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Reproduction Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Autosomal cells

A

2n

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2
Q

Germ cells

A

n

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3
Q

Cell cycle

A 
G1 = cellular content are duplicated
S = chromosomes are duplicated
G2 = Quality control checks
Mitosis
G0 = cell cycle arrest
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4
Q

Mitosis

A 
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis
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5
Q

Prophase

A
  • chromatin condenses to chromosomes;
  • centriole pairs separate to opposite poles,
    asters –> centriole –> microtubules –> chromosomes at the centromere via a kinetochore complex
  • nuclear envelope dissolves
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6
Q

Metaphase

A

chromosomes are aligned at metaphase plate, equidistant between the 2 centriole poles.

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7
Q

Anaphase

A

centromeres split and sister chromatids separate (in humans, 46 on each side) to opposite poles by shortening of kinetochore fibers

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8
Q

Telophase

A

spindle apparatus disappears; 2 nuclear membranes reform; chromosomes uncoil to chromatin

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9
Q

Cytokinesis

A

microfilaments (actin) form the cleavage furrow in a ring; actin filaments contract; pinches off connection between the two daughter cells

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10
Q

Control of cell cycle

A
  • restriction checkpoints betwen G1/S and G2/M to check for any DNA damage to repair
  • Cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases, when activated, they phosphorylate TF
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11
Q

Meiosis 1: Reductional division

A

prophase 1: tetrads
metaphase 1: chromosomes are aligned at metaphase plate, equidistant between the 2 centriole poles.
anaphase 1: each chromosome is on opposite side by the centrioles
Telophase 1: two cells with one chromosome each

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12
Q

Linkage

A

tendency of genes to be inherited together

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13
Q

Meiosis 2: equational division

A

Similar to Mitosis (sister chromatids split off and separate into 4 cells of 1n

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14
Q

X chromosome disorders

A

men will always express X chromosome disorders because hemizygous

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15
Q

What components are needed for male reproduction?

A

AMT, DHT, Testosterone from Leydig cells

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16
Q

What is the role of AMH

A

The Mullerian duct will regress and no uterus nor oviduct will be formed

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17
Q

What is the role of T in relations to the Wolffian duct?

A

it will be maintained and developped to become the epididymis/vas

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18
Q

What is SRY responsible for?

A

the development of Testes

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19
Q

What cells secrete AMH

A

Sertoli cells

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20
Q

What is the sequence of spermatogenesis?

A

primordial germ cells –> spermatogonium (2n) –> primary spermatocyte (2n) –> secondary spermatocyte (n)–> spermatids (n)
From the basement membrane to the lumen of Seminiferous tubule

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21
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

the formation of sperm cells

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22
Q

Spermiogenesis

A

maturation of spermatids into sperm cells, unecessary cytoplasm is shed off

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23
Q

Acrosome

A

a modified Golgi apparatus, contains enzymes that penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida of the ovum, permitting fertilization.

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24
Q

LH act on which cell?

A

on testes on Leydig cells to produce Testosterone

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25
Q

FSH act on which cell?

A

on testes on Sertoli cells to induce spermatogenesis (also induced by testosterone)

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26
Q

GnRH in hypo act on what?

A

on anterior pituitary to secrete LH and FSH

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27
Q

What feedback inhibition regulates FSH and Sertoli cells?

A

inhibin

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28
Q

What is the role of Sertoli cells?

A

induces spermatogenesis through the secretion of paracrine factors, and nourrish the developing sperm. Secretes AMH in the fetus.

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29
Q

What are the effects of Testosterone in Males

A
  • regulate through negative feedback GnRH and LH
  • stimulates sertoli cells to produce sperm cells
  • contributes to male secondary sex characteristics, sex drive, and aggressiveness
  • in the fetus, contributes to the development of the Wolffian duct and the differentiation of male genitalia
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30
Q

Oogenesis

A

the female gamete production

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31
Q

Sequence of gamete production and development

A

Oogonium (mitosis to produce the oogonia pool) –> mitosis to produce primary oocytes –> stops at prophase I of meiosis –> meiotic arrest at birth, to resume at puberty.
Each month, one primary oocyte resumes meiosis I –> secondary oocyte –> stops at metaphase 2 until fertilization, where it completes meiosis

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32
Q

What are the components of ovaries?

A
  • granulosa cells: sustain oocytes, convert androgens to estrogens
  • theca cells: produce Androgens
  • estrogens: stimulate the development of female genitalia and secondary sex characteristics
  • stimulate endometrium thickening each month to prep for implantation
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33
Q

From where is Progesterone (pro-gestation) secreted?

A

Corpus luteum

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34
Q

On what cells does LH act on?

A

theca cells –> androgens

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35
Q

on what cells does FSH act on?

A

granulosa cells –> convert androgens to estrogens and inhibin for - feedback inhibition.

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36
Q

Hormone levels during menses?

A

low E and Low P

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37
Q

hormone levels during proliferative phase?

A

high E and low P

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38
Q

Of what phases is composed the follicular phase?

A

menses + proliferative phase –> development of ovum

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39
Q

Hormone levels during secretory phase?

A

E goes down a bit with the destruction of the ovum but goes back up with the development of the CL. High P.
Both go down with the destruction of the CL and prep for menses.

40
Q

Gonadotropic hormone levels?

A

LH and FSH low, and surge to induce ovulation, then go back down (negative inhibition –> estrogen and inhibin)

41
Q

in which case is the CL maintained?

A

in case there is a fertilization and a pregnancy

42
Q

the dominant follicle survives the fall of FSH. How so?

A
  • more granulosa cells –> more FSH receptors and start making IGF I
  • more sensitive to FSH
  • more cells to respond to FSH and LH
43
Q

hCG function

A

continue to stimulate the maintenance of the CL and its secretion of E and P during 1st trimester.
By 2nd, placenta develops and secretes E and P

44
Q

Menopause

A

Ovaries less sensitive to FSH and LH –> E and P drop –> no - inhibition –> level rise of FSH and LH in blood.

45
Q

Meiosis continues from 2n in prophase I to 1n in metaphase II at what major event?

A

at puberty

46
Q

What is the purpose of the acrosomal enzymes of the sperm ?

A

to penetrate through the coronoa radiation and zona pellucida

47
Q

When does the oocyte complete meiosis and becomes an ovum?

A

after the sperm entry

48
Q

a diploid zygote is created when?

A

the sperm pro nucleus enters the ovum

49
Q

What is cleavage?

A

Rapid mitotic division (cells grow in number not in size) for the zygote to become an embryo

50
Q

Why is cleavage important?

A

To increase the nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and surface area to volume ratio to increase nutrient and gas exchange.

51
Q

What is a blastocyst?

A

cells of morulla (embryonic cells), formed into a hollow ball with a fluid-filled cavity.
2 major cell groups: trophoblast (outer –> will become placenta - chorion and chorionic villi) and inner cell mass –> will become fetus

52
Q

Bilaminar embryonic disk

A

composed of epiblast and hypoblast (not composing the embryo

53
Q

umbilical cord arteries carry?

A

Co2 and waste from embryo to placenta

54
Q

umbilical cord veins carry?

A

O2 and nutrients from placenta to embryo

55
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

the formation of 3 layers by Week 3 from the bilaminar disk

  • The primitive streak forms at the midline of the bilaminar disk –> primitive pit –> primitive groove toward the caudal end
  • formation of germ layers
56
Q

the primitive disk defines the axes of the embryo, they are?

A

the rostral and the caudal end

57
Q

invagination

A

the epiblasts detach from the hypoblasts and move inward toward the primitive streak, a new proximal layer replaces the hypoblast - definitive endoderm
the remaining epiblast are now the definitive ectoderm
the trapped epiblasts between the two layers is now the mesoderm

58
Q

definitive endoderm

A

made of epiblast that detached from the hypoblast and invaginated the primitive streak

59
Q

definitive ectoderm

A

the new proximal layer of epiblasts that pushed the hypoblast cells

60
Q

definitive mesoderm

A

the remaining trapped epiblasts consitute this layer

61
Q

When does epiblast cells no longer migrate toward the primitive streak?

A

when the ecto-, meso- and endoderm are formed

62
Q

Endoderm examples?

A

digestive tissues, lungs, thyroid

63
Q

Ectoderm examples?

A

outer layer of skin, adrenal medulla

64
Q

Mesoderm examples?

A

muscles, bones, connective tissues, adrenal cortex

65
Q

how does the differentiantion of germ layer cells into different tissues?

A

selective transcrption and induction (ability to influence nearby cells)

66
Q

the neurochord is made in which germ layer?

A

the mesoderm, right under the primitive streak

67
Q

neurulation

A

the process of the development of the nervous system

68
Q

neural plate

A

formed upon being induced by the neurochord in the ectoderm and extends the rostral - caudal axis

69
Q

the neural tube is formed from?

A

the neural plate bending back on itself, sealing, and forming the neural tube –> will later develop into the CNS (brain and spinal cord)

70
Q

What if the neural tube is not formed?

A

leads to spina bifida, anencephaly - due to lack of B9

71
Q

somites

A

differentiated mesoderm cells that will later develop into the axial skeleton and skeletal muscle.

72
Q

Cell specialization

A

determination: cell committed to a certain cell lineage, asymmetric division and unequal RNA, protein distribution
differentiation: after determination, cells undergo changes to develop into that determined cell

73
Q

totipotent

A

can differentiate into anything, greatest potency (embryonic stem cells, morulla cells before blastulation)

74
Q

pluripotent

A

cells are in germ layers, can differentiate into anything within these categories.

75
Q

multipotent

A

can develop into multiple cell types in that specific group

76
Q

Stem cell research

A

uses ICM blastocysts to plate and form colonies of new cells but: immune rejection, not right differentiation, may become cancerous

77
Q

induced pluripotent stem cells

A

generated from somatic cells, and back to pluripotent stem cells. It reduces the risk of immune rejection for a patient

78
Q

types of cell signalling

A

autocrine, paracrine, juxtacrine, and endocrine signals

79
Q

types of inducers?

A
  • TF
  • cells –> protein –> induce differentiation
  • reciprocal induction: a cell differentiation will trigger the inducer’s differentiation.
80
Q

morphogens

A

molecules that induce determination in cells.

81
Q

necrosis

A

unprogrammed cell death due to damage

82
Q

apoptosis

A

programmed cell death mediated by caspase enzymes (DNA damage, cell infection, oxidative stress…)

83
Q

human cell regeneration

A

usually incomplete, not the same tissue and function

84
Q

Senescence vs aging

A

biological aging due to shortening of telomeres
vs
senescence + other environmental factors = aging

85
Q

Telomere characteristics and purpose

A

GC rich –> high H bond density

prevent the loss genetic material

86
Q

telomerase

A

reverse transcriptase that adds telomeres to the endsof chromosomes

87
Q

1st trimester of pregnancy

A

organogenesis begins

88
Q

2nd trimester of pregnancy

A

growth, takes human facial appearance

89
Q

3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

rapid growth, brain development, AB from maternal to fetus, digits elongate

90
Q

birth/parturition

A

rhythmic contractions from Oxytocin and Prostaglandin and positive feedback

91
Q

Does the placental-maternal blood interface mix?

A

No, nutrients and waste are moved by diffusion (gradient needed)

92
Q

How can the fetus uptake more O2?

A

Fetal Hb has a greater affinity for O2 from maternal blood and can uptake more O2

93
Q

Fetal circulation differences from adult circulation

A
  • vein: nutrient + O2
  • arteries: waster + Co2
  • lungs and liver: not very functional, detox at placenta and maternal liver and has 3 shunts to prevent blood from circulating there (underdeveloped organs and sensitive to high BP)
94
Q

What are the 3 shunts in fetus to prevent blood flow in underdevelopped organs?

A
  • foramen ovale: valve that connects R and L atrium bypassing lungs causing BP to be higher in R heart, at birth with pressure switch, the shunt closes
  • ductus arteriosis: shunts blood from pulmonary artery to aorta and bypasses lungs
  • ductus venosus: liver bypass, shunts blood from umbilical vein to vena cava
95
Q

placenta function

A
  • detox
  • immune protection
  • endocrine functions

Biology (7 decks)

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