Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

At what age is early castration performed?

A

6-12 months

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2
Q

What testicular conditions can result in poor libido?

A

Hypoplasia and degeneration

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3
Q

What is the most common type of penile tumour?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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4
Q

Where is the most common site of penile tumour?

A

Urethral fossa/diverticula, kissing lesions onto preputial ring

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5
Q

What are white depigmented plaques on the penis indicative of?

A

Pre-neoplastic changes

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6
Q

What are the treatment options for local penile lesions with no invasion/spread?

A

Cryptotherapy/ topical treatment, local excision

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7
Q

What are the treatment options for a non invasive (S1/2) penile lesion?

A

Local excision, posthioplasty, partial phallectomy

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8
Q

What are the treatment options for a penile lesion with extensive spread/invasive (S3)?

A

Partial phallectomy, sheath ablation, euthanasia

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9
Q

What are the treatment options for a penile lesion with evidence of abdominal spread?

A

Palliative treatment or euthanasia

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10
Q

What are the signs of coital exanthema?

A

Small vesicles on the penis and sheath

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11
Q

What are the clinical signs of papilloma virus?

A

Small, raised florid lesions on the penis

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12
Q

When should broodmares aimed to be bred after parturition?

A

At the foal heat 5-10 days postpartum

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13
Q

What causes a prolonged dioestrus?

A

Persistence of secondary CL in absence of pregnancy

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14
Q

How do you treat prolonged dioestrus in the mare?

A

Single dose of PGF2a to lyse the persistent secondary CL

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15
Q

How do you treat erratic oestrus during the transitional phase?

A

Provide 16 hours of artificial light and additional nutrition followed by progestogens in transitional period to suppress release of LH.

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16
Q

How long after giving prostaglandin between day 5 to 12 should a mare return to oestrus?

A

4 to 6 days

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17
Q

What is the optimal time to breed in the cycle?

A

Mate 24 to 48 hours before ovulation

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18
Q

What are the causes of absent oestrus post-partum?

A
  • Seasonal anoestrus/foal shy
  • Prolonged dioestrus or seasonal anoestrus
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19
Q

In what mares is silent oestrus typically a feature?

A

Maiden mares or mares with a foal at foot

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20
Q

What is the treatment for a granulosa cell tumour on an ovary?

A

Unilateral ovariectomy

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21
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

Mares with chromosomal abnormalities that result in a small reproductive tract.

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22
Q

True or false: Mares can have cystic ovaries

A

False

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23
Q

What can endometritis be associated with?

A

Poor perineal conformation
Mating-induced endometritis
Chronic endometritis (+/- fibrosis)

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24
Q

What can be seen on ultrasonography with luteinised haemorrhagic follicles?

A

Haemorrhage
Follicle doesn’t point towards ovulation fossa
Follicular collapse doesn’t occur
Increase in echogenicity

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25
Q

What is the treatment for luteinizing haemorrhagic follicles?

A

Exogenous prostaglandin administration

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26
Q

What virus causes coital exanthema?

A

Equine herpes 3

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27
Q

At what stage of the mare’s cycle can vaginal varicose vessels protrude from the vulval lips?

A

When in oestrus or during pregnancy

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28
Q

Are endometrial cysts common?

A

Yes

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29
Q

Describe the correct conformation of a mare’s perineum

A

Long axis of the vulva should be vertical.
Vulvar labia should be well apposed
No vulval discharge or lesions.
Perineum should be intact and anus shouldn’t be recessed.
Normal vestibulo-vaginal seal

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30
Q

What does CEMO stand for?

A

Contagious equine metritis organism

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31
Q

Is equine viral arteritis (EVA) notifiable?

A

Yes

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32
Q

What is key to do before taking a uterine swabs?

A

Ensure the mare isn’t pregnant before breeching the cervix

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33
Q

What is the most common pathogen isolated on uterine culture?

A

Streptococcus zooepidemicus

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34
Q

How do you treat streptococcus zooepidemicus infection in the uterus?

A

Uterine infusion with penicillin or alamycin

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35
Q

What are indications for uterine biopsy?

A

Barren mares
Repeat breeder mares
Mares with early embryonic death or abortion
Anoestrus mares
Mares requiring surgery of genital tract
Pyometra or mucometra
Fertility evaluation - prepurchase

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36
Q

What is the normal breeding period of the mare?

A

May to October

37
Q

What are signs of the transitional period in the mare?

A

Mare has follicles that grow and regress but not ovulate
Ovaries may be large, follicles may be detected
Oestrus behaviour is normally presented
Mares may stand to breed
Does not ovulate and oestrus presents weeks later

38
Q

What is classed as a low risk stallion on bacteriological screening?

A

2 negative swabs, 7 days apart

39
Q

What is classed as a high risk stallion on bacteriological screening?

A

2 negative swabs, 7 days apart but with screening 4 mares post mating

40
Q

How do you proceed with a stallion that has screened positive for pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Isolate stallion and clean the penis.
Use topical antimicrobial agents depending on sensitivity.
Inoculate from the broth of a normal stallion then re-test

41
Q

How long does a stallion typically take to recover from equine viral arteritis?

A

Over 1 month

42
Q

Where is equine viral arteritis harboured in the stallion?

A

In the accessory glands

43
Q

What sedation protocol should be used for urethroscopy?

A

Alpha-2 agonist and opioid

44
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Small preputial orifice. Results in failure of penile protrusion.

45
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Failure to retract the penis. May be caused by trauma or phenothiazines.
Results in marked gravity oedema and drying of the surface.

46
Q

What is priapism?

A

Persistent enlargement of the penis in the absence of sexual excitement

47
Q

What is posthitis?

A

Inflammation of the sheath may occur at the same time as inflammation of the penis

48
Q

What considerations are essential when dosing neonates?

A

Dynamic dosage (gain 1kg/day)
Increased oral biodiversity
Volume of distribution
Decreased plasma protein
Decreased metabolic and excretory capacity

49
Q

What is the leading cause of death in the first week of life of a neonate?

A

Sepsis

50
Q

What is the treatment of sepsis in the neonate?

A

Bactericidal antimicrobial therapy
Haemodynamic support (IVFT)
Supportive care

51
Q

What antibiotic should be used in low to moderate sepsis risk foals?

A

Oral TMPS

52
Q

What antibiotic should be used in a high risk or septic foal with normal renal function?

A

IV sodium penicillin and IV gentamicin

53
Q

What antibiotic should be used in a high risk or septic foal with abnormal renal function?

A

IV ceftiofur

54
Q

What sedation can be used in the neonate (<4 weeks)

A

Benzodiazepines (diazepam + butorphanol)
Butorphanol alone
Foal squeeze

55
Q

At what day of gestation can transrectal ultrasound first be used?

A

Day 12 (day 15 is common)

56
Q

At what day of gestation can transrectal palpation first be used?

A

Day 21

57
Q

At what day of gestation is transrectal ballottement of the foetus positive?

A

Day 80

58
Q

What are the risks of taking twins to full term?

A

Weak/dead foals or abortion
Small and underdeveloped
Bony abnormalities

59
Q

What day of gestation is manual rupture performed to remove a twin pregnancy?

A

Day 14/15

60
Q

What are the consequences of pregnancy loss before maternal recognition?

A

Return to cycle - resorption

61
Q

What day of gestation does maternal recognition occur?

A

Day 40

62
Q

What are the consequences of pregnancy loss after maternal recognition but before day 40?

A

Delayed return to oestrus as blocked prostaglandin.
Persistent CL

63
Q

What are the consequences of pregnancy loss after endometrial cup form (day 150)?

A

Long luteal phase
Take over from CL producing oestrogen
Expulsion

64
Q

When is mummification of the foetus a risk?

A

Between 70 and 150 days.

65
Q

On what day of gestation can the heartbeat of the embryo be detected?

A

Day 21

66
Q

What is the average gestation length of a mare?

A

330 days

67
Q

What are some non-infectious causes if foetal abortion?

A

Multiple conceptuses, umbilical cord abnormalities, uterine torsion (low progesterone, stress, severe malnutrition)

68
Q

At 14 days gestation, what is the prevalence of twins?

A

10%

69
Q

When are abortions seen when infected with equine herpes virus?

A

Most abortions within 60 days of infection. Most seen after 8 months.

70
Q

What is the vaccination protocol for equine herpes virus in the pregnant mare?

A

Vaccinate at 5, 7 and 9 months

71
Q

What are the presence of stillbirths commonly associated with?

A

Prolonged parturition
Umbilical cord obstruction during parturition
Premature placental separation

72
Q

What is the normal heart rate and respiratory rate of the neonate at birth?

A

40-80bpm
60-80 breaths per minute

73
Q

What is the normal heart rate and respiratory rate of the neonate at 1 hour of age?

A

120bpm
30 breaths per minute

74
Q

What is the normal heart rate of the neonate at 24 hours of age?

A

80-100bpm

75
Q

How many times a day should the normal neonate nurse?

A

5-6 times a day

76
Q

What is the goal for milk intake of the neonate in a 24 hour period?

A

20% of bodyweight

77
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypoglycaemia in the neonate?

A

Obtunded +/- seizures.

78
Q

What does SIRS stood for?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

79
Q

What qualifies the neonate to have SIRS?

A

3 abnormal parameters including abnormal temperature or leukocyte count.

80
Q

What is classed as a premature foal?

A

<320 days

81
Q

What are important characteristics of a premature foal?

A

Small body, rounded forehead, silky hair coat, entropion, floppy ears

82
Q

What issues arise from premature birth?

A

Generalised weakness and difficulty standing
Abnormal glucose metabolism
Impaired thermoregulation
Respiratory dysfunction
Endocrine dysfunction +/- others

83
Q

What is neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Foal red blood cells are destroyed.
Preformed maternal anti-red blood cell antibodies ingested in the colostrum.

84
Q

What are the conditions required for neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A
  1. Mares need to be negative for the antigen
  2. Mare must become sensitised to and produced antibodies against the offending antigen.
  3. Foal must have inherited from the sire, the antigen to which the mare has been sensitised
85
Q

What are the clinical signs of neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Initial pale mucous membranes
Weakness, obtundation, tachycardia, tachypnoea
Dyspnoea, seizures, pigmenturia

86
Q

What is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in the neonate?

A

Meconium impaction

87
Q

What is the treatment for meconium impaction?

A

Phosphate enema or warm soapy water

88
Q

What are the clinical signs of uroabdomen in the foal?

A

Depression, weakness
Signs of hypovolaemia
Stranguria/anuria
Bradycardia

89
Q

What can be seen on clinical pathology with uroabdomen in the neonate?

A

Serum creatinine, hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypochloraemia and metabolic acidosis