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TNG Exam 2 > Repro > Flashcards

Repro Flashcards

1
Q

What MHz probe is used for transrectal and transvaginal ultrasound examination?

A

5 MHz

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2
Q

Which MHz probe is used for placental and fetal identification when performing transabdominal ultrasound?

A

7.5 (placenta) anad 3.5 (fetus)

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3
Q

Higher MHz = (more/less) penetration = (more/less) detail

A

less penetration
more detail

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4
Q

Lower MHz = (more/less) penetration = (more/less) detail

A

more penetration
less detail

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5
Q

What are the best methods for pregnancy diagnosis in cows?

A

palpation per rectum*
Ultrasound – 13-14d
Biomarker - PAG
Hormones - ES, P4

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6
Q

what are the 4 cardinal signs of pregnancy in a cow and their respective timelines?

A

amniotic vesicle- 10 mm at 30d, 17 mm at 35d
chorioallantois/membrane slip – 40d
fetus - 60-65d
placentomes - 70d

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7
Q

What are the 3 best methods for pregnancy diagnosis in small ruminants?

A

failure to return to estrus (21d doe, 17d ewe)
ballottment (fluid wave)
ultrasound (@ base of udder, after 80d)

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8
Q

What are the 2 best methods for pregnancy diagnosis in pigs?

A

non-return to estrus* (17-24d, check w/ boar)
ultrasound (18-19d post breeding, 25-32d embryo proper)

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9
Q

What are the best methods for pregnancy diagnosis in camelids?

A

Ultrasound after day 12* (fluid in uterus = preg)
spitting off*
ballotment (fluid wave)

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10
Q

What are the best methods for pregnancy diagnosis in horses?

A

Rectal ultrasound - do on day 14*
Urine estrogen - Cuboni Test
Rectal palpation – fetus palpable after 7m

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11
Q

List the expected uterine swellings and their timeline in the pregnant mare

A

28d - golf ball / egg
35d - softball
45d - becomes fluctuant
60d - football
90d - basketball

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12
Q

Age an embryo in the center with the surrounding yolk sac takes up 1/2 and the allantoic sac takes up the other 1/2

A

29 days

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13
Q

Age an embryo that is mostly allantoic sac with a small amount of yolk sac at the top

A

33 days

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14
Q

Age an embryo that is at the bottom and completely surrounded by yolk sac

A

21 days

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15
Q

Age a fetus that is at the bottom and has an umbilical cord down through the middle

A

day 48

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16
Q

What is the leading cause of non-infectious abortion in mares?

A

TWINS
imperative to preg check prior to day 16 when embryos become fixed; if twins were present, you would want to manually reduce them prior to fixation (prior to day 16) to avoid losing both embryos or abortion

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17
Q

Abdominal palpation for preg diagnosis in small animals can be useful for what stage of pregnancy and what would you feel?

A

days 21-28
string of pearls

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18
Q

Radiography is only reliable for pregnancy diagnosis in small animals after day ____

A

40+

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19
Q

Ultrasound in small animals can be used from day _______ and can confirm pregnancy and fetal viability, but is not accurate for determining count

A

22+ (28*)

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20
Q

The ovary of a horse is (dorsal/ventral) and (cranial/caudal)

A

dorsal, cranial

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21
Q

What structure is NOT palpable on the horse?

A

CL

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22
Q

What are the 3 differences between palpating a cow vs mare?

A

cow – can stay in a let peristaltic waves pass over your arm, can retract genital tract into pelvis and pull caudally, and cervix is palpable due to stiff interlocking folds
horse – must come out with peristaltic waves, cannot retract genital tract into pelvis, cervix palpable but is smooth muscle with mucosal folds (felt best when she is cycling)

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23
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumor that is benign, slow growing, and produces behavioral changes (stallion-like behavior, prolonged estrus)?

A

granulosa (theca) cell tumor

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24
Q

On ultrasound, you see 2 enlarged ovary with honeycomb appearance and 1 inactive ovary. You do hormone analysis and find the following: low progesterone, increased testosterone, increased inhibin, and increased AMH. You decide the diagnosis is granulosa cell tumor. What is the treatment?

A

surgical removal of the ovaries will be curative

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25
Q

This tumor is the 2nd most common ovarian tumor, is benign, has germ cell origin, and produces NO hormones. Surgery is curative for this tumor

A

terratoma

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26
Q

This ovarian tumor is rare, is malignant with rapid spread, has germ cell origin, and produces NO hormones. There are usually no external signs of this tumors presence

A

dysgerminoma

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27
Q

This ovarian tumor is rare, is benign but locally invasive, and produces NO hormones. It is within the ovarian capsule or epithelium. Surgery is curative for this tumor

A

cystadenoma

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28
Q

Ovulation with excessive hemorrhage can create a/an _______________ which is commonly a differential for ovarian tumors. These, however, often lutenize and respond to prostaglandins

A

ovarian hematoma

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29
Q

failure of the CL to lyse at the end of diestrus because prostaglandin is not released from the uterus will result in …

A

a persistent CL that continues to produces progesterone for 2-3 months

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30
Q

Which cycling abnormality is characterized as having a prolonged interovulatory period. On ultrasound, there will be echogenic speckles within a follicle. Most of these follicles lutenize but some do not and regress spontaneously. There is an increased risk of this abnormality with increased age or previous occurence.

A

anovulatory follicle

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31
Q

uterine inflammation/infection, prostaglandin use on day 9-11, NSAID use around ovulation, use of hCG, and increased age are all risk factors for developing _______________?

A

anovulatory follicles

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32
Q

If a mare is 6 weeks post-foaling and has high energy demand, what is a common cycling abnormality

A

anestrus

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33
Q

T/F anestrus can be induced by starvation

A

T

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34
Q

What is the name for a mare that has a normal cycle but lacks behavioral signs, so she might require ultrasound and AI to become pregnant

A

silent heat

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35
Q

Endometrial cups (form at day 35 of pregnancy and regress 2-3 month later) secrete eCG that will cause _____________ and lead to cycling abnormalities.

A

additional CLs

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36
Q

why is urine pooling bad?

A

urine will get into the uterus during estrus, cause inflammation, lead to scarring, and subsequent infertility

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37
Q

how is urine pooling treated when the cause is poor conformation from age?

A

uterine lavage +/- surgery (move urethra caudally OR tighten broad ligaments to lift uterus)

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38
Q

What is the most common cause of cervicitis or vaginitis? and what is it mostly associated with

A

contamination caused by air or urine
assoc. with endometritis

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39
Q

T/F: persistent hymen is not clinically signficant because it will resolve itself

A

F: they can block uterine fluid clearance and cause infertility
they require manual breakdown or surgical removal

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40
Q

What are the 2 major consequence of a cervical laceration?

A
  1. loss of cervical integrity –> difficulty maintaining pregnancy
  2. scarring and adhesions can form which can present difficulties foaling and clearing fluid and lead to endometritis
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41
Q

What is the negative consequence of a rectovaginal fistula caused by foaling?

A

fecal contamination of vagina and uterus
surgical repair is necessary after 6 wks

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42
Q

What are the 2 normal uterine defense mechanisms instated to eliminate fluid, semen, and infectious organisms by 12-48 hrs?

A
  1. uterine contractions post-mating inducing oxytocin release to clear semen/fluid
  2. semen or infectious organism stimulation of innate immune response at uterine surface (neutrophil influx to clear inflammatory debris, etc.)
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43
Q

Endometritis is a common cause of infertility in the mare and occurs due to…

A

problems in clearing semen, fluid, and infectious organisms

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44
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of infectious endometritis?

A
  1. poor vulvar conformation
  2. breeding – improperly cleaned stallion
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45
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of noninfectious endometritis?

A
  1. post mating – cervix doesnt relax and uterus doesnt contract appropriately –> cannot clear fluid –> abnormal inflammatory response to semen
    OR overwhelming inflammatory response to semen
  2. uterine irritants: air, urine
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46
Q

The following predispose what condition?
age, degenerative uterine change (defense mechanisms arent functioning as well), repeated foaling (scarring, displacement, cant clear fluid), poor vulvar conformation, abnormal cervix (age or scarring–> fibrosis –> cant dilate–> fluid retained)

A

endometritis

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47
Q

What are the most common etiologic agents for infectious endometritis?

A
  1. bacteria – strep equi zooepidemicus, e coli, pseudomonas
  2. fungal - candida, aspergillus, actinomyces
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48
Q

You are examining a horse with a history of vulvar discharge, infertility and post-mating fluid. On ultrasound, you see uterine fluid and edema. You do a low volume lavage and send it for cytology and culture, you see neutrophils and staph equi zooepidemicus. What is your presumptive diagnosis?

A

infectious endometritis

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49
Q

What is the treatment for infectious endometritis?

A

uterine lavage with LRS (4-6 hr after breeding)
Ecbolic drugs (oxytocin, cloprostenol, PGF) to increase uterine tone and contractility and clear uterine fluid
Antimicrobials (intrautreine or systemic)
Mucolytics (N-acetylcystine)
Chelators (TrisEDTA)

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50
Q

What is the prognosis for acute bacterial endometritis? postmating endometritis? chronic endometritis?

A

Acute – good
PM – challenging; managing every cycle bc it will keep recurring, but she can get preg
chronic – preg is less likely due tot scarring; would need to use advanced repro techniques

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51
Q

T/F: pyometra is a common sequelae of endometritis in the mare

A

false – its rare; if it does occur they can have up to 60L of fluid in uterus and NO systemic illness. It occurs due to a cervical issue. Treatment is drainage of fluid/pus + uterine lavage+ ecbolics + antinflammatories. The prognosis is poor because of uterine scarring

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52
Q

A dilated endometrial gland or lymphatic vessel associated with areas of fibrosis are called ___________. If larger or if there are multiple, then MAY cause infertility by impairing MRP and fluid clearance. The treatment is laser cyst ablation, but they will recur.

A

endometrial cyst

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53
Q

A horse presents to you with gray vulvar discharge. You culture and run PCR on a sample and it comes back as ___________. You diagnose this horse with Contageous Equine Metritis. You are aware that this disease has carrier status (clitoral sinus or urethral fossa) and is reportable.

A

taylorella equigenitalis

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54
Q

T/F: a stallion is managed inappropriately, there could be overgrowth of pathogenic organisms on his penis and transmitted to the mare during breeding (klebsiella, pseudomonas, strep zoo., e coli) and cause endometritis.

A

T

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55
Q

What are the clinical signs of equine arteritis virus?

A

fever, respiratory disease, edema, and abortion

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56
Q

Your equine patient has circular nodules on vulvar mucosa and perineal skin and is very painful. What is your presumptive diagnosis?

A

Equine coital exanthema (EHV-3) a venereally transmitted disease

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57
Q

What is the difference of clinical signs of Dourine (caused by trypanosoma equiperidum) between male and female?

A

F: vaginal discharge, edematous vulva, polyuria, raise thickened patches on vaginal mucosa
M: edema of prepuce and glans, discharge, paraphimosis
silver dollar plaques (edematous patches) on ribs
HIGH mortality rate, reportable

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58
Q

T/F: mares that have had twins once will likely have them again

A

T

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59
Q

What are the options and timelines for treatment of equine twins?

A
  1. Natural Reduction – before 40d
  2. Terminate pregnancy (lutalyse)– before 35d
  3. ultrasound probe manual reduction – 13-16d
  4. transvaginal ultrasound guided aspiration – 16-45d
  5. cervical dislocation – 60-100d
  6. transcutaneous inj of KCL or PPG ultrasound guided – 100-130d
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60
Q

Chronic repeated progesterone exposure (normal cycle or exogenous progestagens) causes _______.

A

CEH –
uterine glands increase in # and size, secretions increases, and cystic dilation takes place leading to a potential for fluid accumulation

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61
Q

what is the best treatment for CEH?

A

OHE

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62
Q

Infertility or sub fertility, hydrometra, mucometra, endometritis, and pyometra are the 5 potential consequences of what condition?

A

CEH

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63
Q

During Proestrus and Estrus, what is the cervix doing

A

cervix is OPEN
bacteria from NF vagina –> uterus
healthy uterus will eliminate bacteria before it closes

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64
Q

What are the 5 most common bacteria involved in pyometra?

A
  1. E. coli*
  2. staphylococcus, streptococcus
  3. klebsiella
  4. pseudomonasa
  5. proteus
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65
Q

T/F: pyometra should be a differential diagnosis in ALL intact female dogs and less frequently in incompletely spayed females with uterine stumps

A

T

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66
Q

How can you diagnose pyometra?

A
  1. history – heat 1-3 m ago, exogenous progesterone
  2. physical exam – discharge (if open), anorexia, depression, PU/PD, tachycardia, tachypnea, abdominal distnettion, hind limb weakness, lameness, v/d, fevre, dehydration
  3. abdominal ultrasound – fluid filled uterine horns +thickened uterine wall
  4. CBC, chem – leukocytosis, neutrophilia, left shift, monocytosis, normocytic normochromic anemia, azotemia, increased ALP, bilirubinemia, hypoalbuminemia
  5. vaginal cytology – if open only – neutrophils with parabasal cells, bacteria
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67
Q

T/F: closed pyometra is associated with more severe illness and the outcome is worse

A

F – outcome is not worse

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68
Q

How do you treat pyometra?

A
  1. emergency OHE (once stable)
  2. antibiotics – IV at first then PO; broad spec not nephrotoxic (amoxi-clav, enrofloxacin, combo) then adjust based on c/s
  3. supportive care – iv fluids, antiemetics, analgesia
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69
Q

Medical treatment (emptying uterus + decreasing progesterone levels with PGF2a, algepristone, and cabergoline) for pyometra is ONLY for patients who…

A
  1. are young breeding bitches
  2. in good clinical condition
  3. no other uterine pathology and normal ovaries
  4. no repro cycle abnormalities
  5. open pyo
  6. high anesthetic risk
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70
Q

What is the outcome of medical treatment for pyometra

A

24-48 hr clinical improvement
high recurrence rate usually on next heat cycle

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71
Q

T/F: pregnancy will increase risk of developing pyometra

A

F – pregnancy is considered protective for development of pyometra

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72
Q

A 8 month old F puppy presents to your clinic with mucopurulent vaginal discharge. You do a vaginal cytology and see inflammation (non-deg PMNs and parabasal cells). You diagnose this dog witth puppy vaginitis. What are your treament recommendations

A

this condition will spontaneously resolve in after 1-2 heat cycles, so treatments is benign neglect +/- cleaning vulvar area and providing e collar.
Its best recommended to NOT spay this dog before the vaginitis resolves or it will become chronic

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73
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary adult onset vaginitis in an intact bitch

A
  1. primary is when no underlying predisposing factors exist – ex. canine herpesvirus, brucella canis
  2. secondary is when there are underlying factors – ex. anatomic abnormalities, vaginal neoplasia, foreign body, trauma, UTI, concurrent uterine disease, endocrine disease such as DM.
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74
Q

What are the diagnostics for adult onset vaginitis in intact bitches?

A
  1. digital palpation – feel for bands, stricture, tumors
  2. vaginal cytology and bacteriology with c/s via guarded deep cranial vaginal swab (see degenerate neutrophils, vaginal epithelial cells corresponding with stage of cycle, bacteria, mucus, debris)
  3. vaginoscopy – hyperemic mucosa, discharge in canal
  4. +/- urinalysis if suspect UTI also present
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75
Q

How do you treat adult onset vaginitis in intact bitches?

A
  1. correct the underlying cause
  2. antibiotics – amoxi-clav first, then adjust based on c/s
  3. probiotics PO
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76
Q

adult onset vaginitis in spayed dogs is secondary to…

A

vaginal atrophy following spay due to lack of estrogen influence

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77
Q

what is the treatment for adult onset vaginitis in spayed dogs?

A
  1. correct any underlying cause if present
  2. estriol (incurin) tablets – short-acting estrogen –> proliferation and cornification of vaginal mucosa and increases local defense mechanisms
  3. if bacteria present, add antibiotics based on c/s
  4. probiotics
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78
Q

T/F: perivulvar dermatitis occurs more commonly in spayed dogs and recessed vulva, skin folds, obesity, vaginitis, UTI, and urinary incontinence can predispose this condition

A

T

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79
Q

What is the treatment for perivulvar dermatitis?

A
  1. treat underlying cause (UTI, urinary incontinence, weight loss)
  2. clean with chlorohex
  3. e-collar
  4. antibiotics
  5. episiotomy if severe
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80
Q

What size would you expect the CL to be when palpating a pregnant cow at day 20-22?

A

20-25 mm diameter

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81
Q

_________________ is a pre-partum disorder in large animals that can produce persistent estrus, irregular cycles, and persistent anestrus

A

cystic ovarian disease

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82
Q

T/F: pregnancy is a major cause of anestrus

A

true

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83
Q

what is the typical size of a follicular cyst in an animal with cystic ovarian disease?

A

3-4 cm (golf ball)
firm, large, fluid-filled with thin wall

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84
Q

what is the typical size of a luteal cyst in an animal with cystic ovarian disease?

A

2.5-3 cm
fluid-filled with thick wall (luteal tissue)

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85
Q

Cystic ovarian disease causes failure to ovulate and is of major economic importance. What is the treatment for SR and bovine with this condition?

A

GnRH - initial; will cause persistence of luteal tissue
PGF2a- 10 days later; will lyse CL
CIDR (progesterone) ??
similar to ov-synch

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86
Q

follicular cysts found in other large animal species are anovulatory because they … which will cause persistent estrus or recurrent estrus that may lead to anestrus

A

do not respond to the LH surge due to lack of LH receptors

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87
Q

what is the treatment for swine with follicular cysts

A

none – cull

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88
Q

True/False: follicular cysts in swine can be incidental findings at slaughter and can be resultant of hormonal therapies such as PG600 or giving inadequate altrenogest

A

true

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1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

True/False:
Estrus in pregnant cows around 5 months is considered abnormal. This is caused by the placenta taking over on day 150 and when estrogen is produced, it is turned into progesterone.

A

FALSE – this is considered normal

90
Q

Retained placenta, metritis, increased risk for abortion, less viable calf, and freemartins are all problems associated with what?

A

twins!

91
Q

if early embryonic death occurs after day 16, what effect does that have on cycling?

A

she will cycle abnormally, as opposed to if the embryonic death occurred prior to day 16, where her cycle would be a normal length.

92
Q

fetal mummification is when the fetus dies in utero around 5-6 months. The body absorbs all liquid substance leaving behind bones. What are a few causes of fetal mummification?

A
  1. retained CL
  2. BVD
  3. Neospora
93
Q

how do you treat a cow who has a mummified fetus?

A

give PGF2a and hope the cervix opens
if not, surgery OR cull.

94
Q

__________ is an accumulation of fluid (20-50 gal) that causes abdominal distention.

A

Hydrops

95
Q

_________________ is a placental abnormality that occurs rapidly due to an Na pump dysfunction. This carries poor prognosis for both cow and fetus

A

hydrops allantois

96
Q

______________ is a fetal abnormality (esp of head) that occurs slowly because fetus cannot control amniotic fluid. This carries a good prognosis for the cow

A

hydrops amnii

97
Q

______________ is hereditary (ex. herefords) condition that commonly recurs and the recommendation is culling. this is a pre-partum condition that if it is repaired, she will calve ok.

A

vaginal prolapse

98
Q

6 Causative Factors for vaginal prolapse

A
  1. inherited
  2. poor perineal conformation
  3. increased estrogen –> relaxation of pelvic ligaments
  4. increased abdominal pressure
  5. increased irritation due to drying and frost bite
  6. straining
99
Q

how do you treat vaginal prolapse?

A
  1. give caudal epidural anesthesia (lidocaine)
  2. clean prolapsed tissue
  3. lift vagina and relieve urine
  4. replace vagina with fists/knuckles, not fingers!
  5. retention sutures
  6. antibiotics and anti-inflammatories
100
Q

Pregnancy Toxemia in sheep (aka twin lamb disease) is caused by ________________________. It occurs in really thin or fat females. The female cannot consume enough food due to space-occupying pregnancy. To treat, do c-section.

A

fetuses trapping glucose from dam

101
Q

True/False: pregnancy toxemia is more common in sheep than goats and higher incidence in animals on estrogenic forage (clover) or in late gestation.

A

true

102
Q

Crowding, inappropriate BCS, multiple fetuses, terrain, and an enlarged rumen due to poor quality feed are all risk factors for…

A

increasing abdominal pressure and leading to vaginal prolapse in small ruminants

103
Q

previous dystocia, vaginal trauma, or previous vaginal prolaspses can cause additional vaginal prolaspses, so what is the protocol for treatment?

A

clean tissue and replace the prolapse gently but firmly (can use pursestring suture, retaining device or retaining harness) until parturition
add antibiotics, antiinflammatories, and analgesics.
cut the stitch PRIOR to giving birth
cull females because they will repeat

104
Q

__________ is incomplete dilation of the cervix at parturition

A

ring womb

105
Q

ringwomb has 2 major causes…

A
  1. failure of secretions of hormones that control labor
  2. failure of tissue response to hormonal secretions
106
Q

what is the treatment protocol for ringwomb?

A

antibiotics, c-section
cull because its likely to occur again

107
Q

intersex conditions in goats are more common in dairy goats due to the polled gene. These are usually phenotypic (males/females) that act like (males/females) after puberty. They have (male/female) gonads on inside.

A

phenotypic females
act like males after puberty
male gonads on inside

108
Q

in dairy goats, retention of the CL will cause cloud burst or hydrometra. This causes abdominal enlargement d/t fluid in the uterus. The treatment is prostaglandins. What is this condition called?

A

false pregnancy

109
Q

True/False: White chalky vaginal discharge is normal associated with estrus in pigs

A

true

110
Q

true/false: seeing purulent vaginal discharge ~10-18 days post breeding in pigs is considered abnormal.

A

true – could be endometritis. some will resolve, others require systemic antibiotics

111
Q

what are the biggest 2 reasons to sterilize bovine species?

A
  1. management – comingling of herds
  2. heritable diseases (angus, herefords)
112
Q

what is the most common technique for sterilization in bovine species?

A

surgical – removal of testes
(newberry knife 1-3 months old, banding scrotum much younger)

113
Q

why would we vasectomize males?

A

teaser males!

114
Q

what are the biggest 2 reasons we sterilize small ruminant species?

A
  1. management
  2. meat taint (from testosterone)
115
Q

what is the most common technique for sterilization in small ruminants?

A

banding at 2-4 days old
although some want to wait until 5-6 months old to allow full development of their urethral process as to avoid increasing risk of urinary calculi getting stuck

116
Q

what are the 2 biggest reasons to sterilize porcine species?

A
  1. management – boars are mean
  2. meat taint – even worse than SR, but delicate balance between not removing it too early (would decreased growth) and not removing too late (meat taint)
117
Q

what is the most common method of sterilization in porcine species?

A

surgical or chemical at <2 weeks old

118
Q

what are the 2 biggest reasons to sterilize camelids?

A
  1. management
  2. heritable disease prevention
119
Q

what is the most common technique to sterilize a camelid?

A

surgical castration at 15-18 months (alpacas 15, llamas 18); no earlier because higher rates of arthritis

120
Q

what are the 2 most common reasons for sterilizing equine species?

A
  1. management – training and behavior
  2. heritable disease control – HYPP, PSSM, lethal white, SCID
121
Q

what are the 2 most common sterilization techniques for equines?

A
  1. surgical – Ovarioectomy (teaser mares, GCT) or castration (at 6 months)
  2. hormonal manipulation – Regumate (synthetic progestin will shut down sexual behavior and no ovulation) or AntiGnRH injection (Equity) – keeps them out of season, but some never cycle again*
122
Q

What are the 3 most common reasons for sterilization in small animals?

A
  1. population control
  2. heritable disease control
  3. management
123
Q

what are the 3 most common techniques for sterilization in small animals?

A
  1. surgical – OHE, neuter
  2. chemical –GnRH vaccine (off market)
  3. Hormonal – Ovuplant, GnRH vxn
124
Q

What is the goal with sterilization in food animals?

A

maximize weight gain prior to market and slaughter without accruing meat taint
PROFIT is most important, therefore sterilization cannot cost more than what they profit

125
Q

What are some conditions that increase with gonadectomy ?

A

transitional cell carcinoma
prostatic neoplasia
osteosarcoma
hemangiosarcoma
CCL injury
obesity
urinary incontinence
diabetes mellitus
hypothyroidism

126
Q

what are some conditions that are decreased with gonadectomy?

A

pyometra
mammary neoplasia
ovarian and uterine neoplasia
testicular neoplasia
benign prostatic hytrophy

127
Q

This condition is most common in intact male dogs (>5yrs old) and is due to chronic exposure of the prostate to 5a-dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy

128
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of BPH

A

Age increase leads to decreased testosterone and a relative increase in estrogen. This estrogen increased leads to an increase in prostate androgen receptors. This leads to more conversion of testosterone to DHT (with the help of 5a-reductase). DHT is exposed to the prostate and causes hypertrophy.

129
Q

A dog presents to your clinic with bloody/sanguinous preputial discharge and a little bit of hematuria. The owner complains that the dog has been constipated and seems painful when trying to defecate. She also states that the stool looks ribbon-like and sometimes is diarrhea. You collect semen from this dog and there is blood within the 3rd fraction and decreased semen quality. You have a presumptive diagnosis of BPH in mind. What is the next diagnostic step to confirm?

A

prostate palpation per rectum – it will be enlarged, symmetric, smooth, and NON-painful.

you could also opt to ultrasound the prostate to look at the size of the gland +/- visualize any cysts that may have grown within the gland.

130
Q

After palpating an enlarged, symmetric, smooth, and NON-painful prostate gland in your patient. You diagnose them with BPH. What is your treatment recommendation?

A

you must pevent DHT exposure from the prostate.
1. castrate – removes T and DHT; reduces prostate size within 9 weeks
2. finasteride — 5a-reductase inhibitor; inhibits conversion of T to DHT. will reduce prostate size within 8-12 weeks and does not affect sperm quality.

131
Q

A male patient presents to you with fever, anorexia, hind limb lameness, and abdominal pain. You perform prostate palpation per rectum because you suspect prostatitis (a sequelae of BPH). What would be the findings of the palpation?

A

painful, enlarged, firm prostate.

if this infection were chronic, patient would not be painful.

132
Q

How can you definitively diagnosis prostatitis?

A
  1. bacterial culture/sensitivity from cystocentesis + UA (best for acute stages) or prostatic fluid + 3rd fraction of ejaculate (good for chronic stages)
133
Q

T/F: you should perform FNA on prostate if you feel enlarged gland and suspect prostatitis

A

false — never FNA a prostate gland. this is potential for seeding bacterial infection elsewhere.

134
Q

What would the CBC/Chem findings be if you patient has acute prostatitis or prostatic abscess?

A

leukocytosis with left shift

135
Q

What is the treatment for prostatitis?

A
  1. treat BPH (castrate or finasteride)
  2. antibiotics – common bacteria culprit is e. coli; use Ab that is lipophilic, weak base, and not protein bound. FQ, sulfa, macrolides, amoxi-clav good options. if acute infection do for 4 weeks, if chronic do for 6-12 weeks
  3. NSAIDs for decreasing inflammation and pain
  4. supportive care – fluids, opioids, antiemetics
  5. if abscess – antibiotics, NSAIDs, supportive care + surgical omentalization (if > 1 cm)
136
Q

T/F: prostate neoplasia is relatively uncommon, but neutered dogs have higher risk than intact.

A

true

137
Q

T/F: BPH predisposes neoplasia

A

false

138
Q

what is the prognosis of prostatic neoplasia (TCC, adenocarcinoma, SCC, lymphosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma)?

A

poor – highly malignant and aggressive

139
Q

what would be the findings of a rectal palpation in a dog with prostate neoplasia?

A

no palpable sulcus, firm,
+/- enlarged, asymmetric, painful

140
Q

How can you definitely diagnose prostate neoplasia?

A

prostate FNA or biopsy

141
Q

what is the treatment for a patient with prostatic neoplasia?

A

palliative
1. cox-2 inhibitors – piroxicam, carprofen (increase survival time)
2. surgery of prostate (does not increase ST)
3. tube cystotomy, urinary stent

142
Q

squamous metaplasia of the prostate is due to what influence?

A

estrogen
1. estrogen-secreting testicular tumor
2. exogenous estrogens

143
Q

T/F: the testes of cats are within the scrotum at birth, whereas in dogs, they descend by 10-35 days after birth.

A

true

144
Q

which testis is more likely to be the cryptorchid testis?

A

right

145
Q

how can you diagnose a crypthorchid animal?

A
  1. clinical exam
  2. imaging (U/S)
  3. endocrine tests (AMH, LH, GnRH)
146
Q

what is the treatment for cryptorchidism?

A

castration – if you do not remove them, they are at risk of neoplasia and/or torsion

147
Q

Most Leydig cell tumors and seminomas are localized to where?

A

scrotal testicle

148
Q

__________ tumors are 50-50 cryptorchid and scrotal localization.

A

Sertoli cell

149
Q

T/F: most testicular tumors produce estrogen

A

true

150
Q

when testicular tumors produce estrogen, they cause what to occur within the prostate?

A

squamous metaplasia

151
Q

What are the clinical signs of a testicular tumor?

A
  1. firm, enlarged, palpable mass within testis
  2. atrophy of contralateral testis (d/t estrogen)
  3. hyperestrogenism – alopecia, hyperpigmentation, pendulous prepuce, bone marrow hypoplasia
152
Q

What diagnostic test should you run on a dog that you suspect has a testicular tumor after you have performed testis palpation?

A
  1. preputial cytology – you will see the estrogen influence (superficial epithelial cells)
  2. ultrasound
  3. cbc/chem – bone marrow hypoplasia
153
Q

what is the treatment for testicular tumors in male dogs?

A

castration

154
Q

What are the clinical signs of torsion of spermatic cord?

A

scrotal/inguinal swelling, pain, abnormal gait

155
Q

what diagnostics can help you diagnose torsion of spermatic cord?

A
  1. U/S with color doppler (check if blood flow has ceased)
  2. x-ray
  3. exploratory laparotomy
156
Q

what are the clinical signs of acute vs chronic orchitis and epididymitis?

A

acute – testis/epididymis painful, swollen, hot, red, firm
chronic – testis small, soft or firm, adhesions to scrotum, NOT painful.

157
Q

what diagnostics should you run on a dog that you suspect has orchitis and/or epididymitis?

A
  1. U/S
  2. cbc/chem
  3. B. canis serology
  4. ejaculate c/s
  5. cystocentesis – UA, c/s
158
Q

what is the treatment for orchitis and/or epididymitis?

A
  1. castration
  2. antibiotics – enrofloxacin (4 weeks)
  3. NSAIDs, colling, IV lfuids
  4. B. canis – euthanasia or neuter+Ab+monitoring serology (ZOONOTIC)
159
Q

in the bitch, give the various pregnancy lengths based on the following time periods: preovulatory LH peak, ovulation, diestral shift, after breeding.

A

preovulatory LH peak – 65 +/- 2d
ovulation - 63 +/- 2d
diestral shift – 57 +/- 2d
after breeding – 57-68d after breeding

she should give birth 63 days post ovulation

160
Q

what is pregnancy length in felines?

A

65-66 days (52-74 after breeding)

161
Q

T/F: there is no known signal for maternal recognition of pregnancy in thee bitch

A

true

162
Q

why does pseudopregnancy occur in dogs and cats?

A

there is no PGF, so no CL lysis.
In real pregnancy, the placenta will produce PGF and lyse the CL

163
Q

what is the 6 week biosecurity rule for pregnancy in small animals?

A

no exposure of the bitch to new people or animals 3 weeks before parturition and 3 weeks after parturition.

164
Q

how can we diagnose pregnancy in small animals?

A
  1. ultrasound
  2. serum relaxin (>d25)
  3. radiographs (after day 40)
  4. abdominal palpation (25-30d)
165
Q

when should you check fetal vitality and how?

A

look at fetal heart flutter and heart rate using ultrasound. start on day 22+
HR > 200 normal
fetal movement will start occuring at day 31

166
Q

which diagnostic can allow you to do gestational aging and estimate a due date based on measurements of embryonic and fetal structures?

A

ultrasound

167
Q

Supplementing ________ in predisposed breeds (chihuahua) can reduce midline defects such as cleft palate.

A

folic acid

168
Q

What is the general nutrition recommendation for pregnancy?

A

puppy food or all life stages with DHA
give small, frequent meals during late gestation and lactation

169
Q

T/F: obesity in small animals has shown to cause more dystocias

A

true

170
Q

what is a safe dewormer to use in pregnant bitches? When should you administer? What does it prevent?

A

fenbendazole – use at d41-43 of gestation
prevents T. canis and A. caninum transmission to placenta and fetus.

171
Q

when should you do prewhelping xray for fetal count?

A

day 56

172
Q

describe an ideal whelping/queening area and when you should set it up

A

washable bedding, food footing, draft-free warm environment
set up 1 week prior to due date

173
Q

embryonic resorption occurs <35d of gestation. There are 2 forms – describe them.

A
  1. physiologic – does NOT affect normal litter size; due to genetic abnormality of embryo or overcrowding
  2. pathologic – complete preg loss or decreased litter size; infectious or non-infectious
174
Q

What are the common infectious causes of embryonic resorption in small animals?

A
  1. bacterial – e coli, strep, staph, campylobacter jejuni, salmonella, mycoplasma, ureaplasma, B. canis
  2. viral – CHV-1, parvo, distemper, FIV, FeLV, FIP, feline calicivirus
  3. toxoplasma
175
Q

what are common non-infectious causes of embryonic resorption?

A
  1. CEH
  2. hypoluteoidism
  3. endocrine disorders
  4. drugs
  5. toxins
  6. nutrition
  7. trauma
176
Q

A patient presents to your clinic with hemorrhagic vulvar discharge and an aborted fetus. What diagnostic tests should you run?

A
  1. U/S to see if remaining fetuses are vital and see if there is any fluid in the uterus
  2. serum progesterone (if its too low, she is going to abort the other fetuses)
  3. vaginal cytology + c/s
  4. cbc/chem
  5. B. canis serology +/- PCR
  6. pathology of the aborted fetus
177
Q

what is the recommended treatment for a bitch who has resorbed/aborted a fetus?

A
  1. evacuate uterine contents if all of the fetuses are dead
  2. antibiotics, esp if abortion
  3. supportive care
178
Q

A bitch presents to your clinic because she is experiencing a dystocia and has hemorrhagic vulvar discharge. You perform c-section and something is disordered about the uterus that actually caused the dystocia. You decide to perform OHE after removing puppies. What is the condition?

A

uterine torsion

179
Q

What are the 2 options for misalliance in small animals?

A
  1. allow to carry to term
  2. terminate pregnancy (OHE or medically)
180
Q

What are the 3 medications used to terminate pregnancy in small animals?

A
  1. aglepristone – progesterone receptor blocker
  2. cabergoline – blocks prolactin
  3. prostaglandin F2a (dinoprost, cloprostenol) – lyse CL, no prog.
181
Q

When should you use aglepristone to abort a pregnancy in small animals?

A

Before 21 days (early preg)
7-14d post mating – must confirm diestrus before starting (vaginal cytology)
prevents implantation
progesterone receptor blocker

182
Q

If you have a bitch that is in mid-pregnany (22-40d), what is the goal of medical abortion and what are the various treatments you can use to accomplish this?

A

goal - induce embryonic resorption (<35d) or fetal abortion
options
1. aglepristone alone
2. aglepristone + PGF2a +/- cabergoline
3. PGF2a + cabergoline

183
Q

T/F: if a bitch is in late pregnancy (>40d), medical management can still be performed.

A

false – med management past 45d is less effective and the risks are fetal retention/incomplete abortion, uterine infection, and birth of premature puppies

184
Q

____________ is benign fibroglandular proliferation of one or more of the mammary glands. Rapid growth occurs over 2-5 weeks. This occurs due to endogenous progesterones (young, intact, preg or pseudopreg) or exogenous progestins (any age, female or male, intact or not)

A

feline mammary hyperplasia (FEH)

185
Q

how can you definitively diagnose feline mammary hyperplasia (FEH)?

A

signalment, hx and clin signs are presumptive and ideally enough
definitive – serum progesterone, FNA/biopsy (not nec., but if you need to differentiate from mammary tumor in male animals, older animals, or animals receiving progestin treatment)

186
Q

What is the treatment for a cat with feline mammary hyperplasia (FEH) due to ENDOGENOUS progesterone?

A
  1. it may spontaneously regress after parturition or pseudopreg (keep in mind mastitis is a risk and there will be reduced milk prod)
  2. OHE
  3. medical treatment – PGF2a + cabergoline OR aglepristone (keep in mind this will abort the pregnancy)
187
Q

What is the treatment for a cat with feline mammary hyperplasia (FEH) due to EXOGENOUS progesterone?

A

discontinue progestin treatment and give aglepristone
make sure to rule out mammary neoplasia

188
Q

In bos indicus bulls, pendulus prepuce can predispose to ________.

A

injury

189
Q

Boars have a __________ that can become filled with fluid and become ulcerated

A

preputial diverticulum

190
Q

Hypospadia in bucks is …

A

failure of preputial closure

191
Q

Persistent penile frenulum is observed in young males. It causes (phimosis/paraphimosis) and may rupture spontaneously. It should be ligated and severed if not. This is a heritable trait, so these animals should not be bred.

A

phimosis – unable to extend penis

192
Q

Penile deviations (spiral or ventral) in bulls is due to an inadequate apical ligament. You will need to observe breeding and will likely have to do surgical correction because this abnormality will cause issues with what?

A

intromission

193
Q

intersex/pseudohermphrodite dairy goats (assoc. with polled gene) will have what phenotype and act like what sex?

A

female phenotype
act like male

194
Q

a true hermaphrodite has …

A

both gonads inside (ovotestes)

195
Q

fibropapillomas are common in young bulls and usually found on BSE. They usually spontaneously regress, but may require …

A

manual or surgical removal

196
Q

what is balanoposthitis?

A

inflammation of penis and prepuce

197
Q

balanoposthitis is associated with ______________ in the following species:
- bovine
- equine
- bucks

A

bovine – herpesvirus
equine – habronemiasis and SCC
bucks – high protein diet + C. renale

198
Q

Why are animals with long prepuce hair at risk?

A

hair rings can constrict on penis and cause necrosis

199
Q

what are 2 common causes of phimosis (inability to exteriorize penis)?

A
  1. small preputial orifice
  2. hair rings
200
Q

what are 3 common causes of paraphimosis (inability to retract penis)?

A
  1. tranquillizers (eq)
  2. trauma and hematomas
  3. persistent erection (priapism)
201
Q

penile hematoma aka “broken penis” is caused by what?

A

sharp deviation of erect penis with rupture of tunica albuginea on dorsal surface –> swelling cranial to scrotum

202
Q

what is the treatment for penile hematoma?

A

hydrotherapy, antibiotics, anti-inflammatories, sex rest for 60-90d

203
Q

____________ is an enlargement at the cranial aspect of the scrotum. entrapment of the intestines is possible. It is more common on the LEFT side. It can be traumatic or heritable. It requires surgical correction to fix.

A

inguinal hernia

204
Q

what location is most common for the. cryptorchid testis in the following species: stallion, bull, ram, buck, boar

A

stallion – inguinal canal
bull, ram, buck – flank, inguinal canal, or intra-abdominal
boar - intra-abdominal

205
Q

testicular hypoplasia is described as…

A

failure of testes to develop normally

206
Q

T/F: testicular neoplasia is not very common in food animals

A

true

207
Q

what is the difference between a hydrocele, hematocele, ad variocele that are all accumulations of fluid that cause scrotal swelling? They can be due to tumors, trauma, or have no cause at all.

A

hydrocele – accum of serous fluid between visceral and parietal layers of vaginal tunic
hematocele – hemorrhagic fluid
variocele – dilation and tortuosity of veins of pampiniform plexus and cremaster veins

208
Q

_________ is inflammation of the seminal vesicles, common in young bulls. It can be ascending or hematogenous. We are unable to treat this infection and culling is the recommendation.

A

seminal vesiculitis

209
Q

This condition causes stallions to be unable to ejaculate completely.

A

blocked ampullae

210
Q

Epididymitis in rams is a venereal disease associated with what organism. it has no treatment, culling is recommended.

A

brucella ovis

211
Q

What is the #1 most commonly diagnosed neoplasm of bitches age 8-11 (usually small breed dogs)?

A

mammary tumors
50% only in a single gland, 70% are in the caudal glands

212
Q

Although less common in felines, intact queens can get these tumors between 10-12yo and they are malignant. It is common for there to be multiple masses with ulceration of the skin. Many of them metastasize to local lymph nodes.

A

mammary tumor

213
Q

What is the recommendation for mammary tumors?

A

remove them, send it for biopsy, and then grade it when you get the biopsy results back. After seeing the results, you can decide how to move forward and give an accurate prognosis.

214
Q

Why does gonad removal seem to lead to increased neoplasia risk?

A

hormones!
there is no longer negative feedback loops, so LH increases.
There are LH receptors all over our body, so having excess LH without negative feedback can cause various issues around the body.

215
Q

What are 2 known and proven medical benefits to spaying an intact bitch?

A
  1. mammary neoplasia risk decreased
  2. pyometra risk absent
216
Q

what are the biggest negative medical aspects to spaying female dogs?

A
  1. urinary incontinence
  2. obesity
  3. surgical complications (abdominal surgery is invasive and risky)
  4. TCC, osteosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma
  5. CCL rupture
217
Q

what is the biggest known medical benefit to neutering a male dog?

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy will not occur
testicular neoplasia risk decreased

218
Q

What are the drawbacks to neutering a dog?

A
  1. surgical complications
  2. osteosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma, TCC, prostate neoplasia
  3. CCL rupture
  4. obesity
219
Q

What is the foundational thing to consider when deciding to spay or neuter an animal?

A

owned vs not owned

220
Q

Prior to gonadectomy, what are some steps you should perform?

A
  1. history – sx, signs of being intact, cyclicity, secondary sex characteristics
  2. thorough PE – scrotum, penis, mammary glands
  3. palpation per rectum – ovaries, intrabdom. testes, uterus, cervix, caudal pole of kidney
  4. vaginal exam – cervix, clitoris
221
Q

What diagnostics are involved in a pre-breeding or pre-gonadectomy exam?

A
  1. vaginal cytology
  2. hormone tests - LH (if elevated = gonads not present, do not perform during heat), AMH**, progesterone (if high, luteal tissue is present)
  3. stimulation tests (GnRH)
  4. Karyotype
  5. Ultrasound
222
Q

T/F: intra-abdominal testes are 85% more likely to have a tumor and torsion

A

true

TNG Exam 2 (8 decks)

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