repro high yield Flashcards
common site of obstruction in prostate disease
uracle in prostatic urethra (leftover emrbyologic uterus)
3 parts of urethra
penile (spongy) urethra
membranous urethra
prostatic urethra
enzyme that converts testosterone > dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
5a-reductase
LH action in male
stim leydig cells > testosterone
FSH action in male
stim sertoli cells > inhibin
fimbriae locaiton + function
at end of fallopian tube
wrap around ovary during ovulation to allow ova into ampulla
3 layers of uterus
endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium
cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses
higher grade HPV
cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses
higher grade HPV series
cervical squamous cell carcinoma sx
most asymp
bleeding post intercourse
stage vs grade
stage = spread grade = histologic changes
most common cervical cancer
cervical squamous cell carcinoma
endometritis bacertia
group A strep, staph
most common female tumor
leiomyoma/fibroid (estrogen dependent)
most common invasive cancer of female tract
uterine adenocarcinoma
what sx would make you worry about uterine cancer
bleeding in postmenopausal women
PCOS/stein-leventhal syndrome
hyperprolactinemia, androgen excess, young women
menstrual disorders, infertility, hirsuitism
androgen is not > estrogen; no aromatase activity
phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 1st 2 weeks
follicular; estrogen dominance
phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 2nd 2 weeks
luteal; progesterone dominance
are ovarian cancers usually painful?
no, asympt
CYSTS are painful
what causes the menstrual period
drop off of progesterone
LH spikes when in the menstrual cycle
right before ovulation
progesterone/luteal activity effect on temp
thermogenic; higher basal body temp after LH surge
what enzyme converts androgens to estrogen
aromatase
menopause avg age
52/53
menopause def
no menses 12+ months
rise FSH/LH
firbocystic breast dz caused by
excess estrogen
most common benign tumor of breast in women under 30
fibroadenoma
number 1 female cancer
breast carcinoma
what is pagets dz of breast
late stage infiltrating carcinoma causes inflammatino of tissue and nipple
sign of advanced dz
how many mature testes do you get from 1 spermatigonium
4
how many mature ova do you get from 1 oocyte
1
what type of process is gamteogenesis
meiosis
1st + 2nd miotic divisions in gametogenesis are what type of division
1 - haploid
2 - non-haploid
products of spermatogenesis
two 23x
two 23y
products of oogenesis
one 23x
2nd meiotic division in oogenesis requires
fertilization
fusing of pronuclei during fertilization results in a
zygote
stages between fertilization and implantation
- day 1; fertilization to zygote formation
- days 2-3; z cell stage through morula
- free blastocyst
- days 5-6; blastocyst attaches
primary site of fertilization
ampulla
ectopic implantation sites
anywhere thats not the endometrium
ectoderm gives rise to
“neuro + appendages”
CNS PNS sensory epitheliua of eye, ear, nose epidermis + appendages mammary glands post pituitary adrenal medulla
mesoderm gives rise to
CT, cartilage, bone muscle heart blood, lymph vessels, cells kidneys, ovaries, testes, genital ducts serous membrane spleen adrenal cortex
endoderm gives rise to
“linings, glandualr tissues”
gastric and respiratory epithelium
parenchyma of tonsils, thyroid, parathyroid, liver, thymus, pancreas
epithelial lining of bladder, urethra, tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, auditory tube
ant pituitary
foramen ovale >
fossa ovalis
umbilical vein >
ligamentum teres
umbilical arteries >
lat. umbilical ligaments
ductus venosus >
ligamentum venosum
ductus arteriosus >
ligamentum arteriosum
what glands are involved in lactation
ant pit (PRL; production) post pit (oxytocin; ejection)
rise in __ is the basis of most pregnancy tests
hCG
when do estrogen and progesterone rise
late teen weeks of preg
estrogen and progesterone rise during pregnancy due to
placenta
wk 1 + 2 tertatogen sensitivity
not normally susceptible, or complete death
what structures are only open to teratogen sensitivity early in pregnancy
heart
limbs
palate
ears
nucleotide structure
sugar, phosphate, base
differences between DNA and RNA
sugar:
DNA: deoxyribose
RNA: ribose
bases:
DNA: adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
RNA: adenine. URACIL, guanine, cytosine
strands:
DNA: two strands in double helix
RNA: single strand
purine bases
adenine (A)
guanine (G)
pyrimidine bases
uracil (U)
thymine (T)
cytosine (C)
nucleoside vs nucleotide suffix
nucleotide -ate
nucleoside -ine
nucleoside vs nucleotide
nucleoside: purine/pyrimidine linked to a pentose sugar
nucleotide: nucleoside + phosphate
purine biosynthesis is __% dependent on folic acid for methylation
100%
pyramidine biosynthesis is __% depenent on folic acid for methylation
50%
transcription is
DNA > RNA
polymerase I makes
mRNA
polymerase II makes
mRNA
polymerase III makes
tRNA
new DNA is formed in what direction
5’ to 3’
why is there more ligase activity/okazaki fragments on the right strand of DNA
it is 5’ > 3’ so must form in “reverse” order
translation is
formation of a new protein
cell division is
cell replication
apoptosis is
genetically controlled death of cell
mitosis is
nuclear division of somatic cells > making daughter cells
meiosis produces
gametes
phases of mitosis/nuclear division
prophase
metophase
anaphase
telophase
phases of interphase
G1
S
G2
most cells spend majority of their lives in what phase
interphase
G1 cell phase activity
growth, duplication, protein synthesis
S cell phase activity
DNA replication
G2 cell phase activity
protein synthesis
relationship between life expectancy of cell and mitotic rate
longer life expectancy of cell > slower mitotic rate
undifferentiated cells are often __ (normal/cancerous)
cancerous
key differences mitosis vs meiosis
cells formed
cell type
mitosis: somatic
meiosis: repro
cytoplasmic divisions:
mit: 1
mei: 2
mit: 2
mei: 4
chromosomes each new cell
mit: 46 (23 pair)
mei: 23
transciption factor binds to ___
TATA box, part of promoter
RNA polymerase needs ___ to recognize promoter
transcription factor
inducers do what
bind to nuclear receptor protein; this complex then binds to DNA and activates/inactivates certain genes
ex of inducer
steroid hormones
enhancers are what
regulatory DNA sequence; loops in DNA bring enhances near promoter regions of gene, can be upstream or downstream
genome mutation vs chromosome mutation
genome: loss of gain of whole chromosome
chromosome: rearrangement of material within a chromosome; usually translations
two types of gene mutation (AKA mendelian disorders)
point: single point mutation (1 nucleotide)
frameshift: insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs
klinefelters syndrome
XXY (thin body, hypogonadic, gynecomastia)
dx after puberty
turners syndrome
XO or mosaic (XO/46XY)
“menopause before menarche” by 2 yo
streak ovaries
rare
downs syndrome (trisomy 21)
47 chromosomes (extra chromosome 21) multiple internal disorders
types of mendelian (monogenic) abnormalities
autosomal recessive
autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive vs autosomal dominant
recessive: must have BOTH parents to have child exhibit trait. one parent can pass carrier trait
dominant: only one parent needs gene; 50% change of expression
ex of autosomal recessive disorders
PKU, sickle cell, thalassemias, fabry, hunter
ex of autosomal dominant disorders
vonwillenbrands, familial hypercholesterolemia
X/sex linked recessive vs dominant
recessive: symptomatic in males, carrier in females
dominant: rare; dominant so female can be carrier or expressive
X/sex linked recessive ex
G6PD deficiency
hemophilia
ex of polygenic (multifactorial) disorders
more than one genetic factor
cleft lip, gout, CAD, type II DM, club foot
mitochondrial DNA disorders
mitochondrial DNA strictly inherited from mother
ex: leber’s potic neuropathy
