recent anzca mcqs Flashcards

1
Q
GP39 The units of rate constant k are?
A mg/min
B mcg/kg/min
C min
D min-1
E ml-1
A

?

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2
Q

CD68
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) in an adult:
A lignocaine 1.5mg/kg is first line treatment
B high dose adrenaline (100mcg/kg) improves outcome in “in hospital cardiac arrest”
C bicarbonate indicated if ph

A

d (c doesn’t improve outcome)

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3
Q

MB44 ED95 in regards to neuromuscular blockers means.
A Dose required to cause twitch height depression TO 95% of control value
B Dose required to cause twitch height depression OF 95% of control value
C 95% of patients will be paralysed at this dose

A

b

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4
Q
PS19You are about to anaesthetise someone taking a MAOI (tranylcypramine I think) Which drug is least likely to be problematic?
A Ephedrine
B Tramadol
C Etomidate
D Phenylephrine
E ?Metaraminol
A

c

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5
Q
GP36 The units of rate constant k are?
A mg/min
B mcg/kg/min
C min
D min-1
E ml-1
A

d if first order

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6
Q
IN37 Mechanism of IMOBILITY with volatiles / ? specific volatile?:
A Stimulation of GABAa receptors
B
C
E Stimulation of Glycine receptors
A

e

a for propofol and etomidate

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7
Q

MB42 Which of the following best describes atracurium’s metabolism and clearance:
A Hoffman elimination
B Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases
C Hoffman elimination and excretion of metabolites in the urine
D Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases and excretion of metabolites in the urine

A

b

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8
Q

Which of the following is true regarding action on platelets?
A. Non-selective COX inhibitors act irreversibly - false
B. Clopidogrel acts reversibly
C. ?
D. Abciximab acts reversibly

A

d

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9
Q
When is the safest time to give a drug to a lactating mother?
A. 3 - 4 hours before breastfeeding
B. Immediately before breastfeeding
C. Immediately after breastfeeding
D. 30 - 60 minutes after breastfeeding
E. Either A or D
A

e

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10
Q
Which of the following causes reversible inhibition of platelet function?
A. aspirin
B. heparin
C. warfarin
D. diclofenac
E. clopidogrel
A

d

hep ‘doesn’t’ inhibit platelet function

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11
Q
MD41b Which is not a serotonin receptor antagonist
A. sumatriptan
B. ondansetron
C. ketanserin
D. cyproheptadine
E. clozapine
A

a

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12
Q

GP36 Regarding IV magnesium sulphate
A. It is metabolised by the liver
B. Has high clearance?? cant remember the options correctly
C. The S enantiomer is the only active form
D. The cardiac output is preserved after administration despite decreased contractility due to its effects on vascular smooth muscle in the peripheries
E. The dose must be reduced in liver failure

A

d

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13
Q
All are secreted by the proximal tubule in the kidney except:
A. Diazepam
B. Morphine
C. Probenicid
D. Penicillin
E. Frusemide
A

a

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14
Q
Which of the following drugs has low first pass metabolism 
A. Lignocaine
B. Morphine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Midazolam
E. Aspirin
A

c check with tom

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15
Q

IN34 The therapeutic index of modern volatiles is in the order of:
A. 10

A

b

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16
Q

OP29 When clonidine is added to local anaesthetic in a peripheral nerve block its actions are the result of: (new)
A. Supraspinal effect
B. Spinal effect
C. Effect on primary afferent nerves at the site
D. Clonidine has no effect in peripheral nerve blocks
E. Can cause neurotoxicit

A

c

17
Q
CD67 Amphetamine is:
A. A catecholamine
B. Similar presentation to cocaine toxicity
C. Can cause tolerance (or ?withdraw)
D.
E. Presents often as coma
A

c - causes tol and withdrawal

b - true but not best as some differences

18
Q
Repeat: At what height does atmospheric pressure becomes half?
A. 1500m
B.
C. 5500M 
D. 7,700m
E. 10,500m
A

c

19
Q
NEW In an unfit/untrained person, which mechanism accounts for the increase in cardiac output?
A:
B:?increase skeletal muscle blood flow
C:
D: increased contractility
E: increased heart rate
A

e

20
Q

REPEAT: ECG changes in hypokalemia
A: increased QT
B: increased QRS
C: decreased PR

A

a

21
Q

(repeat) which of the following is an NMDA receptor antagonist
a) Dextropropoxephene
b) Dexphenylephrine
c) Dexamphetamine
d) Dextromethorphan
e) Dexmedetomidine

A

d

22
Q

Contaminants in N2O include:

a) NO2
b) NO
c) N2
d) ammonia
e) All of the above

A

e

23
Q
Clonidine in periph nerve block
A. inhibits A + C fibres
B. supraspinal adrenergic effect
C. supraspinal adrenergic effect
D. no effect
A

a but check with tom

24
Q

Amiodarone:

a) May cause pulmonary infiltrates
b) Structurally resembles thyroxine
c) Increases the refractory period of action potential
d) Antagonist at both alpha and beta adrenoreceptors

A

all

25
Q
alt) physostigmine has no effect on
A. sedatory effects of opioids
B. analgesic effects of opioids
C. phenothiazines
D. TCA
E. analgesic effects of ketamine
A

b

reverses opioid sedation
reverses adverse CNS of ketamine
may reverse phenothiazine and TCA sedation
no effect on opioid or ketamine analgisia

26
Q
Side effects of L-dopa do NOT include:
A. Psychiatric abnormalities
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Hypertension
D. Involuntary movements
E. Nausea and vomiting
A

c

27
Q

A 70 year old man was given gentamicin 2mg/kg prior to undergoing a TURP. Possible adverse effects include:
A. Vestibular toxicity
B. ?Cardiac arrhythmia
C. Perioral paraesthesia
D. Something else which seemed like overkill
E. Renal cortical necrosis

A

a