Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Renal :') > Renal Pathology 9 > Flashcards

Renal Pathology 9 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common primary tumor of the ureter?

A

papillary transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how is retroperitoneal fibrosis characterized?

A

by the development of extensive fibrosis throughout the retroperitoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what demographic of people are most likely to get retroperitoneal fibrosis?

A

middle to late age males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the predisposing factors for cystitis?

A

bladder calculi, urinary obstruction, diabetes mellitus, instrumentation, and immune deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the most common etiologic agents of cystitis?

A

e. coli, p. klebsiella, enterobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is interstitial cystitis?

A

UTI symptoms of more than 6 weeks duration in the absence of infection or other identifiable causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the typical cystoscopic findings of interstitial cystitis?

A

mucosal fissures and punctate hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is malakoplakia?

A

distinctive chronic inflammatory reaction that appears to stem from acquired defects in phagocyte function; it arises in the setting of chronic bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who is most likely to get malakoplakia?

A

people who are immunosuppressed, such as in renal transplant recipients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are michaelis-gutmann bodies?

A

they are laminated mineralized concentration resulting from deposition of calcium in enlarged lysosomes of macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is polypoid cystitis?

A

an inflammatory lesion resulting from irritation of the bladder mucosa, most commonly as a result of instrumentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are 3 examples of metaplastic lesions of the bladder?

A

cystitis glandularis and cystitis cystica, squamous metaplasia, nephrogenic adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cystitis glandularis and cystitis cystica both arise in what setting?

A

inflammation and metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

squamous metaplasia of the bladder is a consequence of what?

A

it is a response to chronic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what occurs in nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?

A

the overlying urothelium is focally replaced by cuboidal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the overwhelming majority of bladder tumors are of what origin?

A

epithelial, with urothelial neoplasms being by far the most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is staging of bladder cancer done?

A

based on the depth- the major decrease in survival is associated with the invasion of the muscularis propria (detrusor muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the factors that have been implicated to be the causation of urothelial carcinoma?

A

smoking, aryl amines, analgesic use long term, cyclophosphamide, irradiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mutations that disrupt the function of what genes are present in all muscle-invasive cancers, but occur early in the development of CIS?

A

TP53 and RB mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the treatment of urothelial carcinoma of the bladder depend on?

A

it depends on the presence of detrusor muscle invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how do you treat non-muscle invasion of urothelial carcinoma of the bladder?

A

transurethral resection/intravesicle chemo. life long follow up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how do you treat muscle invasive urothelial cancers?

A

cystectomy/cystoprostatectomy or radiation with chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where do urothelial carcinoma of the bladder mets usually go?

A

locoregional nodes; distant sitesL peritoneum, lung, liver, and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

true sarcomas of the bladder are very uncommon. What is more common that true sarcomas?

A

inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors and various carcinomas that assume sarcomatoid growth patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the most common bladder sarcoma in infancy or childhood?

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the most common bladder sarcoma in adults?

A

leiomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma manifest?

A

polypoid grape-like mass (sarcoma botryoides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how is urethritis classically divided?

A

gonococcal and nongonococcal causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is one of the earliest manifestations of urethritis?

A

gonococcal urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the 2 most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis?

A

various strains of chlamydia and mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

urethritis is also accompanied by what in women and what in men?

A

cystitis in women and prostatitis in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a urethral caruncle?

A

an inflammatory lesion that presents as a small red painful mass about the external urethral meatus, typically in older females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

primary carcinoma of the urethra is an uncommon lesion. What types of carcinoma?

A

proximal: urethral differentiation
distal: squamous cells carcinoma and HPV related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is condyloma acuminatum?

A

a benign sexually transmitted wart caused by HPV 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does high magnification of condyloma acuminatum show on histology?

A

the epithelium shows perinuclear vacuolization (koilocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is peyronie disease?

A

reactive rather than neoplastic disorder; hard penile plaques that result from microvascular trauma and subsequent organizing sclerosing chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the treatment for peyronie disease?

A

surgery and injection of collagenase to lyse the fibrous plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the precursor lesions associated with HPV related squamous neoplasia of the penis?

A

bowen disease and bowenoid papulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does bowen disease present?

A

penile shaft and scrotum of older men, thickened gray-white opaque plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how does bowenoid papulosis present?

A

usually in sexually active adults (younger age) multiple reddish brown papular lesions; virtually never develops into invasive carcinoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which HPV strain is associated with bowen and bowenoid lesions?

A

HPV 16

42
Q

what is non HPV related squamous carcinoma in situ/ neoplasia of the penis associated with?

A

balanitis xerotica obliterans

43
Q

Invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the penis is associated with what?

A

high risk HPV infection, smoking, and chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis et atrophicus

44
Q

what confers protection against invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?

A

circumcision

45
Q

what is the contribution of high-risk HPV to penile carcinoma?

A

HPV that encodes for E6 and E7

46
Q

how does invasive squamous cell carcinoma present?

A

it has often been present for a year or more before it is brought to medical attention

47
Q

epididymitis in childhood (uncommon) is usually associated with what?

A

a congenital genitourinary abnormality and infection with gram negative rods such as e. coli, klebsiella, and pseudomonas

48
Q

in sexually active men younger than age 35 years, what is the most common cause of epididymitis?

A

sexually transmitted pathogens like c. trachomatis and neisseria gonorrhoeae

49
Q

in men older than 35 what is the most common cause of epididymitis?

A

common urinary tract pathogens like e. coli and pseudomonas

50
Q

what is orchitis? and what are the most common causes?

A

testicular infections; neisseria gonorrheae, mumps, mycobacterium, treponema pallidum

51
Q

what are the clinical features of a testicular torsion?

A

affected testicle lies horizontally, high riding testicle due to spermatic cord shortening

52
Q

what are the key physical exam maneuvers associated with testicular torsion?

A

absent cremasteric reflex and prehn sign (lifting scrotum relieves pain in epididymitis and increases pain in torsion)

53
Q

what is the most common benign paratesticular tumor?

A

adenomatoid tumor

54
Q

germ cell tu,ors of the testicles most often affect what age group?

A

15-45 white males

55
Q

what contributes to the development of germ cell neoplasia of the testicles?

A

both environmental exposures and inherited and acquired genetic abnormalities

56
Q

progression to full-blow GCTs of the testicles is strongly associated with what?

A

reduplication of the short arm of chromosome 12

57
Q

what are the risk factors for GCTs of the testicles?

A

cryptorchidism and Klinefelter syndrome

58
Q

when is the peak incidence of seminoma?

A

4th decade of life

59
Q

what is the histopathology of a seminoma?

A

clear or watery appearing cytoplasm and large central nucleus with one or two prominent nuclei

60
Q

what are the tumor markers that may be elevated in seminomas?

A

hCG

61
Q

what is the treatment for seminomas?

A

they are radiosensitive and chemosensitive- best prognosis

62
Q

when is the peak incidence for embryonal carcinoma?

A

20-30 year olds

63
Q

what is the histopathology of an embryonal carcinoma?

A

the neoplastic cells have an epithelial appearance, are large and anaplastic, and have hyperchromatic nuclei with prominent nucleoi- gland formation

64
Q

what are the special stains for seminoma tumors?

A

postive for KIT, OCT3/4, and podoplanin; negative for cytokeratin

65
Q

what are the special stains for embryonal GCTs of the testicle?

A

positive for OCT3/4 and cytokeratin; negative for KIT and podoplanin

66
Q

what is the most common testicular tumor in infants and children?

A

yolk sac tumor

67
Q

what is seen in about 50% of yolk sac tumors?

A

schiller-duyal bodies- mesodermal core with central capillary and visceral and parietal layer of cells

68
Q

what are the special stains/tumor markers for yolk sac tumors?

A

AFP and cytokeratin

69
Q

what is a highly malignant type of GCTs of the testicles?

A

choriocarcinoma

70
Q

what two cell types are seen in choriocarcinomas?

A

syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts

71
Q

what are the tumor markers associated with choriocarcinomas?

A

hCG

72
Q

what are teratoma GCTs of the testicles?

A

organoid structures–> differentiated cells

73
Q

what is the standard management of a solid testicular mass?

A

radical orchiectomy; biopsy of a testicular neoplasm is contraindicated as it is associated with risk of tumor spillage into scrotal skin

74
Q

testicular tumors have a characteristic mode of spread. What is it?

A

lymphatic to nodes (usually retroperitoneal para-aortic nodes then mediastinal and supraclavicular, and hematogenous, which primarily involves the lung)

75
Q

what does elevated LDH in testicular tumors correlate with?

A

with the mass of the tumor cells and it provides a tool to asses tumor burden

76
Q

what are the two most important members of the sex-cord gonadal stromal tumors?

A

leydig cell tumors and sertoli cell tumors

77
Q

what are the features associated with leydig cell tumors?

A

they elaborate androgens, testicular swelling, gynecomastia, large cells, ROD SHAPED CRYSTALLOIDS OF REINKE

78
Q

what are sertoli cell tumors associated with?

A

carney complex (caused by germline mutations in the gene PRKAR1A), peutz-jeghers syndrome, and FAP syndrome

79
Q

what is the histopathology of sertoli cell tumors?

A

they are arranged in distinctive trabeculae that tend to form cord-like structures and tubules

80
Q

what is the most common form of testicular neoplasm in men older than 60 years of age?

A

primary testicular lymphomas

81
Q

what is the most common testicular lymphoma and what are the tumor cells positive for?

A

diffuse large B cell lymphoma; tumor cells are positive for CD45 and CD20

82
Q

what are 4 examples of cystic testicular masses?

A

hematocele, chylocele, spermatocele, varicocele

83
Q

what is a chylocele?

A

accumulation of lymph in the tunica vaginalis

84
Q

what is spermatocele?

A

small cystic accumulation of semen in dilated efferent ducts or ducts of the rete testis

85
Q

what is a varicocele?

A

a dilated vein in the spermatic cord, usually left sided; BAG OF WORMS; infertility

86
Q

what are the 4 biological/anatomical distinct regions of the prostate gland?

A

peripheral, central, transition, and periurethral zones

87
Q

how does acute bacterial prostatitis present?

A

fever, chills, dysuria. tender and boggy

88
Q

how does chronic bacterial prostatitis present?

A

low back pain, dysuria, and perineal and suprapubic discomfort; patients often have a history of recurrent UTIs

89
Q

what is the most common form of prostatitis, what is is caused by, and how do you diagnose it?

A

chronic abacterial prostatitis; symptoms similar to chronic bacterial prostatitis, but there is not history of recurrent UTI; expressed prostatic secretions contain more than 10 leukocytes, but bacterial cultures are uniformly negative

90
Q

what is the most common cause of granulomatous prostatitis?

A

instillation of BCG for treatment of bladder cancer

91
Q

who is at risk for fungal granulomatous prostatitis?

A

immunocompromised hosts

92
Q

what zone of the prostate does BPH affect?

A

the transition zone, and thus may encroach the urethra

93
Q

what are some of the factors that contribute to the pathogenesis of prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

charred red meats, adrogen dependence, inherited genetic factors, epigenetic events

94
Q

what is the most common genetic alteration in the prostate?

A

chromosomal rearrangement that juxtaposes the coding sequence of an ETS family transcription factor gene next to the androgen regulated TMPRSS2 promoter

95
Q

carcinoma of the prostate most commonly arises in what zone?

A

the peripheral zone, classically in the posterior location

96
Q

what biopsy findings are specific to prostate cancer?

A

perineural invasion, absence of basal cells, upregulation of AMACR

97
Q

what can be said about PSA?

A

it is organ specific but not cancer specific

98
Q

how is grading of prostatic cancer done?

A

gleason system

99
Q

hematogenous spread of prostate cancer occurs chiefly to where?

A

the bones, particularly the axial skeleton–> lumbar spine; osteoblastic metastases: increased alk phos

100
Q

what is the most common treatment of prostate cancer?

A

radical prostatectomy

Renal :') (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions