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nplex > repro high yield > Flashcards

repro high yield Flashcards

1
Q

common site of obstruction in prostate disease

A

uracle in prostatic urethra (leftover emrbyologic uterus)

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2
Q

3 parts of urethra

A

penile (spongy) urethra
membranous urethra
prostatic urethra

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3
Q

enzyme that converts testosterone > dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

A

5a-reductase

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4
Q

LH action in male

A

stim leydig cells > testosterone

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5
Q

FSH action in male

A

stim sertoli cells > inhibin

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6
Q

fimbriae locaiton + function

A

at end of fallopian tube

wrap around ovary during ovulation to allow ova into ampulla

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7
Q

3 layers of uterus

A

endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium

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8
Q

cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses

A

higher grade HPV

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9
Q

cervical cancer is usually associated with what viruses

A

higher grade HPV series

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10
Q

cervical squamous cell carcinoma sx

A

most asymp

bleeding post intercourse

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11
Q

stage vs grade

A 
stage = spread
grade = histologic changes
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12
Q

most common cervical cancer

A

cervical squamous cell carcinoma

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13
Q

endometritis bacertia

A

group A strep, staph

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14
Q

most common female tumor

A

leiomyoma/fibroid (estrogen dependent)

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15
Q

most common invasive cancer of female tract

A

uterine adenocarcinoma

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16
Q

what sx would make you worry about uterine cancer

A

bleeding in postmenopausal women

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17
Q

PCOS/stein-leventhal syndrome

A

hyperprolactinemia, androgen excess, young women

menstrual disorders, infertility, hirsuitism

androgen is not > estrogen; no aromatase activity

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18
Q

phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 1st 2 weeks

A

follicular; estrogen dominance

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19
Q

phase of menstrual cycle that makes up 2nd 2 weeks

A

luteal; progesterone dominance

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20
Q

are ovarian cancers usually painful?

A

no, asympt

CYSTS are painful

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21
Q

what causes the menstrual period

A

drop off of progesterone

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22
Q

LH spikes when in the menstrual cycle

A

right before ovulation

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23
Q

progesterone/luteal activity effect on temp

A

thermogenic; higher basal body temp after LH surge

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24
Q

what enzyme converts androgens to estrogen

A

aromatase

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25
Q

menopause avg age

A

52/53

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26
Q

menopause def

A

no menses 12+ months

rise FSH/LH

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27
Q

firbocystic breast dz caused by

A

excess estrogen

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28
Q

most common benign tumor of breast in women under 30

A

fibroadenoma

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29
Q

number 1 female cancer

A

breast carcinoma

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30
Q

what is pagets dz of breast

A

late stage infiltrating carcinoma causes inflammatino of tissue and nipple

sign of advanced dz

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31
Q

how many mature testes do you get from 1 spermatigonium

A

4

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32
Q

how many mature ova do you get from 1 oocyte

A

1

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33
Q

what type of process is gamteogenesis

A

meiosis

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34
Q

1st + 2nd miotic divisions in gametogenesis are what type of division

A

1 - haploid

2 - non-haploid

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35
Q

products of spermatogenesis

A

two 23x

two 23y

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36
Q

products of oogenesis

A

one 23x

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37
Q

2nd meiotic division in oogenesis requires

A

fertilization

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38
Q

fusing of pronuclei during fertilization results in a

A

zygote

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39
Q

stages between fertilization and implantation

A
  1. day 1; fertilization to zygote formation
  2. days 2-3; z cell stage through morula
  3. free blastocyst
  4. days 5-6; blastocyst attaches
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40
Q

primary site of fertilization

A

ampulla

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41
Q

ectopic implantation sites

A

anywhere thats not the endometrium

42
Q

ectoderm gives rise to

A

“neuro + appendages”

CNS
PNS
sensory epitheliua of eye, ear, nose
epidermis + appendages
mammary glands
post pituitary
adrenal medulla
43
Q

mesoderm gives rise to

A 
CT, cartilage, bone
muscle
heart
blood, lymph vessels, cells
kidneys, ovaries, testes, genital ducts
serous membrane
spleen
adrenal cortex
44
Q

endoderm gives rise to

A

“linings, glandualr tissues”

gastric and respiratory epithelium

parenchyma of tonsils, thyroid, parathyroid, liver, thymus, pancreas

epithelial lining of bladder, urethra, tympanic cavity, tympanic antrum, auditory tube
ant pituitary

45
Q

foramen ovale >

A

fossa ovalis

46
Q

umbilical vein >

A

ligamentum teres

47
Q

umbilical arteries >

A

lat. umbilical ligaments

48
Q

ductus venosus >

A

ligamentum venosum

49
Q

ductus arteriosus >

A

ligamentum arteriosum

50
Q

what glands are involved in lactation

A 
ant pit (PRL; production)
post pit (oxytocin; ejection)
51
Q

rise in __ is the basis of most pregnancy tests

A

hCG

52
Q

when do estrogen and progesterone rise

A

late teen weeks of preg

53
Q

estrogen and progesterone rise during pregnancy due to

A

placenta

54
Q

wk 1 + 2 tertatogen sensitivity

A

not normally susceptible, or complete death

55
Q

what structures are only open to teratogen sensitivity early in pregnancy

A

heart
limbs
palate
ears

56
Q

nucleotide structure

A

sugar, phosphate, base

57
Q

differences between DNA and RNA

A

sugar:
DNA: deoxyribose
RNA: ribose

bases:
DNA: adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
RNA: adenine. URACIL, guanine, cytosine

strands:
DNA: two strands in double helix
RNA: single strand

58
Q

purine bases

A

adenine (A)

guanine (G)

59
Q

pyrimidine bases

A

uracil (U)
thymine (T)
cytosine (C)

60
Q

nucleoside vs nucleotide suffix

A

nucleotide -ate

nucleoside -ine

61
Q

nucleoside vs nucleotide

A

nucleoside: purine/pyrimidine linked to a pentose sugar
nucleotide: nucleoside + phosphate

62
Q

purine biosynthesis is __% dependent on folic acid for methylation

A

100%

63
Q

pyramidine biosynthesis is __% depenent on folic acid for methylation

A

50%

64
Q

transcription is

A

DNA > RNA

65
Q

polymerase I makes

A

mRNA

66
Q

polymerase II makes

A

mRNA

67
Q

polymerase III makes

A

tRNA

68
Q

new DNA is formed in what direction

A

5’ to 3’

69
Q

why is there more ligase activity/okazaki fragments on the right strand of DNA

A

it is 5’ > 3’ so must form in “reverse” order

70
Q

translation is

A

formation of a new protein

71
Q

cell division is

A

cell replication

72
Q

apoptosis is

A

genetically controlled death of cell

73
Q

mitosis is

A

nuclear division of somatic cells > making daughter cells

74
Q

meiosis produces

A

gametes

75
Q

phases of mitosis/nuclear division

A

prophase
metophase
anaphase
telophase

76
Q

phases of interphase

A

G1
S
G2

77
Q

most cells spend majority of their lives in what phase

A

interphase

78
Q

G1 cell phase activity

A

growth, duplication, protein synthesis

79
Q

S cell phase activity

A

DNA replication

80
Q

G2 cell phase activity

A

protein synthesis

81
Q

relationship between life expectancy of cell and mitotic rate

A

longer life expectancy of cell > slower mitotic rate

82
Q

undifferentiated cells are often __ (normal/cancerous)

A

cancerous

83
Q

key differences mitosis vs meiosis

A

cells formed

cell type

mitosis: somatic
meiosis: repro

cytoplasmic divisions:

mit: 1
mei: 2

mit: 2
mei: 4

chromosomes each new cell

mit: 46 (23 pair)
mei: 23

84
Q

transciption factor binds to ___

A

TATA box, part of promoter

85
Q

RNA polymerase needs ___ to recognize promoter

A

transcription factor

86
Q

inducers do what

A

bind to nuclear receptor protein; this complex then binds to DNA and activates/inactivates certain genes

87
Q

ex of inducer

A

steroid hormones

88
Q

enhancers are what

A

regulatory DNA sequence; loops in DNA bring enhances near promoter regions of gene, can be upstream or downstream

89
Q

genome mutation vs chromosome mutation

A

genome: loss of gain of whole chromosome
chromosome: rearrangement of material within a chromosome; usually translations

90
Q

two types of gene mutation (AKA mendelian disorders)

A

point: single point mutation (1 nucleotide)
frameshift: insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs

91
Q

klinefelters syndrome

A

XXY (thin body, hypogonadic, gynecomastia)

dx after puberty

92
Q

turners syndrome

A

XO or mosaic (XO/46XY)
“menopause before menarche” by 2 yo
streak ovaries

rare

93
Q

downs syndrome (trisomy 21)

A 
47 chromosomes (extra chromosome 21)
multiple internal disorders
94
Q

types of mendelian (monogenic) abnormalities

A

autosomal recessive

autosomal dominant

95
Q

autosomal recessive vs autosomal dominant

A

recessive: must have BOTH parents to have child exhibit trait. one parent can pass carrier trait
dominant: only one parent needs gene; 50% change of expression

96
Q

ex of autosomal recessive disorders

A

PKU, sickle cell, thalassemias, fabry, hunter

97
Q

ex of autosomal dominant disorders

A

vonwillenbrands, familial hypercholesterolemia

98
Q

X/sex linked recessive vs dominant

A

recessive: symptomatic in males, carrier in females
dominant: rare; dominant so female can be carrier or expressive

99
Q

X/sex linked recessive ex

A

G6PD deficiency

hemophilia

100
Q

ex of polygenic (multifactorial) disorders

A

more than one genetic factor

cleft lip, gout, CAD, type II DM, club foot

101
Q

mitochondrial DNA disorders

A

mitochondrial DNA strictly inherited from mother

ex: leber’s potic neuropathy

nplex (11 decks)

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