

A

Abstinence from intercourse from 3 days before to 3 days after ovulation, for a total of seven days; based on the fact that the secondary oocyte may be penetrated by a sperm for only about 24 hours.

124
Q

Cons of Rhythm method:

A

Difficulty is in timing ovulation, because few women have perfectly regular cycles; failure rate high

125
Q

Withdrawal or coitus interruptus

A

Removal of the penis from the vagina prior to ejaculation; Failures result from pre-ejaculatory emission of semen or failure to withdraw in time before ejaculation

126
Q

Intrauterine device (IUD) (Anti-implantation devices)

A

Small plastic or copper object placed into the uterus by a doctor; Inflames the endometrium, which prevents implantation of a pre-embryo

127
Q

Side effects of Intrauterine device (IUD)

A

excessive menstrual bleeding, painful cramps, increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility

128
Q

Vasectomy (sterilization)

A

cutting and blocking of the vas deferens within the scrotum; sperm are not part of the semen.

129
Q

Tubal ligation

A

performed through small abdominal incision; uterine tubes are cut and blocked; Blocks transport of secondary oocyte toward uterus

130
Q

true or false: Vasectomies and tubal ligations do affect the production of sex hormones or the sexual response

A

false

131
Q

abortion

A

premature expulsion of an embryo or fetus from the uterus.

132
Q

Miscarriage

A

Spontaneous abortion; Usually result from hormonal disorders or serious abnormalities in the embryo

133
Q

Induced abortion

A

Used to terminate unwanted pregnancies; Involve dilation of the cervix and removal of the embryo or fetus with suction or surgical means

134
Q

side effects of induced abortion

A

prolonged bleeding, perforation of the uterus, and emotional trauma

135
Q

mifepristone (abortion pill)

A

Progesterone antagonist; Endometrium breaks down allowing the embryo or fetus to detach and pass from the uterus; Prostaglandins are used to help cause uterine contractions

136
Q

when is mifepristone still effective

A

first 5 weekss of pregnancy

137
Q

Prostatitis (male reproductive disorder)

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of the prostate gland; Usually caused by bacteria associated with urinary tract infections or STDs; tenderness and enlarged prostate

138
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

Enlargement of the prostate gland without inflammation, resulting from an increase in the number of glandular cells; restricts urine flow and ability to control micturition

139
Q

percent of males over 60 that have BPH

A

33% diagnosed via rectal exams

140
Q

common therapy for BPH

A

transurethral resection

141
Q

Prostate cancer

A

Most common cancer and second leading cause of cancer death in American males

142
Q

true or false: Males over 40 should have annual exams

A

true

143
Q

testicular cancer

A

Most common male cancer between 15 and 35 years; monthly testicular exams recommended over age of 14

144
Q

risks factors for testicular cancer

A

cryptorchidism,physical damage,environmental pollutants; easily detected and highest cure rate

145
Q

Erectile Dysfunction

A

nability to attain and maintain an erection; Organic and psychological causes

146
Q

Infertility

A

Inability to produce and deposit sufficient numbers of viable sperm in the vagina

147
Q

Primary Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation)

A

Failure to begin menstruation due to Endocrine disorders or abnormal development

148
Q

common cause for infertility in males

A

Low sperm count is a common cause

149
Q

Secondary amenorrhea

A

absence of one or more menstrual periods without pregnancy; may result from excessive physical exertion or excessive weight loss

150
Q

Dysmenorrhea

A

Painful menstruation that prevents normal daily activities

151
Q

Premenstrual syndrome

A

Severe physical or emotional distress after ovulation and prior to menstruation cause unknown, although is probably related to ovarian hormone production

152
Q

Toxic shock syndrome

A

Due to toxin from a strain of Staphylococcus aureus bacteria whose growth is enhanced by using highly absorbent tampons; Symptoms include high fever, fatigue, headache, sore throat, vaginal irritation, vomiting, and diarrhea

153
Q

Endometriosis

A

Growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus; Migrates through uterine tubes and into pelvic cavity; Causes premenstrual or menstrual pain. Due to its breakdown during menstruation; can cause infertility from tubal obstruction

153
Q

Infertility

A

Caused by tubal obstruction, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, or ovarian disease, or lack of maintenance of the endometrium

154
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

Infection of the female reproductive organs and or pelvic tissues. Common causes are sexually transmitted diseases.

155
Q

Breast cancer

A

Most common cancer and second leading cause of cancer death in American females; Strongly related to genetic factors and estrogens

155
Q

When is breast cancer mire common?

A

after menopause ; mostly breasts exams over age of 20 and mammography screens yearly over age of 40

156
Q

true or false: breast cancer has High fatality rate unless caught early.

A

true

157
Q

cervical cancer

A

Slow growing cancer; associated with human papillom virus (HPV)

158
Q

when are Pap smears recommended?

A

annual over the age of 21

159
Q

HPV vaccination

A

cervarix and Gardasil

160
Q

Gonorrhea

A

Caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeael; treated with antibiotics

161
Q

how is Gonorrhea manifested in males?

A

painful urethritis

162
Q

how is Gonorrhea manifested in females?

A

infects urethra, reproductive organs, and pelvic cavity; may not experience symptoms until later stages; cause sterility and can cause blindness in newborn

163
Q

Chlamydia

A

Caused by bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis; antibiotics effective treatment

164
Q

how is Chlamydia manifested in males?

A

painful urethritis.

165
Q

how is Chlamydia manifested in females?

A

spread through reproductive tract, causing damage that can lead to sterility. transmitted to a fetus during birth

166
Q

Syphilis

A

Caused by bacterium, Treponema pallidum

167
Q

first stage of syphilis

A

Formation of an open sore, a chancre, at site of bacterial
entrance; Lasts approximately 1 to 5 weeks

168
Q

second stage of syphilis

A

Muscle and joint pain, fever, and skin rash; Lasts 4 to 8 weeks

169
Q

true or false: during the second stage syphilis virus enters a latent period

A

true

170
Q

third stage of syphilis

A

Bacteria destroy organs like brain and liver.

171
Q

true or false: Antibiotics are an effective treatment prior to the third stage for syphilis

A

true

172
Q

Genital herpes

A

Caused by herpes simplex virus type 2; Painful blisters on reproductive organs, fever, flulike symptoms; Can be transmitted to a fetus during birth

173
Q

treatment for genital herpes

A

anti-viral drug acyclovir inhibits viral replication; The virus cannot be eliminated from the body.

174
Q

Genital warts

A

Caused by human papillomavirus (HPV)

175
Q

true or false: No treatment to eliminate the virus

A

true; Warts can be removed by electrocautery, cryosurgery, or laser surgery and vaccination