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TNG Exam 2 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 anatomic defense mechanisms of the genital tract

A
  1. stratified squamous epithelium vagina and vulva
  2. cervix
  3. urethra (longer in males, prevents retrograde infection of prostate)
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2
Q

How does resident NF act as a defense mechanism of the genital tract?

A

colonization resistance – pathogens cannot adhere and thus cannot cause disease

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3
Q

What acts as a non-immunlogical defense mechanism to the genital tract by increasing blood supply to the vagina and uterus, increases myometrial activity to expel pathogens, increasing neutrophils in cervix and uterus, and increasing myeloperoxidase activity of phagocytic cells

A

estogen

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4
Q

High levels of __________ predisposes to infection because it depresses phagocytosis and oxidative killing, as well as decreases myometrial activity which will cause pathogen retention

A

progesterone

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5
Q

Conformation defects are a risk factor for infections of the genital tract because…

A

they increase vaginal pooling or urine, pneumovagina, and/or cervical incompentancy

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6
Q

In bitches during the luteal phase, why are they at higher risk for E. coli infection

A

receptors of E.col are expressed which allows colonization and expression of adhesins

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7
Q

Explain the CEM and bacterial infections relationship

A

repeat hormone cycles (prog) –> endometrial thickening and cysts –> good env for bacterial proliferation after ascending into the uterus –> increases risk for pyometra

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8
Q

T/F: trauma during parturition, retained fetal membranes, and nutritional factors can act as predisposing factors for genital tract infections

A

T

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9
Q

What are the 2 common routes of transmission for bacterial genital tract infections

A
  1. ascending – bact. from envr, NF, or venereal
  2. hematogenous – spread by blood and localizes in genital tract
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10
Q

What 1 bacterial species cause balanopothitis (infl of penis or prepuce)?

A

corynebacterium renale
trueperella pyogenes +/- mycoplasma

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11
Q

This bacteria causes an infection called ‘Pizzle Rot’ and is a gram + commensal organism of the genital tract of carrier males (mostly sheep)

A

corynebacterium renale

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12
Q

Describe the predisposing factor for Pizzle Rot

A

increased protein in feed leads to urea in urine
c. renale produces urease which breaks that urea into ammonia
ammonia causes irritation of the skin of the preputial opening +/- penis
c. renale is then allowed to invade and damage the epithelium and cause ulcerative lesions

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13
Q

Decipher the routes of transmission for orchitis vs epididymitis

A

orchitis – hematogenous
epididymitis – ascending from urogenital tract

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14
Q

Rams (younger - asc., older - hematogenous) are most commonly affected with orchitis and/or epididymitis. What are the 3 most common bacterial organisms causing this?

A
  1. brucella
  2. actinobacillus
  3. histophilus somni
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15
Q

Prostatitis is most common in dogs. What 4 bacterial species are the most common causes?

A
  1. Staph pseudintermedius
  2. E. coli
  3. Beta hemolytic Strep and enterococcus
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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16
Q

what bacteria is most commonly involved with seminal vesiculitis in bulls?

A

trueperella pyogenes

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17
Q

vaginitis and vulvitis is most commonly reported in dogs, cows, and sows. What are the bacteria most commonly causing these infection in these species?

A

dog – streptococcus canis, e. coli, staph pseudintermedius
cow - mycoplasma,ureaplasma
sow - e.coli

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18
Q

T/F: dogs with vulvitis and vaginitis tend to resolve spontaneously in pre-pubertal bitches as they age, whereas older animals there is usually an underlying factor involved that needs to be corrected

A

T

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19
Q

what is the most common timing of endometritis in mares?

A

post-mating

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20
Q

what is the most common timing of metritis in dogs and cows?

A

post-partum

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21
Q

what is the most common timing of pyometra in cows and dogs?

A

dogs - diestrus
cows - weeks post-partum

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22
Q

T/F: mating causes mild endometritis in most mares and it is cleared 24-48 hr post mating, but in some mares infections persists leading to bigger problems

A

T

23
Q

most common isolate for endometritits in mares

A

strep equi zooepidemicus

24
Q

what are the 2 diagnostics for endometritis in mares?

A

guarded swab for c/s – to determine bacteria type
endometrial biopsy – to determine type of inflammation present

25
Q

Name 3 predisposing factors of metritis in cows and bitches

A
  1. abortion
  2. retention of placenta
  3. trauma/dystocia
26
Q

a cow with a diseased endometrium (metritis) and persistent CLs is at risk for what condition and why?

A

pyometra because progesterone secretion and that leading to endometrial hyperplasia and increasing susceptibility to infection

27
Q

how do you diagnose pyometra in cows?

A

metricheck device and evaluation of sample

28
Q

what role does progesterone have in the development of infection, specifically pyometra?

A

progesterone increases susceptibility to bacterial infection by
1. inducing fluid accumulation in endometrial glands and the uterine lumen
2. suppressing leukocyte activity
3. decreasing myometrial activity
also induction of receptors for e. coli

29
Q

what bacteria most commonly causes pyometra in dogs?

A

e. coli

but also: beta hemolytic streptococci, staphylococcus pseuintermedius, enterobacterales

30
Q

how do you diagnose pyometra in dogs?

A

FNA of surgical sample because e. coli are not predictably susceptible so requires c/s

31
Q

why do pyometra dogs have pu/pd?

A

e.coli endotoxin interferes with action of ADH on renal tubules –> medullary washout and isosthenuria
oftten have mild interstitial and tubular nephritis
this is reversible with resolution of the pyometra

32
Q

what 6 diagnostics are used to diagnose brucella in dogs?

A
  1. semen collection + culture
  2. blood collection + culture
  3. serology - can still have even if culture neg d/t intermittent shedding.
  4. semen exam – abnormal sperm
  5. testicular/epididymal palpation
  6. PCR
33
Q

T/F: brucella canis is found in the US and is considered zoonotic

A

T

34
Q

T/F: brucella ovis is the only brucella species that is not zoonotic

A

T

35
Q

describe brucella

A

gram - rod
strict aerobe
oxidase positive
maintained in carrier animals
facultative intracellular in macrophages and repro tract cells
shed intermittently by carriers

36
Q

how is brucella transmitted?

A
  1. direct contact with infected/carrier animals
  2. contact with fomites (contam. food/water)
37
Q

What are the 4 routes of infection for brucella?

A
  1. ingestion (milk, licking genitalia)
  2. exposure of mucosal surfaces
  3. venereal
  4. congenital (in-utero)
38
Q

describe the pathogenesis for brucella

A

brucella invade mucus membranes
they get phagocytosed by macrophages and are taken to regional lymph nodes
they are disseminated hematogenously
they localize and persist in macrophages, repro tract, and udder
they proliferate best in high levels of erythritol (abortion) –> fetus –> abortion

39
Q

What makes brucella hard to control at a population level?

A

chronic intermittent shedding (after calving, semen, in urine)

40
Q

brucella abortus causes late term abortion and infertility in what species?

A

cattle

41
Q

brucella abortus causes epididymitis and orchitis in what species

A

bulls

42
Q

brucella abortus causes fistulous withers and poll evil in what species

A

horses

43
Q

what diseases does brucella canis cause?

A
  1. abortion and infertility
  2. epididymitis, sperm abnormalities and infertility
  3. systemic dissemination – prostatitis, meningoencephalitis, diskospondylitis, anterior uveitis, osteomyelitis, glomerulonephritis
44
Q

what diseases does brucella suis cause?

A
  1. abortion in sows
  2. orchitis and epididymitis in boars
  3. disseminated infections
45
Q

what diseases does brucella ovis cause?

A
  1. epididymitis in older rams
  2. abortion in ewes (late term)
  3. decreased flock fertility rates
46
Q

what diseases does brucella melintensis cause?

A
  1. late-term abortion in cattle
  2. epididymitis / orchitis
  3. mastitis
    found in goat cheese, mostly in mexico, no human vaccine and its zoonotic!
47
Q

describe treatment of brucella for ruminants and pigs versus in dogs

A

ruminants and pigs – not treated and culled
dogs – high dose doxycycline + enrofloxacin, OHE/neuter, monitor with serology, zoonotic threat!!!

48
Q

what diagnostic tests should be run if you suspect leptospira infection causing late-term abortion outbreak?

A
  1. sample maternal and fetal tissues (placenta, cotyledons, uterine discharge, fetal stomach contents, fetal lung, liver, kidney, and spleen, dams midstream urine, and 2x blood
  2. do PCR for neosporum caninum, bovine viral diarrhea virus, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, and lepto
  3. test urine, placenta, and fetus for brucella and lepto
49
Q

what species of campylobacter causes repro tract disorders in sheep and goats?

A

C. jejuni and C. fetus ssp fetus

50
Q

what species of campylobacter causes repro tract disorders in cows?

A

C. fetus ssp. venerealis

51
Q

what are the 2 modes of transmission for campylobacter?

A
  1. ingestion (feco-oral, invade through GIT, cause septicemia, localize in repro tract) – only C. jejuni, C.fetus ssp. fetus
  2. venereal – mating or AI (only C. fetus ssp veneralis)
52
Q

Corynebacterium fetus ssp. venerealis is carried in the male repro tract, transmitted venereally to cows during breeding or AI, and causes what to occur?

A

abortion and infertility in cows (early embryonic death)
asymptomatic in bulls

53
Q

how do you diagnose campylobacter?

A

PCR or culture

54
Q

Corynebacterium fetus ssp fetus lives in GIT and invades bloodstream and localizes in repro tract subsequently causing placentitis. It causes …

A

late term abortion in sheep , abortion storms in flock

TNG Exam 2 (8 decks)

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