Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key clinical signs of the chocking horse?

A

Ptyalism/drooling and hypersalivation

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2
Q

What medical management can assist the chocking horse?

A

Remove all feed and water
IVFT
NSAIDS/analgesics
Sedation
Oxytocin

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3
Q

What surgical approach can be used for the chocking horse?

A

Longitudinal esophagectomy with primary closure

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4
Q

What does EOTRH stand for?

A

Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis

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5
Q

What is a diastema?

A

Gaps develop between teeth

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6
Q

What are the two types of caries?

A

Peripheral or infundibular

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7
Q

What are acute causes of diarrhoea in the adult horse?

A

Salmonella spp.
Clostridium difficile/perfrigens
Coronavirus
Right dorsal colitis
Grain overload
Dietary

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8
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute diarrhoea in the adult horse?

A

Cow pat to high volume hosepipe D+++
Quiet to depressed
Colic, fever, hypovolaemia
SIRS
Laminitis
Secondary infections

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9
Q

What are the risk factors for acute diarrhoea?

A

GI disease, immunosuppression, antimicrobials, GA/abdo surgery
Management changes

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10
Q

What are the causes of chronic diarrhoea in the adult horse?

A

Salmonella spp.
Cyathostomiasis
Right dorsal colitis
Sand enteropathy
Inflammatory bowel disease
Dietary

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11
Q

What are the clinical signs of chronic diarrhoea in the adult horse?

A

Bright
Ventral oedema
Weight loss
Electrolyte imbalance

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12
Q

What is the most frequently isolated salmonella spp. in horses with large volumes of watery diarrhoea?

A

Salmonella Typhimurium

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13
Q

What clostridium spp. is associated with antimicrobial colitis?

A

Clostridium Difficile

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14
Q

What are the most common clostridium spp seen with haemorrhagic D++ in neonates?

A

Clostridium perfrigens types A and C

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15
Q

What are the risk factors of Cyathostomiasis infestation?

A

Age, season, period since last anthelmintic, altered host immunity, potentially stress and dietary changes.

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16
Q

What medication administration can lead to right dorsal colitis?

A

NSAIDs (toxicity)

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17
Q

What is the age range classification of the young horse?

A

6 weeks to 9 months

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18
Q

What additional differentials are the for acute diarrhoea in the young horse?

A

Proliferative enteropathy and rhodococcus equi

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19
Q

What clinical signs are seen in proliferative enteropathy along with acute diarrhoea in the young horse?

A

Severe hypoalbuminemia and weight loss +++

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20
Q

What are the two neonatal age ranges?

A

0-10 days and 10 days to 6 weeks.

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21
Q

What is the colloquial term for equine dysautonomia?

A

Grass sickness

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22
Q

What age of horse are typically affected by equine dysautonomia?

A

2 to 7 years old

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23
Q

What are the risk factors for equine dysautonomia?

A

Horses on pasture with mechanical dropping removal
Presence of domesticated birds on the field
Stress, higher BCS
Cool, dry weather. Frequent worming.
History of grass sickness

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24
Q

How long do horses with sub-acute equine dysautonomia typically survive?

A

> 2 days

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25
Q

How long do horses with chronic equine dysautonomia typically survive?

A

> 7 days

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26
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute equine dysautonomia?

A

Severe gut paralysis leading to acute colic signs
Difficulty swallowing and drooling
Nasogastric reflux
Mucus coated, hard droppings
Muscle tremors and patchy sweating
Tachycardia

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27
Q

What are the clinical signs of sub-acute equine dysautonomia?

A

Rapid weight loss
May eat small amounts of food
Mild-moderate colic

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28
Q

What are the clinical signs of chronic equine dysautonomia?

A

More insidious
Mild or intermittent colic
Reduced appetite
Difficulty eating
Rapid and severe weight loss/emaciation
Some may recover

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29
Q

What are the clinical signs of gastric disease?

A

Changes in temperament
Poor performance
Resentment of girthing and leg aid
Bucking/rearing under saddle
Weight loss
Colic signs

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30
Q

How do you prepare the horse for a scope?

A

No food for at least 12 hours
Water removed around 4 hours before
Grazing muzzle on a horse that eats bedding

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31
Q

What are the grades of squamous mucosa ulceration?

A

0 - epithelium intact and no appearance of hyperkeratosis
1 - Mucosa intact but areas of hyperkeratosis
2 - Small, single or multifocal lesions
3 - Large, single or extensive superficial lesions
4 - Extensive lesions with areas of apparent deep ulceration

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32
Q

What husbandry changes should be made for a horse diagnosed with gastric ulceration?

A

Feed roughage ad lib especially during the day
Reduce stressful stimuli
Eliminate carbohydrates from the horse’s diet

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33
Q

What is the most common treatment option for gastric ulceration?

A

Long acting, injectable omeprazole (4mg/kg once a week)

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34
Q

What is the adult appearance of strongyles?

A

Small and white/red

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35
Q

What is the adult appearance of roundworms

A

Large, flat and white

36
Q

What is the adult appearance of pinworms?

A

Up to 5cm, white, pointy, tall like a beansprout

37
Q

What is the adult appearance of tapeworms?

A

Small, flat and white

38
Q

What is habronemiasis associated with?

A

Skin sores and conjunctivitis

39
Q

What are some prevention methods of habronemiasis?

A

Good fly control
Muck heap management
Frequent bedding replacement
Cover wounds
Treat ocular disease

40
Q

What age of horse is typically affected by parascaris equorum?

A

Horses less than 2 years old

41
Q

What are the clinical signs of parascaris equorum infestation?

A

Coughing and nasal discharge
Poor coat, weight gain, dull, anorexic, occasional colic
Bone and tendon disorders

42
Q

How do you treat parascaris equorum?

A

Avermectins

43
Q

What is the colloquial name for anoplocephala perfoliate/magna?

A

Equine tapeworm

44
Q

What are the clinical signs of anoplocephala perfoliate?

A

Ileal impaction
Intussusceptions
Caecal impactions and motility disorders
Spasmodic colic
Diarrhoea
Functional and physical blockages

45
Q

What is the prepatent period of anoplocephala perfoliate?

A

6 to 10 weeks

46
Q

How do you treat anoplocephala perfoliate?

A

High dose pyrantel and praziquantel

47
Q

What parasite is an important cause of surgical colic?

A

Strongylus vulgaris

48
Q

What are the results of Strongylus vulgaris infection?

A

Protein-losing enteropathy
Anaemia
Colic, diarrhoea and anorexia
Lameness and poor performance
Occasional granulomas

49
Q

What are the clinical signs of cyathostominosis?

A

Severe acute diarrhoea
Colic
Weight loss
Diarrhoea
Wasting and death

50
Q

What is classed as the parasite of the stabled horse?

A

O.equi

51
Q

What management considerations should help to control levels of GI parasites?

A
  • Appropriate stocking
    Faecal collection
    Dung heaps separate from grazing area
    Pasture rotation
    Grazing with ruminants
    Create refugia
52
Q

What are some common clinical signs of colic?

A

Restless or agitated
Eating less or droppings reduced
Abdominal pain
Clinical changes
Tired or lethargic

53
Q

What are signs of severe or critical colic cases?

A

Severe unrelenting pain
Look depressed
Discoloured MMs
Absent gut sounds
Self-trauma
HR over 60bpm with abdominal distension

54
Q

What is the management for a grade 1 or 2 rectal tear?

A

Most will heal with medical treatment - antibiotics, laxatives and dietary changes

55
Q

What surgery options are available for a rectal teat?

A

Direct suturing, temporary indwelling rectal liner and colostomy

56
Q

What can trigger systemic inflammatory response syndrome?

A

Bacterial toxins resulting in coagulopathies

57
Q

What is the definition of sepsis?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome plus a culture proven infection

58
Q

What does MODS stand for?

A

Multi-organ dysfunction sydrome

59
Q

What is MODS?

A

Altered organ function in an acutely ill animal such that haemostasis cannot be maintained without intervention.

60
Q

What does DIC stand for?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

61
Q

How is disseminated intravascular coagulation diagnosed?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Prolonged prothrombin time
Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time
Increased fibrin degradation products
Decreased antithrombin 3

62
Q

What electrolyte imbalances develop when horses have had food withheld in combination with resuscitation fluids?

A

Hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia

63
Q

What electrolytes are commonly lost in animals with diarrhoea?

A

Sodium and Chlorine

64
Q

State causes of ileus.

A

pain
Abdominal surgery
Drugs
GI disease/inflammation

65
Q

What can be used to monitor nutrition status of the horse?

A

Weight
Physical exam
Hydration status
Metabolic lab work
Blood glucose
Triglycerides
BUN
Electrolytes
TS

66
Q

What is the treatment for thrombophlebitis?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics
Anti-inflammatories
Heparin
Vasodilators
Raise head

67
Q

What does low grade constant grumbling on gut sound auscultation indicate?

A

Peristalsis in small intestine and colon.

68
Q

How often should caecal emptying occur?

A

1-3 times a minute

69
Q

What should you be able to palpate on rectal?

A

Small intestine
Caecum
Large colon
Spleen
Ovaries
Uterus +/- bladder

70
Q

What is the normal volume of gastric fluid?

A

2-3 litres

71
Q

What does opaque pink/brown (serosanguinous) fluid indicate on peritoneal tap?

A

Compromised intestine

72
Q

What does opaque green/brown (ingesta) fluid indicate on peritoneal tap?

A

Ruptured intestine

73
Q

What does turbid white/yellow fluid indicate on peritoneal tap?

A

Peritonitis

74
Q

What is the pathophysiology of granulomatous enteritis?

A

Lymphoid and macrophage infiltration. Ileal villous atrophy

75
Q

What is the suspected cause of granulomatous enteritis?

A

Inflammatory reaction to intestinal bacteria.

76
Q

What is the potential cause of eosinophilic enterocolitis?

A

Nematode infestation inducing a hypersensitivity reaction.

77
Q

What horses are predisposed to eosinophilic enterocolitis?

A

Young Tbs and standardbreds.

78
Q

What are the risk factors for lymphocytic-plasmocytic enterocolitis?

A

Overcrowding, feed changes, ATB usage, mixing and transport, weaning

79
Q

What are the large intestinal causes of lymphocytic-plasmocytic enterocolitis

A

Parasitic infestation, right dorsal colitis, sand enteropathy, eosinophilic enterocolitis

80
Q

What is Theiler’s disease associated with?

A

Equine blood products and equine parvovirus

81
Q

What main 3 pathogens are associated with cholangiohepatitis?

A

Salmonellas spp., Klebsiella spp. and E.coli

82
Q

What is cholelithiasis?

A

Stone formation in the biliary ducts/obstruction

83
Q

What is the treatment for proliferative enteropathy?

A

Tetracyclines
IV oxytetracycline for 1 weeks then doxycycline

84
Q

How do you treat chronic sand enteropathy?

A

Psyllium and MgSO4 daily for 5-7 days.
NSAIDS, surgical emptying, enough roughage

85
Q

What additional supportive care can be used for horses with weight loss?

A

Vitamin E, milk thistle extracts, S-adenosylmethionine (anti-oxidant), N-acetylcysteine (cytoprotective)