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Equine (Chloe) > Cardiorespiratory > Flashcards

Cardiorespiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of asthma?

A

Severe equine asthma - sEA (RAO and SPAOPD)
Mild to moderate asthma - mEA (IAD)

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2
Q

What does SPAOPD stand for?

A

Summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease

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3
Q

What percentage of neutrophils is seen on bronchioalveolar lavage with mEA?

A

10-25%

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4
Q

What percentage of neutrophils is seen on bronchioalveolar lavage with sEA?

A

> 25%

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5
Q

What is the pathophysiology that occurs with equine asthma?

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness
Bronchospasm
Inflammation
Mucus accumulation
Tissue remodelling

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6
Q

What two medications are required to treat equine asthma?

A

Glucocorticoids and bronchodilators

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7
Q

What additional medications can be used for mEA?

A

Immune modulation (interpheron-alpha) and omega-3 supplementation

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8
Q

Which bronchodilators are effective at treating equine asthma?

A

Beta-adrenergic
Parasympatholytic

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9
Q

Which environmental management techniques should be used to help manage sEA?

A

Keep outside at all times
Access to well ventilated shelter
Free of urine/manure
Pelleted feed or hay cubes
Soak hay/steam, haylage

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10
Q

What management should be undertaken for the management of summer pasture associated obstructive pulmonary disease (SPAOPD)?

A

Clean, cool environment
Stabling
Low respirable dust
Do not feed in nets or round bales outside

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11
Q

How long can it take a horse to recover from equine asthma?

A

Clinical remission: 4-8 weeks
Reduction of smooth muscle mass: 12 months

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12
Q

What breeds are pre-disposed to ventricular septal defects?

A

Section As, standardbred, Arabians.

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13
Q

What are some prognostic criteria for ventricular septal defects?

A
  • Size of VSD and chambers
    Maximal shunt velocity
    Present of arrythmias and murmurs
    CHF
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14
Q

What conditions could cause myocardial disease?

A

Electrolyte abnormalities
Increased myocardial muscle mass
Increased chamber size
Myocarditis

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15
Q

Which bacteria are related to myocarditis?

A

Staphlococcus aureus, steptococcus equi and clostridium equi

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16
Q

What physiological dysrhythmia is most common in the horse?

A

2nd degree AV block

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17
Q

What breeds are particularly susceptible to atrial fibrillation?

A

Thoroughbreds, standardbreds, draught horses

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18
Q

What are the clinical signs of atrial fibrillation?

A

None
Exercise intolerance/poor performance
Epistaxis
Weakness/syncope
Myopathy
Colic
CHF

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19
Q

What are the treatment options for atrial fibrillation?

A

Quinidine sulphate
DC cardioversion

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20
Q

What side effects can occur with using quinidine sulphate to treat atrial fibrillation?

A

Fatal dysrhythmias
Colitis
Laminitis
Nasal oedema
Ataxia

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21
Q

What pharmacological treatment options are available for ventricular dysrhthymias?

A

Lidocaine
Magnesium
Procainamide
Amiodarone

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22
Q

Definition of endocardiosis

A

Valvular degeneration (progressive)

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23
Q

List the common clinical signs of bacterial endocarditis

A

Congestive heart failure
Fever
Cardiac murmur
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea

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24
Q

What are the clinical signs of pericardial disease?

A

Venous distention
Ventral oedema
Muffled heart sounds
Pericardial friction rubs
Pleural effusion

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25
What pathogens are commonly associated with pericardial disease?
Equine viral arteritis Equine influenza Streptococcus pneumoniae E.coli Actinobacilus
26
How is Influenza A virus transmitted?
Aerosol (and fomites) - downwind 1 mile
27
What are the clinical signs of influenza A?
Fever Cough Nasal discharge
28
How is equine herpes virus 1 and 4 transmitted?
Inhalation of aerosol Contact with infected fomites Reactivation from latency
29
What are the clinical signs equine herpesvirus 1 and 4?
Fever, occasional mild cough, slight nasal discharge, poor performance
30
How do you treat equine herpesvirus 1 and 4?
Rest in athletic animals, EHM, nursing care and anti-inflammatories, vaccinations
31
How is equine viral arteritis transmitted?
Respiratory, venereal and congenital Indirect means
32
What is the pathogenicity of equine viral arteritis?
Invades upper and lower respiratory tract. Infected monocytes and T lymphocytes transport EAV to the regional lymph nosed where it undergoes a further cycle of replication before being released into the bloodstream
33
What are the clinical signs of equine viral arteritis?
Asymptomatic Fever Nasal discharge/ conjunctivitis Loss of appetite/ depression Respiratory distress Skin rash/muscle soreness Abortion
34
What is the main source of lungworm via pasture contamination?
Donkeys
35
Describe the normal heart sounds of the horse:
S4 - onset of atrial systole S1 - Onset of ventricular systole, closure of AV valves, opening of semilunar valves S2 - Onset of diastole, closure of semilunar valves, open AV S3 - Rapid ventricular filling
36
What features help to aid classification of a heart murmur?
Grade/intensity Timing Radiation Point of maximal intensity
37
How is a mitral valve murmur classified?
Timing - holosystolic, pansystolic, mid-late systolic Grade - any PMI - Left over mitral valve Radiation - caudo-dorsally Character and shape - band, crescendo
38
What general structures are typically involved with unilateral nasal discharge?
Anything rostral to the nasal septum
39
When investigating nasal discharge, what other examinations may be helpful to aid diagnosis?
Oral/dental exam Neurological exam
40
What are common differentials for unilateral discharge in the young horse?
Primary infections and congenital problems
41
What are common differentials for unilateral discharge in the older horse?
Neoplasia, ethmoid haematoma and dental disease
42
What is haemoptysis?
Coughing up blood
43
How long until acute blood loss can be detected on PCV?
12-24 hours
44
What are the indications for blood transfusion in acute blood loss?
Tachycardia and tachypnoea Decreased pulse quality Cool extremities Pale MMs Mentation changes Increased blood lactate Decreased PCV
45
What structures are involved in bronchopneumonia?
Bronchi and parenchyma
46
What are the 3 stages of pleuropneumonia?
Exudate stage Fibrinopurulent stage Organisation stage
47
What are the risk factors for pleuropneumonia?
After viral infections, strenuous exercise, transportation and elevation of the head, GA, overcrowding, dysphagia
48
What are the clinical signs of pneumonia?
Tachycardia/tachypnoea Respiratory distress Fever Anorexia, depression Nasal discharge Exercise intolerance Crackles and dull areas on auscultation
49
What additional signs are seen with pleural pneumonia?
Pain intercostal spaces Reluctance to walk, colic Grunting during respiration Abduction of elbows Ventral oedema
50
What is the typical 1st line treatment of pneumonia?
Penicillin and gentamicin IV Additional metronidazole if aspiration pneumonia.
51
In which intercostal space in thoracocentesis performed?
7/8 above costochondral junction
52
What are the risk factors for respiratory disease in foals?
Systemic sepsis (FPT), congenital abnormalities, meconium aspiration, milk aspiration, birth trauma
53
What is acute respiratory distress syndrome in the foal?
Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, decreased pulmonary compliance and ventilation/perfusion mismatching
54
What can meconium aspiration result in?
Mechanical airway obstruction Regional air trapping Surfactant inactivation and displacement Chemical pneumonitis and alveolitis Persistent pulmonary hypertension
55
What are the pre-disposing factors for milk aspiration?
Generalised weakness, poor suckle reflex, dysphagia, congenital abnormalities
56
Where is the most common site of rib fracture in the foal?
At the costochondral junction
57
What parasite can cause pneumonia in the foal?
Parascaris spp
58
What is the most common bacterial pathogen to cause pneumonia in the foal?
E.coli
59
What are the clinical signs of Rhodococcus equi in the foal?
Insidious, LRT infection Fever, lethargy Coughing, tachypnoea, dyspnoea Extrapulmonary disorders
60
What pathogen causes strangles?
Streptococcus equi
61
What are the clinical signs of strangles?
Sudden pyrexia Mucopurulent nasal discharge Retropharyngeal and submandibular LN abscessation Pharyngitis
62
How soon after strangles infection does abscessation of lymph nodes occur?
3-14 days
63
What is the treatment for strangles?
NSAIDs Soft, palatable, calorific diet Abscess management Isolation Nursing care
64
What are common conditions of the external nares?
Epidermal inclusion cysts Redundant alar folds Lacerations
65
What is dynamic pharyngeal collapse?
Collapse of the pharyngeal wall when negative pressure is at its highest. May be associated with guttural pouch tympany and DDSP.
66
What are the complications associated with recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?
Dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, avoid excessive abduction and implant failure with laryngoplasty
67
What are the pre-disposing factors for jugular thrombosis?
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome Irritant drugs Poor catheter placement Poor catheter use
68
What is the treatment for jugular thrombosis?
Broad spectrum antibiotics Anti-inflammatories Heparin Vasodilators Raise head
69
What is an aortoiliac thrombosis?
Partial or complete occlusion of the terminal aorta and external/internal iliac arteries by an organising thrombus.
70
What are the clinical signs of aortoiliac thrombosis?
Poor performance Exercise-associated hindlimb lameness Breeding failure in stallions Cold limbs and weak pulses after exercise
71
How do you treat aortoiliac thrombosis?
NSAIDS, aspirin, fenbendazole
72
What is the most common form of sudden death exercise in horses?
Vascular rupture
73
What horses are pre-disposed to aorto-cardiac fistula?
Intact males

Equine (Chloe) (6 decks)

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