Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld > Renal > Flashcards

Renal Flashcards

1
Q

BUN/Creatinine for Prerenal AKI?

A

> 20 (high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FENA for Prerenal AKI?

A

<1% (low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Urine osmolarity for Prerenal AKI?

A

> 500 (high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Best management for Prerenal AKI?

A

IV fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

BUN/Creatinine for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

10-15 (NML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

FENA for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

> 2% (high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Urine osmolarity for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Appearance of urine microscopy for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

A

Muddy brown casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common cause of postrenal AKI?

A

Obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Best treatment for postrenal AKI?

A

Relieve the obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

2 most important factors in matching kidney donor to recipient?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA), ABO compatibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 absolute contraindications to kidney donation?

A

Age < 18 yo, Untreated psychiatric disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wheezing in a hemodialysis patient prior to initial of HD is suspicious for …

A

Volume overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for anaphylaxis in hemodialysis patient?

A

Wheezing, hypotension, flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Best management of anaphylaxis in hemodialysis patient?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Triad of clinical symptoms seen in pyelonephritis?

A

NV, Fever, Flank pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2 risk factors for development of pyelonephritis in children?

A

Female sex, HX of bladder/bowel dysfunction (constipation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe association between constipation and pyelonephritis in children?

A

Fecal retention causes rectal distention … Obstruction of bladder emptying … Incompetent voiding leads to stagnant urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 situations in which IV in ABX are indicated for pediatric patients with pyelonephritis?

A

Age < 2 mo, Failure to improve on PO ABX, Hemodynamic instability, Inability to tolerate PO medications (vomiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Best strategy for prevention of recurrent episodes of pyelonephritis in children?

A

Laxative use, Increase dietary fiber + water intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the only chance of cure for patients with renal cell carcinoma?

A

Surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definition of Stage 1 renal cell carcinoma?

A

Renal mass is confined with the renal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Best treatment for Stage 1 renal cell carcinoma?

A

Partial nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definition of Stage 2 renal cell carcinoma?

A

Renal mass extends through renal capsule, but not beyond Gerota’s fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Best treatment for Stage 2 renal cell carcinoma?

A

Radical nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In a patient with ADPKD, what might account for LV hypertrophy on exam?

A

Long-standing HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Complication of ADPKD?

A

Progressive renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Diagnostic test for ADPKD?

A

Renal US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Best management of ADPKD?

A

Aggressive HTN control with ACEIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Additional management of ADPKD?

A

Aggressive control of HLD with Statins … to limit risk of cardiovascular risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clinical triad seen in setting of Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Flank pain, Palpable abdominal mass, Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What accounts for hematuria seen in setting of Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Polycythemia caused by EPO over-production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Exposure that increases risk of Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diagnostic test for Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

CT abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Appearance of Renal Cell Carcinoma on CT abdomen?

A

Enhancing complex mass with thick, irregular septations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Treatment of choice for Renal Cell Carcinoma?

A

Nephrectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If a patient presents with (+) result for blood on UA, what are 3 differential diagnoses?

A

Myoglobinuria, hemoglobinuria, exercise-induced hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If patient presents with (+) result for blood on UA with RBCs on microscopy, which 2 diagnoses are eliminated?

A

Myoglobinuria, hemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Risk factor for exercise-induced hematuria?

A

Running marathons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Etiology of exercise-induced hematuria after running a marathon?

A

Repetitive up-down trauma of bladder during running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Best management of exercise-induced hematuria?

A

Follow up UA in 1 week to ensure resolution of hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Example of renal parenchymal disease?

A

Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Epidemiology of renal arteries stenosis vs. fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

FMD = younger patients; RAS = older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Clinical presentation of glomerulonephritis in young adults?

A

HTN, edema (leg swelling, facial puffiness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What accounts for HTN in the setting of glomerulonephritis?

A

Increased renal Na+ absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

8 contraindications to kidney donation?

A

Age < 18; Uncontrolled HTN, HIV, DM; Active CA; Acute infection; Donor coercion; Financial exchange from recipient; Uncontrolled psychiatric illness; Active substance-abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can you correct serum Ca2+ based on serum albumin … in the setting of hypocalcemia and hypoalbuminemia?

A

Corrected Ca2+ = (total calcium) + [0.8 * (4 - serum albumin)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Relationship between serum Ca2+ and serum albumin?

A

For every 1 unit drop in albumin, serum Ca2+ drops by 0.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Palpable purpura, arthralgias, glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 lab values associated with mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Elevated RF, Hypocomplementemia, Elevated serum cryoglobulin levels

51
Q

Diagnostic test for mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Elevated serum cryoglobulin levels

52
Q

Etiology of mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM)

53
Q

Condition associated with mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Hepatitis C

54
Q

Best initial treatment of mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Immunosuppressive therapy (Rituximab + prednisone)

55
Q

Best long-term management of mixed cryoglobulinemia syndrome?

A

Treatment targeting the underlying disease (antivirals)

56
Q

53 yo male presents 8 months after kidney transplant with HA; BP is 180/110, creatinine is 1.1; Started on ACEI; Returns with creatinine 2.4 – what accounts for HTN in this patient?

A

RAS activation … due to renal artery stenosis … classic increase in creatinine after ACEI initiation

57
Q

Change to C3 levels in poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

A

Decreased

58
Q

Clinical presentation of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

A

Hematuria, edema, HTN

59
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) can result from …

A

Impetigo, strep throat

60
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) represents a type of ___

A

Nephritic syndrome

61
Q

4 poor prognostic factors for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?

A

Adults, CKD, metabolic syndrome, DM

62
Q

What accounts for hyponatremia in the setting of bacterial PNA?

A

SIADH

63
Q

What is considered low serum osmolarity?

A

Serum osmolarity < 275

64
Q

What is considered high urine osmolarity?

A

Urine osmolarity > 40

65
Q

How can you distinguish between unilateral kidney stone and NSAID induced nephropathy?

A

Unilateral kidney stones won’t cause increased creatinine

66
Q

Pathology of kidneys associated with NSAID induced nephropathy?

A

Papillary necrosis

67
Q

NSAID induced nephropathy can present with what change on UA?

A

Nephrotic-range proteinuria

68
Q

48 yo male presents with bizarre behavior; HX of cirrhosis, Hep C infection; BP 96/56, HR 112; Labs show Na 132, Cr 2.8, T. bili 6.2, D. bili 3.7; Peritoneal fluid sampling yields 12 WBC, albumin 1.0 - diagnosis?

A

Hepatorenal syndrome

69
Q

___ refers to common cause of acute renal failure in patients with cirrhosis

A

Hepatorenal syndrome

70
Q

48 yo male presents with bizarre behavior; HX of cirrhosis, Hep C infection; BP 96/56, HR 112; Labs show Na 132, Cr 2.8, T. bili 6.2, D. bili 3.7; Peritoneal fluid sampling yields 12 WBC, albumin 1.0 - what is next best step in confirming diagnosis?

A

Intravascular volume repletion

71
Q

Step of diagnosis confirmation for Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

IVF bolus to confirm that acute renal failure is not secondary to intravascular volume depletion

72
Q

Best treatment for Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Midodrine, octreotide, albumin

73
Q

24 yo male presents after PCP-associated seizure; UA shows large blood, but no RBCs - diagnosis?

A

Myoglobinuria due to rhabdomyolysis

74
Q

Major complication of rhabdomyolysis?

A

AKI

75
Q

DOC for preventing adverse outcome (AKI) in patients with rhabdomyolysis?

A

Isotonic saline infusion

76
Q

34 yo male presents for 2 weeks of NV, abdominal pain; HX of ETOH use; HR 121, BMI 16; PE reveals epigastric TTP, dry MM; Labs show Mg 1.5; Treated with IVF, dextrose, thiamine, folate; On Day 2 of hospitalization, develops severe weakness, reporting that he cannot lift his arms - what accounts for his symptoms?

A

Hypophosphatemia

77
Q

34 yo male presents for 2 weeks of NV, abdominal pain; HX of ETOH use; HR 121, BMI 16; PE reveals epigastric TTP, dry MM; Labs show Mg 1.5; Treated with IVF, dextrose, thiamine, folate; On Day 2 of hospitalization, develops severe weakness, reporting that he cannot lift his arms - etiology of hypophosphatemia in this patient?

A

Refeeding syndrome

78
Q

Patients with DM should be screened yearly for diabetic kidney disease with …

A

/ Urine albumin-creatinine ratio

79
Q

64 yo male presents for 2 days of NV, abdominal distension; Compression fracture 6 months ago; PE shows decreased dowel sounds, 1+ peripheral edema; Labs show Na 132, K 2.7; Abdominal XR shows diffuse bowel distension with gas in colon, rectum - diagnosis?

A

Hypokalemia-induced paralytic ileus

80
Q

Initial therapy for correcting hyponatremia in a patient with decompensated CHF?

A

Water restriction

81
Q

Therapy for correcting severe hyponatremia (Na < 120) in a patient with decompensated CHF?

A

Tolvaptan

82
Q

MOA of Tolvaptan?

A

Vasopressin-2 Receptor antagonists

83
Q

56 yo male presents for follow-up 2 weeks after renal transplant; Current medications include prednisone, tacrolimus, myophenylate; Labs show Cr 1.4 - which complication is patient at greatest risk of developing?

A

DM

84
Q

What accounts for increased risk of DM for patients with recent renal transplant?

A

AE of immunosuppressants; Increased insulin excretion and glucogenesis by healthy kidney

85
Q

Best management of asymptomatic bacteruria in pregnancy?

A

Oral cephalexin QID for 5 days

86
Q

Definition of asymptomatic bacteruria?

A

Presence of >100,000 colony-forming bacteria without urinary symptoms

87
Q

3 DOC for asymptomatic bacteruria in pregnancy?

A

Cephalexin, Amoxicillin-Clavulanate, Fosfomycin

88
Q

18 yo male presents with flank pain, hematuria approximately 3 days after flu-like symptoms with rhinorrhea and throat pain; Cr 1.9; UA shows 1+ protein, 1+ ketones, many RBCs, RBC casts - diagnosis?

A

IgA nephropathy

89
Q

Typical timinig of IgA nephropathy?

A

Days after URI

90
Q

Typical timinig of post-streptococcal glomeruloneprhitis?

A

2-3 week after URI

91
Q

Complement levels in IgA nephropathy?

A

NML

92
Q

Complement levels in post-streptococcal glomeruloneprhitis?

A

Decreased

93
Q

62 yo female presents with 6 months of fatigue; HX of CKD; Labs show Hgb 9.2, MCV 84, Cr 2.9 - what is next step in management of patient’s anemia?

A

Evaluate iron stores … prior to initiation of EPO

94
Q

52 yo female presents with fever, chills, N, R flank pain; T103, BP 90/70, HR 120; PE with CVA tenderness; CT scan shows R-sided proximal ureteral stone with dilated renal calyces - next step?

A

Percutaneous nephrostomy

95
Q

Alternate name for Percutaneous nephrostomy?

A

Retrograde ureteral stent

96
Q

At what BUN level does uremia typically occur?

A

BUN > 50

97
Q

At what creatinine level does uremia typically occur?

A

Creatine > 7

98
Q

Most common correctable cause of secondary HTN?

A

Renovascular HTN

99
Q

Best workup for patients with suspected Renovascular HTN?

A

Renal duplex US, CT/MRI angiography

100
Q

Lab finding seen in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Decreased complement

101
Q

Best management of volume overload in acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Loop diuretics

102
Q

Risk associated with donor nephrectomy in females of childbearing age?

A

Increased risk of gestational complications – fetal loss, preeclampsia, gestational DM, gestational HTN

103
Q

17 yo male presents for abnormal UA findings (protein 2+, casts); Reports lower back pain; 24-hour urine collection shows protein 600mg (normal <150mg) – diagnosis?

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

104
Q

___ is the most common form of proteinuria in adolescents

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

105
Q

Definition of Orthostatic proteinuria?

A

Increased protein excretion during day (when upright), but normal at night (when supine)

106
Q

Next step of workup for suspected Orthostatic proteinuria?

A

Split day/night 24-hour urine collection … (elevated daytime protein excretion, but normal nighttime excretion)

107
Q

When does Orthostatic proteinuria turn from mild  moderate?

A

When adolescent develops other renal abnormalities (HTN, hematuria, AKI)

108
Q

Best management of Orthostatic proteinuria?

A

Observation

109
Q

58 yo male presents for initial evaluation; Exercise tolerance is 7 blocks before experiencing fatigue; HX of HLD, HTN, OA; Reports that his BP has always been difficult to manage; Reports family HX of renal failure; BP 156/88; EKG shows LVH; Labs show creatinine 2.0 (1 year ago was 1.6) – diagnosis?

A

CKD … likely caused by HTN

110
Q

What is the best initial step of workup in patient with new-onset CKD?

A

Urine protein levels

111
Q

What is significance of getting urine protein levels in new-onset CKD?

A

Proteinuria is associated with accelerated progression of CKD, guides management of anti-HTN therapy

112
Q

What is goal BP for patient with new CKD?

A

130/80

113
Q

What is goal urine protein for patient with new CKD?

A

500-1000 mg/day

114
Q

Best management of new CKD with significant proteinuria?

A

ACEI + ARB

115
Q

Which medications for gout should be avoided in patients with CKD?

A

NSAIDs, Colchicine

116
Q

Best management of gout involving single joint in patient with CKD?

A

Intra-articular steroid injection

117
Q

Best management of gout involving multiple joints in patient with CKD?

A

Systemic steroids (oral prednisone)

118
Q

66 yo male develops seizure 1 day post-op; Labs show Na 114 - best management?

A

Hypertonic saline

119
Q

Indication for hypertonic saline in treatment of hyponatremia?

A

Na < 120

120
Q

36-year-old African-American female presents with severe, throbbing headache that began several hours ago; also has acute onset blurry vision with nausea; history of Raynaud’s disease, heartburn; BP 200/110; PE reveals bilateral papilledema; serum creatinine 2.0; all lab values where WNL approximately 6 months ago; diagnosis?

A

Sclerodermal renal crisis

121
Q

Clinical presentation of scleroderma renal crisis?

A

Severe hypertension, renal failure in patient with evidence of underlying scleroderma (crest syndrome)

122
Q

What is best management of sclerodermal renal crisis?

A

ACE inhibitor

123
Q

Which medicine should be used in addition to an ACE inhibitor in the setting of sclerodermal renal crisis with presence of papilledema or CNS manifestations?

A

Nitroprusside

UWorld (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions