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Equine (Chloe) > Cardiorespiratory > Flashcards

Cardiorespiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of asthma?

A

Severe equine asthma - sEA (RAO and SPAOPD)
Mild to moderate asthma - mEA (IAD)

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2
Q

What does SPAOPD stand for?

A

Summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease

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3
Q

What percentage of neutrophils is seen on bronchioalveolar lavage with mEA?

A

10-25%

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4
Q

What percentage of neutrophils is seen on bronchioalveolar lavage with sEA?

A

> 25%

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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology that occurs with equine asthma?

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness
Bronchospasm
Inflammation
Mucus accumulation
Tissue remodelling

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6
Q

What two medications are required to treat equine asthma?

A

Glucocorticoids and bronchodilators

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7
Q

What additional medications can be used for mEA?

A

Immune modulation (interpheron-alpha) and omega-3 supplementation

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8
Q

Which bronchodilators are effective at treating equine asthma?

A

Beta-adrenergic
Parasympatholytic

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9
Q

Which environmental management techniques should be used to help manage sEA?

A

Keep outside at all times
Access to well ventilated shelter
Free of urine/manure
Pelleted feed or hay cubes
Soak hay/steam, haylage

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10
Q

What management should be undertaken for the management of summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease (SPAOPD)?

A

Clean, cool environment
Stabling
Low respirable dust
Do not feed in nets or round bales outside

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11
Q

How long can it take a horse to recover from equine asthma?

A

Clinical remission: 4-8 weeks
Reduction of smooth muscle mass: 12 months

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12
Q

What breeds are pre-disposed to ventricular septal defects?

A

Section As, standardbred, Arabians.

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13
Q

What are some prognostic criteria for ventricular septal defects?

A
  • Size of VSD and chambers
    Maximal shunt velocity
    Present of arrythmias and murmurs
    CHF
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14
Q

What conditions could cause myocardial disease?

A

Electrolyte abnormalities
Increased myocardial muscle mass
Increased chamber size
Myocarditis

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15
Q

Which bacteria are related to myocarditis?

A

Staphlococcus aureus, steptococcus equi and clostridium equi

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16
Q

What physiological dysrhythmia is most common in the horse?

A

2nd degree AV block

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17
Q

What breeds are particularly susceptible to atrial fibrillation?

A

Thoroughbreds, standardbreds, draught horses

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18
Q

What are the clinical signs of atrial fibrillation?

A

None
Exercise intolerance/poor performance
Epistaxis
Weakness/syncope
Myopathy
Colic
CHF

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19
Q

What are the treatment options for atrial fibrillation?

A

Quinidine sulphate
DC cardioversion

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20
Q

What side effects can occur with using quinidine sulphate to treat atrial fibrillation?

A

Fatal dysrhythmias
Colitis
Laminitis
Nasal oedema
Ataxia

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21
Q

What pharmacological treatment options are available for ventricular dysrhthymias?

A

Lidocaine
Magnesium
Procainamide
Amiodarone

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22
Q

Definition of endocardiosis

A

Valvular degeneration (progressive)

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23
Q

List the common clinical signs of bacterial endocarditis

A

Congestive heart failure
Fever
Cardiac murmur
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea

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24
Q

What are the clinical signs of pericardial disease?

A

Venous distention
Ventral oedema
Muffled heart sounds
Pericardial friction rubs
Pleural effusion

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25
Q

What pathogens are commonly associated with pericardial disease?

A

Equine viral arteritis
Equine influenza
Streptococcus pneumoniae
E.coli
Actinobacilus

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26
Q

How is Influenza A virus transmitted?

A

Aerosol (and fomites) - downwind 1 mile

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27
Q

What are the clinical signs of influenza A?

A

Fever
Cough
Nasal discharge

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28
Q

How is equine herpes virus 1 and 4 transmitted?

A

Inhalation of aerosol
Contact with infected fomites
Reactivation from latency

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29
Q

What are the clinical signs equine herpesvirus 1 and 4?

A

Fever, occasional mild cough, slight nasal discharge, poor performance

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30
Q

How do you treat equine herpesvirus 1 and 4?

A

Rest in athletic animals, EHM, nursing care and anti-inflammatories, vaccinations

31
Q

How is equine viral arteritis transmitted?

A

Respiratory, venereal and congenital
Indirect means

32
Q

What is the pathogenicity of equine viral arteritis?

A

Invades upper and lower respiratory tract. Infected monocytes and T lymphocytes transport EAV to the regional lymph nosed where it undergoes a further cycle of replication before being released into the bloodstream

33
Q

What are the clinical signs of equine viral arteritis?

A

Asymptomatic
Fever
Nasal discharge/ conjunctivitis
Loss of appetite/ depression
Respiratory distress
Skin rash/muscle soreness
Abortion

34
Q

What is the main source of lungworm via pasture contamination?

35
Q

Describe the normal heart sounds of the horse:

A

S4 - onset of atrial systole
S1 - Onset of ventricular systole, closure of AV valves, opening of semilunar valves
S2 - Onset of diastole, closure of semilunar valves, open AV
S3 - Rapid ventricular filling

36
Q

What features help to aid classification of a heart murmur?

A

Grade/intensity
Timing
Radiation
Point of maximal intensity

37
Q

How is a mitral valve murmur classified?

A

Timing - holosystolic, pansystolic, mid-late systolic
Grade - any
PMI - Left over mitral valve
Radiation - caudo-dorsally
Character and shape - band, crescendo

38
Q

What general structures are typically involved with unilateral nasal discharge?

A

Anything rostral to the nasal septum

39
Q

When investigating nasal discharge, what other examinations may be helpful to aid diagnosis?

A

Oral/dental exam
Neurological exam

40
Q

What are common differentials for unilateral discharge in the young horse?

A

Primary infections and congenital problems

41
Q

What are common differentials for unilateral discharge in the older horse?

A

Neoplasia, ethmoid haematoma and dental disease

42
Q

What is haemoptysis?

A

Coughing up blood

43
Q

How long until acute blood loss can be detected on PCV?

A

12-24 hours

44
Q

What are the indications for blood transfusion in acute blood loss?

A

Tachycardia and tachypnoea
Decreased pulse quality
Cool extremities
Pale MMs
Mentation changes
Increased blood lactate
Decreased PCV

45
Q

What structures are involved in bronchopneumonia?

A

Bronchi and parenchyma

46
Q

What are the 3 stages of pleuropneumonia?

A

Exudate stage
Fibrinopurulent stage
Organisation stage

47
Q

What are the risk factors for pleuropneumonia?

A

After viral infections, strenuous exercise, transportation and elevation of the head, GA, overcrowding, dysphagia

48
Q

What are the clinical signs of pneumonia?

A

Tachycardia/tachypnoea
Respiratory distress
Fever
Anorexia, depression
Nasal discharge
Exercise intolerance
Crackles and dull areas on auscultation

49
Q

What additional signs are seen with pleural pneumonia?

A

Pain intercostal spaces
Reluctance to walk, colic
Grunting during respiration
Abduction of elbows
Ventral oedema

50
Q

What is the typical 1st line treatment of pneumonia?

A

Penicillin and gentamicin IV
Additional metronidazole if aspiration pneumonia.

51
Q

In which intercostal space in thoracocentesis performed?

A

7/8 above costochondral junction

52
Q

What are the risk factors for respiratory disease in foals?

A

Systemic sepsis (FPT), congenital abnormalities, meconium aspiration, milk aspiration, birth trauma

53
Q

What is acute respiratory distress syndrome in the foal?

A

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, decreased pulmonary compliance and ventilation/perfusion mismatching

54
Q

What can meconium aspiration result in?

A

Mechanical airway obstruction
Regional air trapping
Surfactant inactivation and displacement
Chemical pneumonitis and alveolitis
Persistent pulmonary hypertension

55
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for milk aspiration?

A

Generalised weakness, poor suckle reflex, dysphagia, congenital abnormalities

56
Q

Where is the most common site of rib fracture in the foal?

A

At the costochondral junction

57
Q

What parasite can cause pneumonia in the foal?

A

Parascaris spp

58
Q

What is the most common bacterial pathogen to cause pneumonia in the foal?

59
Q

What are the clinical signs of Rhodococcus equi in the foal?

A

Insidious, LRT infection
Fever, lethargy
Coughing, tachypnoea, dyspnoea
Extrapulmonary disorders

60
Q

What pathogen causes strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi

61
Q

What are the clinical signs of strangles?

A

Sudden pyrexia
Mucopurulent nasal discharge
Retropharyngeal and submandibular LN abscessation
Pharyngitis

62
Q

How soon after strangles infection does abscessation of lymph nodes occur?

63
Q

What is the treatment for strangles?

A

NSAIDs
Soft, palatable, calorific diet
Abscess management
Isolation
Nursing care

64
Q

What are common conditions of the external nares?

A

Epidermal inclusion cysts
Redundant alar folds
Lacerations

65
Q

What is dynamic pharyngeal collapse?

A

Collapse of the pharyngeal wall when negative pressure is at its highest. May be associated with guttural pouch tympany and DDSP.

66
Q

What are the complications associated with recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?

A

Dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, avoid excessive abduction and implant failure with laryngoplasty

67
Q

What are the pre-disposing factors for jugular thrombosis?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome
Irritant drugs
Poor catheter placement
Poor catheter use

68
Q

What is the treatment for jugular thrombosis?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics
Anti-inflammatories
Heparin
Vasodilators
Raise head

69
Q

What is an aortoiliac thrombosis?

A

Partial or complete occlusion of the terminal aorta and external/internal iliac arteries by an organising thrombus.

70
Q

What are the clinical signs of aortoiliac thrombosis?

A

Poor performance
Exercise-associated hindlimb lameness
Breeding failure in stallions
Cold limbs and weak pulses after exercise

71
Q

How do you treat aortoiliac thrombosis?

A

NSAIDS, aspirin, fenbendazole

72
Q

What is the most common form of sudden death exercise in horses?

A

Vascular rupture

73
Q

What horses are pre-disposed to aorto-cardiac fistula?

A

Intact males

Equine (Chloe) (6 decks)

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