recent anzca mcqs

Question 1

GP39 The units of rate constant k are?
A mg/min
B mcg/kg/min
C min
D min-1
E ml-1

Answer 1

?

Question 2

CD68
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) in an adult:
A lignocaine 1.5mg/kg is first line treatment
B high dose adrenaline (100mcg/kg) improves outcome in “in hospital cardiac arrest”
C bicarbonate indicated if ph

Answer 2

d (c doesn’t improve outcome)

Question 3

MB44 ED95 in regards to neuromuscular blockers means.
A Dose required to cause twitch height depression TO 95% of control value
B Dose required to cause twitch height depression OF 95% of control value
C 95% of patients will be paralysed at this dose

Answer 3

b

Question 4

PS19You are about to anaesthetise someone taking a MAOI (tranylcypramine I think) Which drug is least likely to be problematic?
A Ephedrine
B Tramadol
C Etomidate
D Phenylephrine
E ?Metaraminol

Answer 4

c

Question 5

GP36 The units of rate constant k are?
A mg/min
B mcg/kg/min
C min
D min-1
E ml-1

Answer 5

d if first order

Question 6

IN37 Mechanism of IMOBILITY with volatiles / ? specific volatile?:
A Stimulation of GABAa receptors
B
C
E Stimulation of Glycine receptors

Answer 6

e

a for propofol and etomidate

Question 7

MB42 Which of the following best describes atracurium’s metabolism and clearance:
A Hoffman elimination
B Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases
C Hoffman elimination and excretion of metabolites in the urine
D Hoffman elimination and plasma esterases and excretion of metabolites in the urine

Answer 7

b

Question 8

Which of the following is true regarding action on platelets?
A. Non-selective COX inhibitors act irreversibly - false
B. Clopidogrel acts reversibly
C. ?
D. Abciximab acts reversibly

Answer 8

d

Question 9

When is the safest time to give a drug to a lactating mother?
A. 3 - 4 hours before breastfeeding
B. Immediately before breastfeeding
C. Immediately after breastfeeding
D. 30 - 60 minutes after breastfeeding
E. Either A or D

Answer 9

e

Question 10

Which of the following causes reversible inhibition of platelet function?
A. aspirin
B. heparin
C. warfarin
D. diclofenac
E. clopidogrel

Answer 10

d

hep ‘doesn’t’ inhibit platelet function

Question 11

MD41b Which is not a serotonin receptor antagonist
A. sumatriptan
B. ondansetron
C. ketanserin
D. cyproheptadine
E. clozapine

Answer 11

a

Question 12

GP36 Regarding IV magnesium sulphate
A. It is metabolised by the liver
B. Has high clearance?? cant remember the options correctly
C. The S enantiomer is the only active form
D. The cardiac output is preserved after administration despite decreased contractility due to its effects on vascular smooth muscle in the peripheries
E. The dose must be reduced in liver failure

Answer 12

d

Question 13

All are secreted by the proximal tubule in the kidney except:
A. Diazepam
B. Morphine
C. Probenicid
D. Penicillin
E. Frusemide

Answer 13

a

Question 14

Which of the following drugs has low first pass metabolism 
A. Lignocaine
B. Morphine
C. Metoclopramide
D. Midazolam
E. Aspirin

Answer 14

c check with tom

Question 15

IN34 The therapeutic index of modern volatiles is in the order of:
A. 10

Answer 15

b

Question 16

OP29 When clonidine is added to local anaesthetic in a peripheral nerve block its actions are the result of: (new)
A. Supraspinal effect
B. Spinal effect
C. Effect on primary afferent nerves at the site
D. Clonidine has no effect in peripheral nerve blocks
E. Can cause neurotoxicit

Answer 16

c

Question 17

CD67 Amphetamine is:
A. A catecholamine
B. Similar presentation to cocaine toxicity
C. Can cause tolerance (or ?withdraw)
D.
E. Presents often as coma

Answer 17

c - causes tol and withdrawal

b - true but not best as some differences

Question 18

Repeat: At what height does atmospheric pressure becomes half?
A. 1500m
B.
C. 5500M 
D. 7,700m
E. 10,500m

Answer 18

c

Question 19

NEW In an unfit/untrained person, which mechanism accounts for the increase in cardiac output?
A:
B:?increase skeletal muscle blood flow
C:
D: increased contractility
E: increased heart rate

Answer 19

e

Question 20

REPEAT: ECG changes in hypokalemia
A: increased QT
B: increased QRS
C: decreased PR

Answer 20

a

Question 21

(repeat) which of the following is an NMDA receptor antagonist
a) Dextropropoxephene
b) Dexphenylephrine
c) Dexamphetamine
d) Dextromethorphan
e) Dexmedetomidine

Answer 21

d

Question 22

Contaminants in N2O include:

a) NO2
b) NO
c) N2
d) ammonia
e) All of the above

Answer 22

e

Question 23

Clonidine in periph nerve block
A. inhibits A + C fibres
B. supraspinal adrenergic effect
C. supraspinal adrenergic effect
D. no effect

Answer 23

a but check with tom

Question 24

Amiodarone:

a) May cause pulmonary infiltrates
b) Structurally resembles thyroxine
c) Increases the refractory period of action potential
d) Antagonist at both alpha and beta adrenoreceptors

Answer 24

all

Question 25

``` alt) physostigmine has no effect on A. sedatory effects of opioids B. analgesic effects of opioids C. phenothiazines D. TCA E. analgesic effects of ketamine ```

Answer 25

b reverses opioid sedation reverses adverse CNS of ketamine may reverse phenothiazine and TCA sedation no effect on opioid or ketamine analgisia

Question 26

``` Side effects of L-dopa do NOT include: A. Psychiatric abnormalities B. Cardiac arrhythmias C. Hypertension D. Involuntary movements E. Nausea and vomiting ```

Answer 26

c

Question 27

A 70 year old man was given gentamicin 2mg/kg prior to undergoing a TURP. Possible adverse effects include: A. Vestibular toxicity B. ?Cardiac arrhythmia C. Perioral paraesthesia D. Something else which seemed like overkill E. Renal cortical necrosis

Answer 27

a