RECALL: pharmacology + ECT Flashcards

1
Q

how do you treat lithium induced tremor

A

propanolol

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2
Q

“1. Young guy being treated with aripiprazole 15 mg for psychosis. Becomes depressed. Started on bupropion. Mood improves but now pacing, agitated, can’t sleep. What do you do?
a) decrease aripiprazole
b) stop bupropion
c) start propranolol
d) dimenhydrinate or diphenhydramine??”

A

A) decrease abilify

–> related to 2D6 inhibition by buproprion, and abilify is 2D6 substrate–> leads to higher abilify effective dose and thus akathesia

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3
Q

“101) What medication causes a differential in activation of 5HT1 and 5HT2?
a. Moclobemide
b. Mirtazapine
c. Citalopram
d. Amitriptyline”

A

“B) Mirtazapine = TRUE

Mirtazapine is a NaSSA. Antagonism at 5HT2, 5HT3, alpha-2, H1. It doesn’t directly act on 5HT1, thus, there is a differential in activation of 5HT1 and 5HT2. The other 3 either block SERT or MAO, which increases serotonin overall, acting on BOTH 5HT2 and 5HT1.

A) FALSE. RIMA
B) TRUE
C) FALSE. SSRI
D) FALSE. TCA (SERT blockade)”

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4
Q

“108. Which of the following neurotransmitters is responsible/involved in withdrawal from alcohol and benzodiazepines?
a. Glutamate
b. GABA
c. Norepinephrine
d. Dopamine”

A

“A) Glutamate

technically imbalance of too much glumate and too little GABA”

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5
Q

“108. Young man is admitted for schizophrenia and is started on haloperidol 10mg. He develops restlessness and is constantly pacing around. He feels like he needs to constantly move. What do you prescribe to help him?
A) Propranolol
B) Benztropine
C)
D)”

A

“A) Propanolol

Akathisia.
Tx per UTD:
- 1st line: Propanolol - 10 mg BID start, gradually (eg q7 d) to 40-60 mg BID
- 2nd line: Benzos (but more sx management)
- 3rd line: Benztropine (but why tho, more of a ““hope”” that dystonia related)
- Promising: Mirtazapine”

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6
Q

“108) Atomoxetine for a child. What is most important to disclose to the parent (or patient)?
a) increased suicidal thinking
b) increased BP
c) smaller effect size compared to stimulant”

A

“A) Increased suicidal thinking

Atomoxetine monograph has black box warning about increased SI in kids and adolescents with ADHD”

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7
Q

“11) 32 year old guy on methylphenidate for years for ADHD. On bupropion. for depression. On yohimbine. On trazodone for sleep. Which med is causing his sexual dysfunction?
a) yohimbine
b) bupropion
c) methylphenidate
d) trazodone”

A

“B) Bupropion

Discussed in review course
- Bupropion has highest rate of ““sexual side effects”” (surprisingly)

BUT, methylphenidate specifically mentions ““erectile dysfunction, so… ugh

A) FALSE. Purported to improve sexual dysfunction…but limited data
B) TRUE (surprisingly)
C) FALSE / LESS TRUE.
D) FALSE. Though among serotonergic agents, trazodone actually has relatively lower risk of sexual dysfunction (despite priapism risk).”

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8
Q

“114. Older man begins waking up in his sleep and eating, sleepwalking. He does not have good recollection of these episodes. Which medication is most likely causing these symptoms?
A) Citalopram
B) Zolpidem
C) Lorazepam
D) Mirtazapine (?)”

A

zolpidem

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9
Q

“115) where is the most concentration of dopamine in the brain?
a) amygdala
b) caudade nucleus
c) substantia nigra”

A

“B) Caudate

Highest concentration of dopamine is found in striatum (caudate and putamen)”

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10
Q

“117. What is therapeutic level of clozapine (different values recalled) - same in French exam:
a. 100-400
b. 500-800
c. 1000-1500
d. 2500-4000”

A

“C) 1000-1500 = TRUE

Depends on the units. Different version specifiies nmol/L. CPA Schizophrenia guideline says serum level of > 1100 nmol/L is considered adequate trial.

There is variability online in terms of recommended clozapine level. Most seem to say 300-450 ng/mL (900-1350 nmol/L)”

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11
Q

“121. Atypical antipsychotics:
a. 5HT1A < DA
b. 5HT2A > DA
c. 5HT2C > DA
d. 5HT3 ? DA
Other version: Most atypical antipsychotics are:
e. 5HT agonists > DA antagonists
f. 5HT antagonists > DA antagonists
g. DA antagonists > 5HT agonists
h. DA antagonists > 5HT antagonists”

A

“B) 5HT2A > DA = TRUE

F) TRUE
Atypicals have much higher affinity for 5HT2A receptor than for D2; this is the definition of ““atypical.”” The reverse is true for typicals. “

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12
Q

“126. Lady has been on paroxetine for years and abruptly discontinued it. What symptoms will she most likely present with?
A) Insomnia, nausea, headache
B) Sedation, runny nose, sore eyes
C) Tachycardia, torsades de pointe
D)”

A

“A) Insomnia, nausea, headache

"”FINISH”” mneumonic for SSRI discontinuation syndrome

F = Flu-like symptoms (lethargy, fatigue, headache, achiness, sweating)
I = Insomnia (with vivid dreams or nightmares)
N = Nausea (sometimes vomiting)
I = Imbalance (dizziness, vertigo, lightheadedness)
S = Sensory disturbances (““burning,”” ““tingling,”” ““electric-like”” or ““shock-like”” sensations)
H = Hyperarousal (anxiety, irritability, agitation, aggression, mania, jerkiness)”

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13
Q

“128. What is true about medications in children vs adults?
A) Children have slower metabolism in general
B) Children have lower body water so they need lower doses
C) Children have poor oral absorption (other version: higher oral absoprtion)
D) Children generally require higher weight adjusted doses compared to adults”

A

“D) Children generally require higher weight adjusted doses compared to adults

Think tylenol weight adjustment.
Larger brain/body weight ratio, thus dosing in kids requires more adjusting per their weight vs adults.
- https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1884865/

A) FALSE. Children have FASTER metabolism.
(Dean Elbe, BCCH)

B) FALSE. Children have higher body water.
- https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3857037/

C = FALSE. ““Beyond infancy, GI transit time, gastric pH
and oral drug absorption similar to adult”” -Dean. Own research says diff stuff.

D) TRUE. “

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14
Q

“150. Woman is being treated with psychotropic medication presents hyponatremic and with increased urine osmolality. Which agent is most likely to have caused this?
a. Lithium
b. Sertraline
c. Epival”

A

“B) Sertraline = TRUE

SIADH assoc with SSRI/SNRIs.

SIADH : ““Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is defined as euvolaemic, hypotonic hyponatraemia secondary to impaired free water excretion, usually from excessive arginine vasopressin (AVP) release.””

SSRIs can induce SIADH with hyponatremia. Risk increases with age (32% incidence), Female sex, low body weight, smoking, concomitant diuretic use.

A) FALSE.
B) TRUE
C) FALSE”

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15
Q

“151. Which of the following interferes the least with OCP (oral contraceptive pill)?
a. Epival
b. Lamotrigine
c. Carbamazepine
d. Topiramate”

A

“A) Epival = best answer

A) TRUE. OCP may decrease concentration of valproate - rating C
B) OCP induces metabolism of lamotrigine - rating D
C) CBZ induces metabolism of OCP - rating D
D) Topiramate induces metabolism of OCP - rating D

When interaction occurs, efficacy of OCP decreases and unplanned pregnancy can result.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2848501/”

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16
Q

“153. You are treating a 45 year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer. She has depressive symptoms, anxiety, severe nausea, anorexia and sleep complaints. Which of the following would be the best pharmacological agent for her depressive and anxious symptoms?
a. Citalopram
b. Mirtazapine
c. Venlafaxine
d. Fluoxetine”

A

“B) Mirtazapine

Nausea → mirtazapine has 5HT3 blockade

It helps with sleep, nausea, and appetite, and the others don’t have those properties.

Even if in canadian guidelines for depression and anxiety, only venlafaxine come as first level of evidence/ first line for both – but there’s not a lot of difference between them.”

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17
Q

“156. Mechanism of action of Varenicline
a. Cholinergic receptor α4 β2 partial agonist
b. Cholinergic receptor α4 β2 antagonist
c. Partial agonist α3 β2”

A

“A) Cholinergic receptor α4 β2 partial agonist = TRUE

Partial neuronal α4 β2 nicotinic receptor agonist; prevents nicotine stimulation of mesolimbic dopamine system associated with nicotine addiction. Varenicline stimulates dopamine activity but to a much smaller degree than nicotine does, resulting in decreased craving and withdrawal symptoms.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE
C) FALSE”

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18
Q

“16- Recently referred an elderly woman (80 y/o) taking Citalopram 40 mg. Stable mild renal failure. Doing well. What first investigations as family doctor.
a. Do lytes
b. Do bone densitometry
c. EKG
d. CBC”

A

“C) ECG = true

First step
Monitor for QTc prolongation given higher dose

A) FALSE-> Hyponatremia usually presents within 2 weeks of drug initiation in elderly and would most likely be symptomatic
B) FALSE-> No increased risk of osteoporosis but increased risk of impaired balance & falls
C) TRUE -> *Limit dose of citalopram to 20mg/day in elderly due to risk of QT prolongation.
D) FALSE-> No clear gains to follow CBC”

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19
Q

“162. 13. Patient with SCZ on Clozapine, which medication is most likely to interact with clz?
a. Fluvoxamine
b. Paroxetine
c. Citalopram
d. Venlafaxine

A

“A) Fluvoxamine = TRUE

Fluvoxamine is a 1A2 inhibitor. Clozapine is mainly a 1A2 substrate (minor 3A4, some 2D6). Clozapine level would rise with fluvoxamine.

Clozapine serum concentrations were an average of 1.4- to 2.6-fold higher with concurrent administration of the strong CYP1A2 inhibitor fluvoxamine, with increases in clozapine serum concentrations (or dose-normalized concentrations) of at least 5-fold in individual subjects/patients, in several studies of this combination.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. Paroxetine is mainly a 2D6 inhibitor
C) FALSE. Citalopram has limited CYP interactions
D) FALSE. Venlafaxine is mainly a 2D6 inhibitor (weak)

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20
Q

“188. Mechanisms of action of mirtazapine, all EXCEPT:
a. alpha2 Antagonist
b. 5 HT2 Antagonist
c. Reduces noradrenaline
d. Anti-H1”

A

“C) Reduced noradrenaline = FALSE
Mirtazapine is a NaSSA. Antagonist at alpha2, 5HT2, 5HT3, H1.

A) TRUE
B) TRUE
C) FALSE. Increases NE via alpha-2 blockade (autoreceptor).
D) TRUE

Mirtazapine is part of the group tetracyclic antidepressants (TeCA) that work by exerting antagonist effects on the central presynaptic alpha-2-adrenergic receptors, which causes an increased release of serotonin and norepinephrine.

potent antagonist of H1 histamine receptors (producing a sedating, calming effect) and 5-HT2A, 5-HT2C, and 5-HT3 serotonin receptors. “

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21
Q

“19. You are treating a 45 year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer. She has depressive symptoms, anxiety, severe nausea, anorexia and sleep complaints. Which of the following would be the best pharmacological agent for her depressive and anxious symptoms?
a. Citalopram
b. Mirtazapine
c. Venlafaxine”

A

“B) Mirtazapine = TRUE

Nausea → mirtazapine has 5HT3 blockade (Nausea/vomiting in a variety of clinical scenarios including cyclical vomiting syndrome; longer half-life and decreased cost relative to traditional 5‑HT3 antagonists but formal comparative trials are lacking) + may help for insomnia & anorexia

A) Citalopram = False
but following cochrane review below– might have safest profile but alternate effects profile doesn’t match clinical picture as well

C) Venlafaxine = FALSE
but can be prefered for cancer patients given benefits for hot flashes/ vasomotor sx (Hot flashes in menopausal women – double-blind studies have shown reduction by venlafaxine (for women with natural or surgical menopause as well as a history of breast cancer), desvenlafaxine (natural or surgical menopause)[63], and open label study by duloxetine (for those with concurrent depression)[64])

Interestingly – Cochrane review 2018
Authors’ conclusions: Despite the impact of depression on people with cancer, the available studies were very few and of low quality. This review found very low certainty evidence for the effects of these drugs compared with placebo. On the basis of these results, clear implications for practice cannot be deduced. The use of antidepressants in people with cancer should be considered on an individual basis and, considering the lack of head-to-head data, the choice of which agent to prescribe may be based on the data on antidepressant efficacy in the general population of individuals with major depression, also taking into account that data on medically ill patients suggest a positive safety profile for the SSRIs.

Nothing in CPA guidelines”

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22
Q

“20. Where does COMT act
a. Presynaptic
b. Postsynaptic
c. In vesicle
d. Interneuron space
e. Other version had as options:
synaptic cleft,
intracellular [was actually unclear if these were part of same answer or not]”

A

“B) Post-synaptic
Best ans = post-synaptic, membrane bound
2nd best = post-synaptic, intracellular

Background:
- 2 forms: MB-COMT (membrane bound), S-COMT (soluble)
- MB is the one far more in CNS
- MB-COMT definitely on post-synaptic membrane
-COMT possibly IN glial/astrocyte cells (dno form), which are in synaptic cleft, but it’s not as if COMT is floating around in the synaptic cleft (e.g. like acetylcholinesterase would be)

.:
- PRESYNAPTIC: definitely wrong
- VESICLES: definitely wrong
- SYNAPTIC CLEFT/INTERNEURON SPACE: wrong. this would imply that the soluble form is bumbling around the synaptic cleft. if it’s there, it’s in a cell
- POSTSYNAPTIC: bestanswer
- INTRACELLULAR: second best answer”

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23
Q

“22. Which of these medications is the most potent blocker of the norepinephrine transporter (NET) ?
a. Doxepin
b. Amitriptyline
c. Desipramine”

A

Desipramine is by far the most potent. Desipramine is a secondary amine, while the other 2 are tertiary.

24
Q

“23) What is least anticholinergic?
a) nortriptyline
b) doxepine
c) amitriptyline
d) imipramine”

A

“A) Nortriptyline

Most secondary amines are less anticholinergic. Least anticholinergic TCAs are NORTRIPTYLINE, AND DESIPRAMINE.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. More
C) FALSE. More
D) FALSE. More”

25
Q

“25. Man presenting with hyperactive delirium due to urosepsis. QTc is 525ms. What is your choice of pharmacotherapy?
A) Lorazepam
B) Quetiapine
C) Aripiprazole
D) Haloperidol”

A

“C) aripiprazole

Aripiprazole has lowest QTc risk
Qtp increases slightly
Haldol bad
Benzos worsen delirium”

26
Q

“32. Which of the following should not be combined with theophylline?
a. Sertraline
b. Fluvoxamine
c. Bupropion”

A

“B) Fluvoxamine = TRUE

Theophylline is 1A2 substrate. Fluvoxamine is strong 1A2 inhibitor, would raise theophylline levels. Risk of arrhythmias, seizures, hyperglycemia, and rhabdomyolysis

A) FALSE. Doesn’t affect 1A2 (mod 2D6 inhibitor)
B) TRUE
C) FALSE. Doesn’t affect 1A2 (strong 2D6 inhibitor)”

27
Q

“33. (repeat) Older man is presenting for depression. His is on warfarin, hydrochlorothiazide, atenolol and trazodone. You are thinking about starting him on citalopram. What drug interaction are you most worried about?
A) QTc prolongation
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Bleeding
D) AV block “

A

“UPDATE: TR2021 super smart lecturer said answer is C) bleeding.
NOTE: something to think about, if answer choice includes hyponatremia that might be best answer as per Simon Woo (HCTZ and citalopram –> SIADH)

C) bleeding = true. This is a known risk that there is increased bleeding, even though evidence says risk is low (see below)

A) FALSE. although QTc is risk, it’s only at higher doses. it’s also not a drug interaction.
B) FALSE - No major changes in OH with added SSRI
C) TRUE
D) FALSE

=============

*Limit dose of citalopram to 20mg/day in elderly due to risk of QT prolongation. – Health Canada Black box warning–

Risk of QTc prolongation when using citalopram >20 mg in elderly.
Health Canada recommends max 20 mg/day in hepatic impairment, patients who are 65 years of age or older, patients who are CYP2C19 poor metabolizers, or patients who are taking concomitant cimetidine or another CYP2C19 inhibitor.

Lexicomp says ““C”” level (monitoring) for– so not distinguishable from one another
- Citalopram + HCTZ (hyponatremia)
- Citalopram + Traz (depressants, serotonin)
- Citalopram + Warfarin (bleeding)”

28
Q

“34. Which of the following should be reduced in moderate renal failure?
a. Venlafaxine
b. Methylphenidate
c. Clozapine
d. Valproic Acid”

A

“A) Venlafaxine = TRUE

Venlafaxine requires renal dosing.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. No renal dosing.
C) FALSE. No renal dosing.
D) FALSE. No renal dosing.

The following require about 50% reduction in moderate renal disease: Mirtazapine, paliperidone, paroxetine, risperidone, topiramate, venlafaxine and zolpidem”

29
Q

“35. Patient with psychosis on aripiprazole, develops depression. Which won’t increase the levels of aripiprazole significantly/safe to use in combination?
a. Bupropion
b. Venlafaxine
c. Sertraline
d. Duloxetine”

A

“B) Venlafaxine

Aripiprazole is 2D6 substrate.
Venlafaxine weaker 2D6 inhibitor

A) FALSE. Bupropion moderate 2D6 inhibitor.
B) TRUE
C) FALSE. Sertraline moderate 2D6 inhibitor.
D) FALSE. Duloxetine moderate 2D6 inhibitor.”

30
Q

“35. Which statement is true about Dexedrine?
a. Provokes the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from the vesicles
b. Concomitant use with methylphenidate is contraindicated”

A

“A) Provokes the release of NE + DA from vesicles = TRUE

Dexedrine (lisdexamfetamine) is amphetamine-based, so triggers release and blocks reuptake.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. Not formally? level C interaction on lexicomp”

31
Q

“37. Patient develops nausea, abdo pain. LFTs are again OK but really high lipase. Likely they are on what med?
a. CBZ
b. Lamictal
c. VPA
d. Lithium”

A

“C) VPA

Sounds like pancreatitis. Black box warning of VPA. Listed as SE of VPA in Stahl’s. Case reports/rare for CBZ.

A) FALSE. Not as likely.
B) FALSE
C) TRUE
D) FALSE”

32
Q

“38. Which of the following antidepressant has a direct effect on 5HT1 and 5HT2?
a. Moclobemide
b. Duloxetine
c. Sertraline
d. Mirtazapine”

A

“D) Mirtazapine = TRUE
Only mirtazapine has significant direct action on serotonin receptors. The others act indirectly (MAOI, SNRI, SSRI).

Note: likely recall issue, as Mirtaz doesn’t act on 5HT1 directly

A) FALSE
B) FALSE
C) FALSE
D) TRUE”

33
Q

“39. Person on clomipramine may have which of the below due to muscarinic blockade?
a. weight gain
b. Falls and syncope
c. gingival disease and tooth decay
d. sexual side effects, anorgasmia”

A

“C) Gingival disease and tooth decay

Anticholinergic side effects dry mouth, which leads to dental disease.

A) FALSE. Due to H1 blockade
B) FALSE. Due to alpha1 blockade
C) TRUE
D) FALSE. Due to serotonin.”

34
Q

“4- Mechanisms of seizures in TCAs overdose (mechanism of seizure in TCA overdose)
a) Antagonism of sodium channel
b) Agonism of calcium channel
c) Antagonism of GABA
d) Antagonism muscarinic”

A

“C) Antagonism of GABA

Seizures are due to complex interactions in central serotonergic, cholinergic, and adrenergic neurotransmitters, along with inhibition of the chloride ionophore of GABA receptor complex”

35
Q

“4) Which of the following is a result of glucoronidation?
a) lamotrigine and epival interaction
b) clozapine increases because of fluvoxamine
c) Carbamazepine inducing its own metabolism
d) Smoking and olanzapine”

A

“A) Lamotrigine & Epival interaction

Epival increases lamotrigine levels via UGT system.

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. Fluvoxamine is 1A2 inhibitor.
C) FALSE. CYP 1A2 & 3A4 substrate & inducer.
D) FALSE. Smoking is a 1A2 inducer.”

36
Q

“42. Clozapine started, now at 100 mg qhs. CBC is normal. However now tachycardic. What is your INITIAL step?
a. Consult cardiology
b. Add beta blocker
c. Assess for signs of heart failure
d. Reduce clozapine”

A

“C) Assess for signs of heart failure = TRUE

Could be cardiomyopathy/myocarditis. Can have normal tacyhcardia. Probably would not need dose reduction if no signs of heart failure/myocarditis.

A) FALSE. If myocarditis.
B) FALSE. If heart failure…consult cardiology first.
C) TRUE
D) FALSE. Stop if myocarditis.”

37
Q

“42. Which will increase Clozapine levels?
a) St. John’s Wort
b) Smoking
c) Alcohol
d) Caffeine”

A

“D) Caffeine
Caffeine is a (weak) 1A2 inhibitor, (mechanism probably because it’s a substrate) increasing clozapine.

A) FALSE. SJW induces 1A2, lowering clozapine.
B) FALSE. Smoking cigarettes induces 1A2, lowering clozapine.
C) FALSE
D) TRUE. “

38
Q

“43- Adolescent and antipsychotics:
a. Second generation gives metabolic side effects
b. First generation are contraindications
c. No evidence that second generation give EPS”

A

A

39
Q

“47. Elderly lady. Has syncopal episodes. Na 117. What is the most likely cause:
a. Sertraline
b. Li
c. Topiramate”

A

“A) Sertraline = TRUE

Hyponatremia caused by SIADH.

B) FALSE -Lithium can be used to TREAT SIADH
C) FALSE - Topiramate can cause hypokalemia

Hyponatremia is rare, (mostly in elderly and generally reversible by stopping sertraline”

40
Q

“5. Which of the following dissociates fastest from the D2 receptor?
A) Risperidone
B) Clozapine
C) Olanzapine
D) Aripiprazole”

A

B) clozapine = true

Out of these options, clozapine has fastest dissociation

Quetiapine is has highest Ki (fastest dissociation) of all antipsychotics, then clozapine.
Aripiprazole has lowest Ki (slowest dissociation, or highest affinity)

41
Q

“55. All of the following will increase Lithium levels, EXCEPT:
a. Low Na diet
b. Thiazide diuretic
c. Ibuprofen
d. Caffeine”

A

“D) Caffeine

Caffeine DECREASES lithium levels.
https://www.nami.org/About-Mental-Illness/Treatments/Mental-Health-Medications/Types-of-Medication/Lithium
_________

A) FALSE. Low sodium INCREASES (incr Li reabsorp)
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK499992/

B) FALSE. Thiazide incr reabsorp (incr Li levels)
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5164879/pdf/40345_2016_Article_68.pdf

C) FALSE. Ibuprofen decr elimination (incr LI levels)
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/lithium-poisoning”

42
Q

“56- Young guy getting TD on risperidone 3 mg. Only peri-oral sx What next?
a. Botox
b. Increased risperidone
c. Clozapine
d. Aripiprazole”

A

C) Clozapine = probably best to switch

A) Less evidence for botox
B) Don’t increase risperidone, just masks TD, then comes back
C) Traditionally recommendation. Lowest TD risk.
D) Switching from FGA to SGA is okay, but SGA to SGA has limited evidence for efficacy.

B19: ?? Also aripiprazole is not ideal SGA to switch to (quetiapine, olanzapine…)

Newest evidence for deutetrabenazin, valbenazine

43
Q

“56. Woman with bipolar disorder who is on valproic acid. You want to start lamotrigine for her depression. What do you do?
A) Increase lamotrigine dose by double
B) Decrease valproic acid dose by half
C) Increase valproic acid dose by double
D) Decrease lamotrigine dose by half”

A

“D) TRUE –> Val-Hal-La

If on Valproate, cut lamotrigine in half if you don’t want to go to valhalla –class D interaction–> Valproate Products may enhance the adverse/toxic effect of LamoTRIgine by increasing the serum concentration of LamoTRIgine.

A) FALSE–> Would increase toxicity
B) FALSE–> Lecture & lexicomp suggests to decrease lamotrigine instead of valproate.
C) FALSE–> Would increase toxicity
D) TRUE

44
Q

“63. All are true about mirtazapine except:
a. Alpha 2 antagonist
b. Anxiolytic via noradrenergic modulation
c. Sedation via antihistaminergic action
d. 5HT2 and 3 antagonism”

A

“B) Anxiolytic via noradrenergic modulation = LEAST true (depends on wording).

A) TRUE.
B) ? FALSE → anxiolysis more due to serotonin effects, but some argument for noradrenergic effects on anxiety
C) TRUE.
D) TRUE.”

45
Q

“64. Which mood stabilizer can cause acute pancreatitis?
a) Carbamazepine
b) Lithium
c) Valproic Acid
d) Topiramate”

A

“C) Valproic acid = TRUE

Black box warning for pancreatitis. Reports of pancreatitis with carbamazepine overdose too, but less common.
[https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3737994/]”

46
Q

“73) drug quickest to dissociate from the D2 receptor?
a) clozapine
b) aripiprazole
c) quetiapine”

A

(lower D2 affinity, quicker dissociation)

“C) Quetiapine

Then clozapine, aripiprazole.

Randhawa lecture says quetiapine has lowest affinity, then clozapine, olanzapine. Aripiprazole has highest affinity.”

47
Q

“74. Which is a potential consequence of giving tacrolimus with an antidepressant:
a. organ rejection
b. risk of serotonin syndrome
c. tacrolimus toxicity with fluvoxamine
d. QTC prolongation with citalopram”

A

“C) Tacrolimus toxicity with fluvoxamine = TRUE

Tacrolimus → immunosuppressant (macrolide class), 3A4 substrate
[DrugBank]
A) FALSE. Antidepressants are inhibitors, so would raise levels, not affecting immunosuppression
B) FALSE. Doesn’t act as inhibitor, so doesn’t affect antidepressant levels. No intrinsic serotonergic activity.
C) TRUE. Fluvoxamine is a potent 3A4 inhibitor, could cause tacrolimus toxicity
D) FALSE. Doesn’t increase citalopram levels. (but is listed as at QTc prolonging drug…)”

48
Q

“8. You are treating a patient with aripirazole, who develops depression. Which antidepressant is safest to use?
A) Duloxetine
B) Sertraline
C) Venlafaxine
D) Bupropion”

A

“C) Venlafaxine = true

Although UTD says venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor of 2D6, the other 3 drugs are listed in CANMAT depression’s Table 9 as being moderate or high potential for drug interaction”

49
Q

“8) Which of the following has its MAIN effect via G protein linked receptor?
a) haldol
b) donepezil
c) varenicline
d) escitalopram”

A

“A) Haloperidol = TRUE

D2 is a G-protein-linked receptor (agonist-spectrum signaling).

A) TRUE
B) FALSE. AChEI → enzyme
C) FALSE. A4b2 partial agonist → ligand-gated ion-channel
D) FALSE. SSRI → SERT (12-membrane-region transporter)”

50
Q

“9. A man is admitted to cardiology for QTc prolongation and has depression. Which antidepressant would you choose?
A) Citalopram
B) Amitriptyline
C) Mirtazapine
D) Bupropion”

A

“D) bupropion = true

bupropion ““No evidence of QT prolongation at therapeutic doses.””
mirtazapine has Health Canada Advisory of QT prolongation and TdP
citalopram has Health Canada Advisory of QT prolongation and TdP
amitriptyline is TCA, obvious has QT risk”

51
Q

“97. Which SNRI has the most noradrenergic side effects?
A) Levomilnacipran
B) Venlafaxine
C) Duloxetine
D) Desvenlafaxine”

A

“A) Levomilancipran

Levo always cited as ““most noradrenergic””

Going deeper, 3 principles at play, don’t get confused.

1) Receptor effects –> most reflective
- See IC50 constant –> lowest for Levo (ie, need the least amount for receptor effects to be 50% .: greatest impact on receptor)

2) Ratio of selectivity –> interesting

RATIOs (5HT:NE)
- 30:1 venlafaxine
- 10:1 desvenlafaxine
- 10:1 duloxetine
- 1:1 milnacipran
- 1:2 levomilnacipran

3) Binding affinity –> not as relevant here
- actually favours duloxetine over levo

52
Q

“106. ECT failed to induce seizure. All of the following are reasonable options except:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Reduce anesthetic
c. Reduce muscle relaxant
d. Give caffeine”

A

“C) Reduce muscle relaxant = WON’T HELP

A) TRUE. Hyperventilation helps
B) TRUE. Most anesthetics increase seizure threshold
C) FALSE. Won’t help
D) TRUE. Evidence caffeine helps, as per BC ECT guidelines

"”Reduce muscle relaxant. (probably won’t have any effect)

Hyperventilation & ensuring adequate hydration HELPS
Reducing anesthetic dose can help too (most increase seizure threshold, except etomidate & ketamine) - 2018”””

53
Q

what impact does caffeine have on seizures

A

lengthens them (so give it if youre getting bad seizures in ECT)

54
Q

how does seizure risk compare between antidepressants and rTMS

A

rTMS actually has LOWER risk of spontaneous seizures than antidepressant treatment but still more serious SE of rTMS

55
Q

“23. Where should electrodes be placed for deep brain stimulation for depression
a. DLPFC
b. Orbiofrontal cortex
c. Amygdala
d. Subcallosal cingulate gyrus”

A

“D) Subcallosal cingulate gyrus

CANMAT 2016
* SCC (subcallosal cingulate white matter)
* VC/VS (ventral capsule, ventral striatum)
* NA (nucleus accumbens)
* MFB (medial forebrain bundle)

evidence mixed if DBS works for MDD”

56
Q

“9. Which is an indication for ECT?
a) Borderline PD
b) Social Anxiety Disorder
c) Delirium
d) Somatization disorder”

A

C) Delirium