Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of diaper dermatitis?

A

Contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Best treatment for contact, diaper dermatitis?

A

Keep the area as dry as possible … frequent diaper changes, Zinc oxide, Exposure of skin to air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pattern of contact, diaper dermatitis?

A

Spares the inguinal skin folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Appearance of candida diaper dermatitis?

A

Beefy-red lesions, with involvement of skin folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Best treatment for candida diaper dermatitis?

A

Nystatin cream, Miconazole … (avoid powdered azole due to aspiration risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Common trigger for appearance of contact diaper dermatitis?

A

Recent episode of diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) results from mutation in …

A

Filaggrin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Initial treatment of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Emollients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

First-line treatment of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Topical corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Second-line treatment of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Topical calcineurin inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Example of topical calcineurin inhibitor used in treatment of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Pimecrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 types of secondary infection that may result from atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Impetigo, Eczema herpeticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathogen responsible for Impetigo in the setting of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pathogen responsible for Eczema herpeticum in the setting of atopic dermatitis (eczema)?

A

HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Example of pregnancy-induced skin changes?

A

Intense abdominal pruritis without primary skin lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best management of pregnancy-induced skin changes?

A

Supportive care … oatmeal baths, UV light, anti-histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clinical presentation of pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Pruritis that precedes a truncal rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Description of truncal rash seen in pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Periumbilical, urticarial papules and plaques that develop into tense bullae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Location of papules and plaques in setting of pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Spreads all over body, but spares mucosal membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pathophysiology of pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Best treatment of pemphigoid gestationis?

A

High-potency topical corticosteroids, Anti-histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Example of a High-potency topical corticosteroid used in setting of pemphigoid gestationis?

A

Triamcinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which parts of hands are typically affected by irritant contact dermatitis?

A

Where skin is thinnest … Dorsum of hand, Webs, Fingertips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most cases of irritant contact dermatitis result from ___ exposure

A

Occupational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dyshidrotic eczema is characterized by …

A

Vesicular lesions affecting palms + soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Best management of Dyshidrotic eczema?

A

Topical glucocorticoids, Emollients, Handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Clinical presentation of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Greasy scales along scalp, central face, ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pathogen most commonly associated with seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Malassezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Clinical course of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Chronic, relapsing condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Best long-term treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Intermittent re-treatment with topical ketoconazole every 1-2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Initial treatment of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Topical antifungals, topical glucocorticoids, topical calcineurin inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Example of a topical calcineurin inhibitor used for treatment of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 examples of topical antifungals used for treatment of seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Ketoconazole, selenium sulfide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 most common locations of lichen planus involvement?

A

Oral mucosa, flexural surfaces, external genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3 characteristics of lichen planus skin lesions?

A

Intensely pruritic, polygonal, purple plaques + papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Appearance of lichen planus lesions in oral mucosa?

A

White lacy pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Initial step in diagnosis of suspected lichen planus?

A

Punch biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Condition that is most often associated with lichen planus?

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Etiology of lichen planus?

A

T-cell attack against basal keratinocytes of epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Clinical presentation of actinic keratosis (AK)?

A

Small, rough, erythematous papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Complication of untreated AK?

A

20% risk of progression to squamous cell CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Best treatment for individual AK lesions?

A

Cryosurgery, surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Best treatment for multiple areas of AK?

A

Topical field therapy with 5-FU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

62 yo female presents with deep wrinkles, brown spots on face; PE shows skin with variable pigmentation, rough ruface texture, scattered fleshy papules with irregular margins, telangiectasia – diagnosis?

A

Photoaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Etiology of Photoaging?

A

Combination of intrinsic aging + UV light exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clinical presentation for Pityriasis rosea?

A

Herald patch, followed by “Christmas tree” pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Clinical presentation for erythrasma?

A

Pruritic red-brown finely wrinkled papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Diagnostic test for erythrasma?

A

Wood lamp … shows red fluorescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pathogen responsible for erythrasma?

A

Cornyebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which lifestyle factor is most likely to cause worsened wrinkles in old age?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Etiology of smoking-associated wrinkles?

A

Decreased blood flow; Circulating toxins alter production of collagen + elastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Initial treatment for inflammatory acne vulgaris?

A

Topical retinoids, Benzoyl peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treatment for inflammatory acne vulgaris that is unresponsive to Topical retinoids, Benzoyl peroxide?

A

Topical ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

2 topical ABX of choice for inflammatory acne vulgaris?

A

Erythromycin, Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment for inflammatory acne vulgaris that is unresponsive to Topical ABX?

A

Oral ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

2 oral ABX of choice for inflammatory acne vulgaris?

A

Doxycycline, Minocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Use of ginkgo biloba?

A

Memory enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Adverse effect of ginkgo biloba?

A

Increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Use of ginseng?

A

Improved mental performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Adverse effect of ginseng?

A

Increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Use of saw palmetto?

A

Treatment for BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Adverse effect of saw palmetto?

A

Mild stomach discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Use of black cohosh?

A

Menopause symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Adverse effect of black cohosh?

A

Hepatic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Use of St. John’s Wort

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Adverse effect of St. John’s Wort?

A

Drug interactions (CYP450), HTN crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Use of kava?

A

Anxiety, insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Adverse effect of kava?

A

Severe liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Use of licorice?

A

Treatment of stomach ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Adverse effect of licorice?

A

HTN, Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Use of echinacea?

A

Treatment/prevention of cold + flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Adverse effect of echinacea?

A

Dyspepsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Use of Ephedra?

A

Treatment/prevention of cold + flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Adverse effect of Ephedra?

A

HTN, Arrhythmia, MI, Sudden Cardiac Death, CVA, Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Image of cherry angioma?

A

***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clinical presentation of cherry angioma?

A

Sharply circumscribed area of congested capillaries, dome-shaped papules; Commonly found on trunk; Bleed if disturbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Alternate name for cherry angioma?

A

Senile hemangiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Prognosis for cherry angioma?

A

Benign vascular lesion; Do not require treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is 1 common additional finding seen with alopecia areata?

A

Nail pitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Description of hair loss seen in alopecia areata?

A

Well-demarcated, round patch of hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Patients with alopecia areata have an increased risk of …

A

Other autoimmune conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Clinical presentation of dermatomyositis?

A

Symmetric proximal muscle weakness + Grotton’s papules + Heliotrope rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Diagnostic test for dermatomyositis?

A

Serologic + Ig testing … (+) ANA, (+) anti-Jo1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

2 conditions associated with dermatomyositis?

A

ILD, Malignancy (adenocarcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Imaging study of choice for patients with dermatomyositis + NO respiratory symptoms?

A

CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Imaging study of choice for patients with dermatomyositis + respiratory symptoms?

A

Lung CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

In addition to sunscreen, what is another measure than can prevent sun damage?

A

Adequate hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Etiology of papular urticaria?

A

Delayed HSN reaction to insect bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Appearance of papular urticaria?

A

Look like insect bites … surrounded by pale halos (caused by dermal edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Clinical prognosis for papular urticaria?

A

Spontaneous resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Best management of papular urticaria?

A

Topical corticosteroids + H1 blockers (cetirizine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

___ refers to localized bacterial infection of the nail fold?

A

Acute paronychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Best treatment for acute paronychia?

A

Warm antiseptic soaks, topical ABX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Indication for Kava herbal supplement?

A

Anxiety, insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

AE of Kava herbal supplement?

A

Liver failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Pathogen responsible for intertrigo?

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Clinical diagnosis of intertrigo can be confirmed via …

A

KOH examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Best management of intertrigo?

A

Topical antifungals (azoles, nystatin, terbinafine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Clinical presentation of acute lichen sclerosis?

A

Thinning of vulva, with hypopigmented + pruritic areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Clinical presentation of chronic lichen sclerosis?

A

Chronic irritation transformed the thinned skin to thickened skin with formation of vulvular plaques … obliteration of labia minora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Association between lichen sclerosis and incontinence?

A

Obliteration of urethra results in dysuria + incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Best management of lichen sclerosis?

A

Punch biopsy to assess for associated vulvar CA + high-potency steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Best management of acne that demonstrates pre-menstrual flares?

A

Estrogen-progesterone OCPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

MOA of OCPs in treatment of acne that demonstrates pre-menstrual flares?

A

Estrogen functions as anti-androgen that suppresses sebum production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Clinical prognosis for melasma?

A

Will spontaneously resolve within 1 year of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Etiology of melasma?

A

Radiation exposure triggers the proliferation of melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How can you minimize the progression of melasma?

A

Limit sun exposure; Wear sunscreen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Description of rash seen in ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

PAINLESS red macules that rapidly progress to bullae, then evolve into gangrenous ulcers

109
Q

Epidemiology of ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Immunocompromised patients with neutropenia

110
Q

Etiology of ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Pseudomonas bacteremia

111
Q

Best management of ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Assume pseudomonal bacteremia … treat with empiric ABX (zosyn, aminoglycosides)

112
Q

Description of rash seen in pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

PAINFUL vesicles that quickly evolve to ulcers

113
Q

Epidemiology of pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

IBD

114
Q

Definition of chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Lasting > 6 weeks, occurs without apparent trigger

115
Q

Most common etiology of chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Idiopathic

116
Q

Best initial workup for chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Limited lab evaluation

117
Q

Best management of symptom control in chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Second generation H1-blocker

118
Q

2 examples of Second generation H1-blocker used in treatment of chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Cetirizine, Loratadine

119
Q

Clinical prognosis for chronic spontaneous urticaria?

A

Self-limited, responds well to standard therapy, spontaneous resolution within 2-5 years

120
Q

Best initial management of keloids?

A

Intralesional glucocorticoids

121
Q

Etiology of keloid formation?

A

Overproduction of extracellular matrix + dermal fibroblasts

122
Q

Complication of Intralesional glucocorticoids as management for keloids?

A

Keloid reformation

123
Q

ABX for acne that is associated with photosensitivity?

A

Doxycycline

124
Q

Best management of 1st degree sunburns?

A

Supportive

125
Q

Best management of 2nd and 3rd degree sunburns?

A

Hospitalization, IV fluids, analgesia, wound care

126
Q

Which treatment is NOT recommended in the care of sunburns?

A

Oral or topical corticosteroids … due to risk of impaired wound healing and infection

127
Q

AE of gingko biloba?

A

Bleeding, platelet dysfunction

128
Q

Indication for gingko biloba?

A

Memory aide

129
Q

43 yo male presents for 2 days of blistering, itching of his hand; Developed a superficial burn on the index finger about 1 week ago, has been treating the burn with topical neomycin/polymyxin/bacitracin; PE reveals erythema with small vesicles, bulla between his index and middle finger - diagnosis?

A

Acute allergic contact dermatitis … due to topical ABX application

130
Q

20 yo female presents for facial rash; HX of atopic dermatitis; PE shows rash that appears as mildly painful vesicles over bilateral eyelids and cheeks; T 100.4 - diagnosis?

A

Eczema herpeticum

131
Q

Pathogen responsible for Eczema herpeticum?

A

HSV

132
Q

Best treatment for Eczema herpeticum?

A

Acyclovir

133
Q

Best management of seborrheic keratosis?

A

Reassurance

134
Q

What is best treatment for onychomycosis?

A

Oral terbinafine

135
Q

Pathogen responsible for onychomycosis?

A

Trichophyton rubrum

136
Q

What is best treatment for tinea pedis?

A

Oral terbinafine

137
Q

70 yo male presents for skin rash, seen as widespread redness with blistering and severe itching; Rash was preceded by 4 weeks of widespread itching and urticaria; PE shows scattered vesicles and bullae - diagnosis?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

138
Q

Epidemiology of Bullous pemphigoid?

A

Age > 60

139
Q

Best initial step of management for Bullous pemphigoid?

A

Skin biopsy

140
Q

Appearance of skin biopsy in Bullous pemphigoid?

A

Subepidermal cleavage, linear deposition of IgG along basement membrane

141
Q

What is best management of actinic keratosis lesion > 1cm?

A

Skin biopsy

142
Q

4 characteristics of actinic keratosis lesions that require biopsy?

A

Size > 1cm, Tenderness, induration, rapid growth, typical lesions with failed response to cryotherapy/5-FU

143
Q

Classic advice for sunscreen application?

A

SPF > 30, Apply 15-20 minutes prior to outdoor activity, Reapply every 2 hours

144
Q

16 yo male presents for itchy rash on back + shoulders; HX of seasonal allergies, acne; PE shows lichenified plaques on back and posterior R shoulder - diagnosis?

A

Atopic dermatitis

145
Q

Evidence of chronic Atopic dermatitis?

A

Lichenified plaques

146
Q

Most common location of Atopic dermatitis in infants?

A

Extensor surfaces

147
Q

Most common location of Atopic dermatitis in children?

A

Flexural surfaces

148
Q

What is best strategy for reducing symptoms of itching in patients with Atopic dermatitis?

A

Skin hydration

149
Q

What are 2 lab findings associated with Atopic dermatitis?

A

Elevated IgE; Eosinophilia

150
Q

If skin hydration with emollients fails to improve symptoms of itching in patients with Atopic dermatitis, what is next best step of management?

A

Topical triamcinolone (glucocorticoids)

151
Q

Best management of refractory itching in Atopic dermatitis on face/eyelids (where steroids are contraindicated)?

A

Tacrolimus

152
Q

MOA of Tacrolimus?

A

Topical calcineurin inhibitor

153
Q

28 yo female presents for painless blistering on back of hands; Recently spent time gardening outside; Hx of Hep C; PE also reveals mild hyperpigmentation of face - diagnosis?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

154
Q

3 aspects of clinical presentation for Porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Painless blisters, Increased skin fragility, Hyperpigmentation

155
Q

3 treatment options for Porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Phlebotomy, hydroxychloroquine, INF-alpha

156
Q

Classic lab finding seen in Porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Elevated urinary uroporphyrins

157
Q

Etiology of Porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

158
Q

Condition associated with increased skin tags?

A

Insulin resistance, OB, metabolic syndrome

159
Q

Alternate name for skin tags?

A

Acrochordons

160
Q

Appearance of chronic allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Pruritic lichenified plaques

161
Q

Typical clinical presentation for cholinergic urticaria?

A

Within minutes of elevated core body temperature, patients develop pruritic urticaria, which resolves within 1-2 hours

162
Q

Clinical prognosis for cholinergic urticaria?

A

Resolves within 10 years

163
Q

Best management of cholinergic urticaria?

A

Avoid trigger, H1 blockers (cetirizine)

164
Q

3 hallmark clinical features of psoriatic arthritis?

A

DIP joint involvement, nail pitting or onychomycosis, scaling plaques on SNAKE

165
Q

Best management of psoriatic arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

166
Q

2 diseases associated with seborrheic dermatitis?

A

HIV, Parkinson’s disease

167
Q

In addition to metabolic syndrome and insulin resistance, which condition is associated with multiple skin tags?

A

Crohn disease

168
Q

In addition to insulin resistance, which disease is associated with acanthosis nigricans?

A

GI malignancy

169
Q

84 yo male presents with squamous cell carcinoma; He declines surgical excision; What alternate treatment can be offered to patient?

A

XRT

170
Q

3 options for treatment of squamous cell carcinoma in patients who do not wish to undergo surgical excision?

A

XRT, cryotherapy, electrosurgery

171
Q

26 yo female presents for removal of tattoos on chest wall and posterior neck; Reports that tattoos have been present for 10 years - what is correct statement regarding tattoo removal for this patient?

A

Laser removal can lead to scarring and skin discoloration

172
Q

What is clinical prognosis for basal cell carcinoma of eye?

A

Local invasion with rare distant metastasis

173
Q

What is best management for basal cell carcinoma of eye?

A

Mohs surgery

174
Q

Clinical prognosis for atopic dermatitis?

A

Complete resolution by adulthood

175
Q

Alternate name for atopic dermatitis?

A

Eczema

176
Q

2 most common secondary infections of atopic dermatitis?

A

HSV, Staph aureus

177
Q

___ refers to secondary infection of atopic dermatitis by HSV

A

Eczema herpeticum

178
Q

___ refers to secondary infection of atopic dermatitis by Staph aureus

A

Impetigo

179
Q

Etiology of atopic dermatitis?

A

Mutation of filaggrin gene

180
Q

65 yo male presents for multiple pink, grey, white lesions over bilateral hands; Which condition is patient at greatest risk of developing?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

181
Q

4 yo male presents with severe diaper rash; Recently admitted for PNA requiring IV ABX; PE shows erythematous confluent plaques over groin with satellite papules on inner thighs - what is DOC for patient?

A

Clomitrazole cream

182
Q

2 DOCs for diaper rash (candidal)?

A

Nystatin, clotrimazole

183
Q

What is best management of mild-moderate plaque psoriatic arthritis affecting extensor surfaces of knees, elbows?

A

Topical fluocinonide cream (0.05%)

184
Q

What is best management of severe plaque psoriatic arthritis affecting extensor surfaces of knees, elbows?

A

Phototherapy, systemic MTX

185
Q

What is best management of facial intertrigo psoriasis?

A

Topical tacrolimus

186
Q

What is best management of guttate psoriasis?

A

Observation, phototherapy

187
Q

ACBDE criteria of melanoma?

A

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter > 6mm, Evolving

188
Q

Best management of a 7mm lesion that raises concern for melanoma?

A

Excisional biopsy

189
Q

2 most common pathogens responsible for impetigo?

A

Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes

190
Q

Classic appearance of impetigo?

A

Erythematous pustules that develop into a thick honey-colored crusting

191
Q

Best management of tinea capitis?

A

ORAL griseofulvin or terbinafine

192
Q

2 risk factors for development of Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Smoking, OB

193
Q

Management suggestions for all patients with Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Smoking cessation, weight loss, daily skin cleaning

194
Q

Description of Hurley stage 1 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Mild disease

195
Q

Best management of Hurley stage 1 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Topical clindamycin

196
Q

Description of Hurley stage 2 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Inflammatory nodules with sinus tracts + scarring

197
Q

Best management of Hurley stage 2 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Oral tetracyclines

198
Q

Description of Hurley stage 3 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Severe refractory disease

199
Q

Best management of Hurley stage 3 Hidradenitis Suppurativa?

A

Surgical excision, Oral retinoids, TNFa inhibitors

200
Q

Diagnostic test for scabies?

A

Skin scrapings under light microscopy

201
Q

Route of transmission for scabies?

A

Direct contact (person-to-person)

202
Q

Clinical presentation of scabies?

A

Pruritic rash that is worse at night – classically involves the wrists, lateral fingers, finger webs

203
Q

Best management of scabies?

A

Application of 5% topical permethrin cream over entire body

204
Q

Alternative treatment for scabies (not 5% topical permethrin cream)?

A

Oral ivermectin

205
Q

25 yo male presents with area of completely-smooth circular hair loss over back of head; No scaling or inflammation noted – diagnosis?

A

Alopecia areata

206
Q

Best management of Alopecia areata?

A

Intralesional corticosteroids

207
Q

Clinical prognosis for Alopecia areata?

A

High chance of recurrence of hair loss after successful treatment; Most patients have return of normal hair growth in next 1-2 years, even without treatment

208
Q

59 yo male presents with upper abdominal discomfort; HX of multiple abdominal surgeries; PE shows firm, oblong mass that is palpable in epigastric area; Mass has no tenderness to palpation – diagnosis?

A

Desmoid tumor

209
Q

Etiology of Desmoid tumor?

A

Abnormal wound healing that causes neoplastic behavior

210
Q

Best management of Desmoid tumor?

A

MRI with biopsy

211
Q

What are 2 risk factors for development of desmoid tumors?

A

Gardner’s syndrome, Multiple surgeries

212
Q

Definitive management of Desmoid tumor?

A

Surgical excision for symptomatic Desmoid tumors

213
Q

Treatment option for Desmoid tumor in a patient who is not a surgical candidate?

A

Radiation

214
Q

Clinical presentation of dermatofibroma?

A

Hyperpigmented nodule, usually on the lower extremities

215
Q

Etiology of dermatofibroma?

A

Insect bite, trauma

216
Q

Clinical presentation of epidermoid cyst?

A

Nodule on extremities (not trunk, as in Desmoid tumor)

217
Q

Etiology of epidermoid cyst?

A

Epidermal tissue becomes lodged in dermis

218
Q

Condition associated with epidermoid cyst?

A

Gardner’s syndrome

219
Q

2 lifestyle interventions to manage acne?

A

Avoid rigorous scrubbing, use of water-based skin products, pH neutral detergent cleansers

220
Q

Heat stroke is defined as …

A

Body temperature > 104 degress + confusion

221
Q

Best management for heat stroke?

A

Evaporative and conductive cooling

222
Q

45 yo female presents with fever, malaise, facial rash; Picture shown – diagnosis?

A

Erysipelas

223
Q

45 yo female presents with fever, malaise, facial rash; Picture shown – which pathogen is most likely responsible for rash?

A

Group A strep

224
Q

16 yo male presents with new rash, which appeared 1 day after hiking; Also on wrestling team; PE shows poorly-demarcated, flat 8x8 cm area of tender, warm, non-fluctuant erythema – diagnosis?

A

Cellulitis

225
Q

16 yo male presents with new rash, which appeared 1 day after hiking; Also on wrestling team; PE shows poorly-demarcated, flat 8x8 cm area of tender, warm, non-fluctuant erythema – which pathogen is most likely responsible?

A

Strep pyogenes

226
Q

Most common pathogen responsible for cellulitis?

A

Strep pyogenes

227
Q

Most common pathogen responsible for abscess?

A

Staph aureus

228
Q

Best management of cellulitis?

A

Cephalexin > 5 days

229
Q

Location of cellulitis?

A

Deep dermis

230
Q

Location of abscess?

A

Dermis

231
Q

Indication for saw palmetto?

A

BPH

232
Q

Indication for garlic?

A

Hypercholesterolemia

233
Q

Indication for glucosamine?

A

OA

234
Q

Indication for chondroitin?

A

OA

235
Q

Indication for St. John’s wort?

A

Depression, insomnia

236
Q

Indication for ginkgo biloba?

A

Memory enhancement

237
Q

Indication for ginseng?

A

Improved mental performance

238
Q

Indication for black cohosh?

A

Menopausal symptoms

239
Q

Indication for kava?

A

Anxiety, insomnia

240
Q

Indication for licorice?

A

Stomach ulcers, bronchitis

241
Q

Indication for echinacea?

A

Cold, flu

242
Q

Indication for ephedra?

A

Cold, flu; Weight loss, improved athletic performance

243
Q

AE for saw palmetto?

A

Stomach pain

244
Q

AE for St. John’s wort?

A

CYP450 inducer, HTN crisis

245
Q

AE for ginkgo biloba?

A

Bleeding risk

246
Q

AE for ginseng?

A

Bleeding risk

247
Q

AE for black cohosh?

A

Hepatic injury

248
Q

AE for kava?

A

Severe liver injury

249
Q

AE for licorice?

A

HTN, hypokalemia

250
Q

AE for echinacea?

A

Allergic action, dyspepsia

251
Q

AE for ephedra?

A

HTN, arrythmia, MI, SCD, CVA, Seizure

252
Q

78 yo female presents for scab in L ear; Biopsy shows invasive squamous cell carcinoma – what is best treatment?

A

Mohs surgery

253
Q

Characteristics of low-risk skin cancer lesions?

A

Lesions < 2cm on trunk/extremities (excluding hands/feet)

254
Q

Characteristics of high-risk skin cancer lesions?

A

Lesions on face, ears, neck, feet, hands, genitalia

255
Q

Best management of high-risk skin cancer lesions?

A

Mohs surgery

256
Q

ACBDE criteria of melanoma?

A

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variegation, Diameter > 6mm, Evolving

257
Q

Best management of a 7mm lesion that raises concern for melanoma?

A

Excisional biopsy with 1-3mm margins

258
Q

Description of rash seen in keratosis pilaris?

A

“chicken skin”

259
Q

Best management of keratosis pilaris?

A

Urea cream, salicylic acid

260
Q

Etiology of keratosis pilaris?

A

Retained keratin plugs in hair follicles

261
Q

8-year-old male presents after ingestion of antifreeze: What physical sign is most consistent with his history?

A

Rapid, deep breathing

262
Q

What is the most common component of antifreeze?

A

Ethylene glycol

263
Q

What accounts for deep, rapid breathing in the setting of antifreeze ingestion?

A

Ethylene glycol creates an anion gap metabolic acidosis

264
Q

Best treatment of early ethylene glycol ingestion (antifreeze)?

A

Fomepizole

265
Q

Best management of tinea barbae?

A

Oral terbinafine

266
Q

Best management of pseudofolliculitis barbae?

A

Recommend discontinuation of shaving

267
Q

Clinical presentation of tinea barbae?

A

Scaling which occurs in an annular pattern

268
Q

3 complications of pseudofolliculitis barbae?

A

Hyperpigmentation, secondary bacterial infection, keloid formation