RECALL from 2021 + 2022 exams Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism? what blood test results would you expect in this case?

A

graves disease

autoimmune process with antibodies against TSH receptor

T3/T4 will be high, TSH will be LOW

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2
Q

what medications can be implicated in hyperthyroidism

A

lithium
amiodarone

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3
Q

treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

antithyroid therapy or beta blockers

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4
Q

psychiatric symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

anxiety–> panic, GAD

mood–> emotional lability, irritability, hypomania, insomnia

severe–> delirium

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5
Q

what EEG changes are seen in lithium toxicity? is this helpful for diagnosis?

A

DISORGANIZATION and SLOWING OF BACKGROUND ACTIVITY are the most common in lithium toxicity

severe lithium toxicity–> periodic complexes of SHARP WAVES

yes, its helpful–> the changes seem in EEG in lithium toxicity can be correlated with degree of neurotoxicity

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6
Q

what are two first line drugs for treating clozapine-induced seizures

A

VPA and lamotrigine

–> Traditional agents, such as phenytoin, have greater efficacy against tonic-clonic seizures, compared with myoclonic seizures, and are probably less effective overall

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7
Q

what type of seizures are seen in clozapine induced seizures

A

myoclonic seizures

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8
Q

what is the confirmatory test for anti-NMDA encephalopathy

A

IgG anti-GluN1 antibodies –> CSF antibodies

Confirmatory test is CSF antibodies. MRI and EEG can be part of work-up, but not confirmatory. MRI has no findings in more than half of cases. EEG is abnormal in 90%.

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9
Q

what is “forced normalization”

A

Forced normalization (FN) is an intriguing phenomenon characterized by the emergence of psychiatric disturbances following the establishment of seizure control or reduction in the epileptic activity in a patient with previous uncontrolled epilepsy.

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10
Q

name a peculiar side effect of keppra

A

rage and suicidality

(this is the answer on the MCQ where the options are forced normalization vs keppa effect)

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11
Q

is abilify associated with prolonged QT

A

no

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12
Q

what CYP enzymes are induced by smoking

A

1A2 and 2B6

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13
Q

what CYP enzymes metabolize olanzapine

A

1A2

(and i think 3A4)

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14
Q

what causes the physical symptoms of opioid withdrawal

A

hyperactivity of noradrenergic neurons in the LC

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15
Q

if a kid previously had strep 2 years ago, and now has sudden onset OCD in the context of a psychosocial stressor, what is the likely cause/precipitant of the OCD?

A

the psychosocial stressor

–> Stessful or traumatic events associated with developing OCD per DSM; Also well known stress/anxiety can exacerbate sx

if it was going to be PANDAS, usually a date range will be given to show the temporal relationship with GAS–> should be “recent” i.e within 6 months or less from onset of PANDAS sx

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16
Q

what is one way to evaluate the bleeding risk associated with a particular antidepressant

A

An association between the risk of bleeding and increasing affinity for the serotonin transporter (SERT) has been noted in several studies

(basically higher affinity for SERT then higher bleeding risk)

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17
Q

what is “rabbit syndrome”

A

Rabbit syndrome is an uncommon, TONGUE SPARING oro-facial movement disturbance, RAPID and REGULAR in nature and associated with prolonged use of neuroleptics

antipsychotic induced rhythmic movement of the mouth/lips resembling the chewing of a rabbit

VERTICAL ONLY motion, at about 5 Hz with NO INVOLVEMENT OF THE TONGUE

usually appear after long period of neuroleptic tx

can be typical or atypical neuroleptic

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18
Q

how do you distinguish rabbit syndrome from tardive dyskinesia

A

TD–> has tongue movements

RS–> no tongue movements

TD–> worsened by anticholinergics often

RS–> treated with anticholinergics

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19
Q

how do you treat rabbit syndrome

A

FIRST reduce antipsychotics as much as possible

THEN anticholinergics–> i.e benztropine

*does NOT respond to tx w levodopa or dopamine agonists

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20
Q

list 3 common targets for ablative surgery in OCD

A

anterior CINGULOTOMY–> anterior cingulate gyrus and cingulum bundle

anterior CAPSULOTOMY–> anterior limb of internal capsule

SUBCAUDATE TRACHTOTOMY–> corticostriatal tracts ventral to the head of the caudate nucleus

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21
Q

what is “harm avoidance” trait

A

personality trait characterized by excessive worrying, pessimism, shyness, and being fearful, doubtful, and easily fatigued, is suggested to be related to low serotonergic activity

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22
Q

what is “reward dependence” trait

A

tendency to respond markedly to signals of reward, particularly to verbal signals of social approval, social support, and sentiment. The opposite of Reward dependance would be detached/aloof/cold/independent– really touching on core pro-social behaviors

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23
Q

what is “novelty seeking” trait

A

novelty seeking is a personality trait associated with exploratory activity in response to novel stimulation, impulsive decision making, extravagance in approach to reward cues, quick loss of temper, and avoidance of frustration

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24
Q

what is “high persistence” trait

A

Persistence is associated to being industrious, determined & ambitious–The opposite of persistence would be lazy, spoiled or practical

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25
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for: learned response to fear, attaching emotions to past experiences, and connecting/interpreting sensory input?

A

amygdala

“The amygdalae help the body process emotions. They also help attach emotional meaning to memories. “

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26
Q

why might someone on a vega/veg diet get depressed

A

lacking in vitamin B12

may be low in long chain omega3s

*both of these are important for brain function and lack of either may predispose to depression

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27
Q

what is “introjection”

A

the unconscious adoption of the thoughts or personality traits of others.

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28
Q

what is cocaine’s mechanism of action for its BEHAVIOURAL symptoms

A

Competitive at dopamine transporter, prevents reuptake

“Cocaine causes the neurotransmitter dopamine to build up at the interface between VTA cells and NAc cells, triggering pleasurable feelings “
ties up the dopamine transporter, a protein that the dopaminergic cells use to retrieve dopamine molecules from their surroundings”

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29
Q

what is “reaction formation”

A

reaction formation is a DEFENSE mechanism in which a person unconsciously REPLACES an unwanted or anxiety-provoking IMPULSE with its opposite, often expressed in an exaggerated or showy way. A classic example is a young boy who bullies a young girl because, on a subconscious level, he’s attracted to her.

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30
Q

what are two defense mechanisms associated with OCPD

A

reaction formation + isolation of affect

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31
Q

An adult woman with history of bipolar type I, with favorable response to lithium. Her mood is stable but long standing history of social anxiety disorder that is significant, how do you treat the social anxiety?
a. Pregabalin
b. Seroquel
c. Lamotrigine

A

B) Seroquel

A) FALSE - third-line
B) TRUE - first-line is QTP, gabapentin (CANMAT anxiety comorbidity table 2 )
C) FALSE - second-line

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32
Q

what brain differences would you expect to see in the brain of someone with OCD

A

decreased hippocampus

“OCD is associated with smaller hippocampal volumes and larger pallidum volumes, versus controls, but failed to find any significant differences in the caudate or putamen”

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33
Q

who focused on self psychology and object relations in short term psychodynamic therapy, rather than drive-defense

A

Mann

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34
Q

what does fMRI look at?

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) can detect changes in blood flow and oxygen levels that result from your brain’s activity.

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35
Q

what does PET-FDG detect

A

glucose metabolism in the brain

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36
Q

what does SPECT and PET detect

A

radiotracers

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37
Q

Patient in your DBT group comes to group. Didn’t do their diary entry. They have work stressors and at risk of losing job. Cutting last week requiring stitches. They want to talk about interpersonal dynamic with a co-patient. What do you focus on first?
a. Cutting
b. Not doing diary entry homework
c. Job stress
d. Interpersonal issue

A

A) Cutting
A) TRUE - DBT always focus on suicide/self-harm first
B) FALSE - second is to address therapy interfering behaviour
C) FALSE - third is to focus on improving life
D) FALSE

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38
Q

is citalopram recommended for PTSD

A

no

39
Q
  1. Question about choosing which medication for treatment of PTSD
    a. Venlafaxine
    b. Citalopram
    c. Quetiapine
    d. Risperidone
A

venlafaxine

40
Q

what is “selective abstraction”

A

“the process of focusing on a detail taken out of context, ignoring other more salient features of the situation, and conceptualizing the whole experience on the basis of this element: I ruined the whole recital because of that one mistake”

41
Q

what is “dichotomous thinking”

A

tendency to define situations in extremes, as either best or worst with no middle ground.

42
Q

what is “overgeneralization”

A

Overgeneralization is a type of cognitive distortion where a person applies something from one event to all other events. 1 This happens regardless of whether those events are circumstances are comparable. Overgeneralization frequently affects people with depression or anxiety disorders.

43
Q

what is the most common heart conduction disturbance in patients on lithium therapy

A

SINUS NODE DYSFUNCTION characterized by sinus BRADYCARDIA

44
Q

is SVT linked to lithium therapy

A

no

45
Q

Female patient is manic, what would give you the most pause when starting lithium?
a. QTc 450
b. SVT
c. Sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
d. First degree AV node block

A

C) Sinus node dysfunction causing bradycardia
A) FALSE
B) FALSE - Supraventricular tachycardia, however, has not been linked to lithium therapy.
C) TRUE - Sinus node dysfunction characterized by sinus bradycardia is the most common conduction disturbance in patients on lithium therapy
D) FALSE - High doses of lithium in animals and therapeutic doses of lithium in humans caused varied abnormalities in cardiac conduction including A-V block.

46
Q

what is the function of orexin (aka hypocretins)

A

“to maintain a long, consolidated awake period”

–> may provide a link between energy homeostasis and arousal states
–> also involved in vigilance during emotional stimuli and in reward systems
–> findings suggest that orexin neurons sense the outer and inner environment of the body and maintain the proper wakefulness level of animals for survival

“They were initially recognized as regulators of feeding behavior, but they are mainly regarded as key modulators of the sleep/wakefulness cycle. Orexins activate orexin neurons, monoaminergic and cholinergic neurons in the hypothalamus/brainstem regions, to maintain a long, consolidated awake period. Anatomical studies of neural projections from/to orexin neurons and phenotypic characterization of transgenic mice revealed various roles for orexin neurons in the coordination of emotion, energy homeostasis, reward system, and arousal. For example, orexin neurons are regulated by peripheral metabolic cues, including ghrelin, leptin, and glucose concentration. This suggests that they may provide a link between energy homeostasis and arousal states. A link between the limbic system and orexin neurons might be important for increasing vigilance during emotional stimuli. Orexins are also involved in reward systems and the mechanisms of drug addiction. These findings suggest that orexin neurons sense the outer and inner environment of the body and maintain the proper wakefulness level of animals for survival.”

47
Q

Elderly with mild NCD, with some vascular risk factors that are treated well, what is his biggest risk factor to switch to dementia?
a. Low education
b. MDD
c. Vascular risk factors
d. Increase cholesterol

A

B) MDD
A) FALSE - 1.6x
B) TRUE - 1.9x
C) FALSE - HTN is 1.6x?

48
Q

Kid with temper tantrums. Parents cannot handle him. What is your FIRST step in management (repeat)?
a. Psychoeducational assessment
b. Behavioural analysis (not applied behavioural analysis)
c. Family therapy
d. Parental training

A

Recall 2018

D) Parental training = first step

Parent training is like psycho education.
behaviour analysis takes it too far.

A) FALSE. Too intense for initial step
B) FALSE
C) FALSE
D) TRUE

49
Q

Elementary aged child is irritable and angry at school for the last 8 months. He is occasionally vindictive. He hits other kids and blames them. What diagnosis best describes his negative behaviors?
a. Conduct disorder (childhood onset)
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
c. ADHD
d. IED

A

B) ODD
A) FALSE - not breaking the law
B) TRUE - Angry + temper + blames others + vindictive
C) FALSE
D) FALSE

50
Q

what is projective identification

A

Projection is the unconscious act of attributing something inside ourselves to someone else. Usually, but not always, the “thing” we are projecting is an unwanted emotion or attribute. For instance, if John does not feel good about his own body image, he may see Mark and and think to himself, “Hmmm, it looks like Mark has put on a lot of weight.” Now, if Mark has in fact put on a lot of weight, John would simply be observing reality accurately. If Mark has not gained weight, we could safely assume that John is projecting his own perceived unattractiveness onto Mark. John, by projecting onto Mark, is also distorting his own ability to perceive reality clearly.
Projection occurs inside one person’s mind. In the above example, the projection is occurring inside John. Mark may be walking past John and not have a clue what is going on regarding John’s perceptions of him.

“Projective Identification” becomes a two-person process. Let’s use the above scenario, but this time let’s have John and Mark interact. Let’s say that John meets Mark, greets him, and then comments to him “You look like you’ve put on weight.” Mark, quite understandably, may feel hurt, and/or angry, and/or embarrassed by this comment. The cause of Mark’s uncomfortable feelings, however, should be scrutinized closely, because it is at this moment that we must decide if this pair are accurately perceiving reality or if they have entered into a shared delusional state. If Mark has indeed gained weight recently, his uncomfortable feelings in the wake of John’s comments may simply reflect his own feelings about the state of his own body. If Mark has not gained weight recently, we might say that he has become identified with John’s projection of uncomfortable feelings about body image. Thus, Mark comes away from the interaction feeling hurt, angry, and embarrassed, when he in fact has nothing to feel hurt, angry, or embarrassed about. He literally gets stuck “holding the bag” of uncomfortable feelings that do not even belong to him in the first place.

Assuming Mark has not actually gained weight, we could say that he has every right to perhaps be offended by John’s somewhat rude comment, but it would make no sense for him to worry about his body image, since there is apparently nothing to worry about. Despite this, it is easy to imagine how Mark may go home and begin looking in the mirror, worrying about the way his clothes fit, or anxiously schedule his next gym workout. If the situation played out in this fashion, we could begin to see the dangers in identifying with the projections of others: we literally begin to lose our ability to trust our own perceptions, views, thought, and feelings. We begin to lose a fundamental grasp of the contents of our own minds. This speaks to the fundamental importance of being able to trust one’s self, and to form effective boundaries in the face of projections that are launched at us.

And launched they are, all the time, by virtually everybody. All of us project; we all have aspects of ourselves we wish to be rid of, and we all have unconscious dynamics, so it’s inevitable that we engage in this reality-bending endeavor. We all also have weaknesses in our interpersonal boundaries, which means that we are vulnerable to identifying with certain types of projections. When this happens, we enter a shared space of delusion with another person. For obvious reasons, it’s not wise to proceed through life sharing a belief in lies.

51
Q

what are the two types of studies

A

descriptive or analytic

52
Q

list the 4 types of descriptive studies

A

case report

case series

incidence

cross sectional

53
Q

list the two types of analytic studies

A

experimental

observational

54
Q

list the two types of observational studies (which are themselves a subset of analytical studies)

A

cohort

case control

55
Q

what are the goals of an analytic study

A

Analytic study attempts to quantify the relationship between 2 factors, that is, effect of intervention (I) or exposure (E) on outcome (O).

To quantify effect, need to know rate of O in comparison (C) group and in I/E group.

56
Q

what determines whether an analytic study is observational or experimental

A

Whether researcher actively changes a factor or imposes/uses an intervention determines if study is considered to be observational (passive), or experimental (active).

In experimental studies, the researcher manipulates the exposure, that is he or she allocates subjects to I/E group.

57
Q

what blood work abnormality is seen in refeeding syndrome

A

hypophosphatemia

hypomagnesemia

hypokalemia

thiamine deficiency

58
Q

explain the process of refeeding syndrome

A

Rapid refeeding = flood of nutrients -> sudden increase in insulin – trigger anabolic proceses; massive shift of K from extracellular to intracellular space; + usage of thiamine, Mg, P as cofactors in protein, fat, and glycogen synthesis = low serum levels
Expect hypoP, hypoMg, hypoK, thiamine deficiency

Insulin also causes cells to produce a variety of depleted molecules that require phosphate (eg, adenosine triphosphate and 2,3-diphosphoglycerate), which further depletes the body’s stores of phosphate

59
Q

impulse in RUL ECT is what x seizure threshold?

A

6x seizure threshold

60
Q

what is the FDA approved treatment for pseudobulbar affect

A

dextromethorphan/quinidine

61
Q

what neurobiological differences are seen in OCD

A

“OCD is associated with smaller hippocampal volumes and larger pallidum volumes, versus controls, but failed to find any significant differences in the caudate or putamen”

62
Q

children of parents with ASPD are more likely to have what psych diagnosis

A

somatic symptom disorder (especially if the child is a woman)

“Biological relatives of individuals with this disorder are also at increased risk for somatic symptom disorder and substance use disorders. Within a family that has a member with ASPD, males more often have ASPD and SUD; whereas females more often have SSD, though there is an increase of all 3 in both M + F, vs gen pop.”

63
Q

what medications can be used in borderline PD to treat impulse-behavioural dyscontrol

A

abilify, topiramate, lamotrigine, flupentixol, omega-3-fatty acid

64
Q

list 3 antidepressants that are CONTRAindicated when a patient is on tamoxifen

A

wellbutrin

fluoxetine

paroxetine

(all use 2D6)

65
Q

under what situations are people with schizophrenia more likely to act on their auditory hallucinations (particularly harm-command hallucinations)

A
  1. persons are more likely to act on auditory hallucinations to harm others when they PERCEIVE the voice as POWERFUL. Clinicians should ask their patient if they experience associated feelings of helplessness or powerlessness associated with the voice and if they believe there would be a bad outcome if the voice command is not followed.
  2. individuals who believe that following the directive of the command hallucination will BENEFIT them or more likely to comply with the harm-other command hallucination.
  3. persons are more like to follow harmful command hallucinations when they are associated with a CONGRUENT DELUSION. As an example, a man who hears a voice to kill his neighbor is more likely to act on this command if he believes his neighbor has been invaded by an evil alien who is plotting to kill him.
  4. patients with schizophrenia who experience command hallucinations that generate NEGATIVE EMOTIONS–such as anger, anxiety or sadness–are more likely to act violently than those individuals with voices that generate positive emotions.”
66
Q

what symptoms are associated with inhalant intoxication

A

nystagmus

ataxia

slurred speech

67
Q

nystagmus is common in intoxication with what substances

A

PCP

opioids

MJ

barbituates

68
Q

there is increased activity in what part of the brain during PTSD flashbacks

A

amygdala

69
Q

there is DECREASED activity in what part of the brain during PTSD flashbacks

A

brocas (thought to be responsible for translating personal experiences into communicable language)
and
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
and
thalamus

70
Q

what symptoms suggest someone is more likely to have bipolar than unipolar depression (i.e higher risk for bipolar)

A

FmHx of BD, EARLY ONSET, atypical features, PSYCHOMOTOR RETARDATION, psychotic symptoms, functional impairment, mixed features, previous hypomanic symptoms

71
Q

“2. What increases an individuals likelihood of experiencing stigma re: mental health?
a. Being Male
b. Living in / from an Islamic nation
c. Having a diagnosis of schizophrenia
d. Living Rural “

A

C–having a diagnosis of SCZ

72
Q

“3. Bipolar man, on Valproic Acid 1500 mg OD. You want to start lamotrigine, how do you start lamotrigine
a. To start lamotrigine, Half lamotrigine starting dose
b. Start VPA at double the dose
c. Start lamotrigine at double the dose
d. Half the VPA dose”

A

“A) TRUE - VPA increases lamotrigine level – therefore half the lamotrigine
B) FALSE - might kill him
C) FALSE - might kill him
D) FALSE”

73
Q

“18. Guy with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Is trying to leave the unit and getting agitated, aggressive. How do you treat his agitation?
a. VPA and propranolol
b. Lithium and clonidine
c. Clonazepam and topiramate
d. Zupenthixol and benztropine “

A

“A) reduces aggression
B) not studied
C) avoid benzos
D) atypical preferred over typical”

74
Q

“24. Lady with gait ataxia, dementia, confusion. What is most likely in her history
a. Hemorrhagic stroke
b. First degree relative with early onset dementia
c. ??”

A

“A) Hemorrhagic stroke - TRUE -> the triad is describing NPH (cognitive issues, urinary incontinence and gait abnormaltities) –> initial = CT scan. definitive = CSF

NPH can be from brain bleed into CSF (subarachnoid or intraventricular hemorrhage), head trauma, infection, tumor, or a complication of surgery. “

75
Q

“26. Person with LBD. What is seen on neuroimaging imaging.
a. Atrophy of the Entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and related structures
b. Hummingbird sign
c. Generalized atrophy sparing the medial temporal lobe
d. Cerebellum and cerebellar atrophy”

A

“Recall 2020
C) Generalized atrophy sparing the medial temporal lobe

A) FALSE - Alzheimer’s
B) FALSE - PSP
C) TRUE
D) FALSE - spinocerebellar ataxia, MS, etc”

76
Q

“27. Best way to treat Parkinson’s disease dementia. What is the best treatment to improve his cognition and ADLs? Stem mentioned person has declining cognition, impairment in ADLs including difficulty with getting dressed (possibly could have been in part due to motor symptoms).
a. Rivastigmine
b. Memantine
c. Pramipexole”

A

“A) Rivastigmine

A) TRUE - inhibits butryl-cholinesterase = good for LBD/PD
B) FALSE. Has evidence, but not as much
C) FALSE”

77
Q

“28. Guy with parkinsons disease. Having depression on “off days” when he is feeling “locked” in his body. When his parkinsons is not “flaring” he isn’t depressed. No other psychiatric symptoms. What is the best treatment?
a. Bupropion
b. Citalopram
c. Pramipexole”

A

“Recall 2019/2020
C) Pramipexole

Stem implies that his depression is secondary to poorly treated motor symptoms, so treating his Parkinson’s would be the answer? I’m assuming he is already on levodopa, so pramipexole is best answer.”

78
Q

“31. Guy with alcohol use disorder. Went through detox recently. Wants a medication to help with sobriety. CrCl 20. GGT 100. ALT 70. No other lab abnormalities.
a. Naltrexone
b. Pregabalin
c. Acamprosate
d. Gabapentin “

A

“A) TRUE - First-line
B) FALSE
C) FALSE - Contraindication in renal impairment
D) FALSE - second-line”

79
Q

“37. What is part of normal development in Down’s syndrome
a. Behaviour was appropriate until age 10 years
b. Social skills are weak
c. Cognition function was normal until age 10 years
d. Early speech is normal “

A

B??

bad question

80
Q

“61. Patient with cannabis use disorder in the pre-contemplative phase, what approach do you use for treatment at this stage?
a) develop discrepancy
b) confront him about his use
c) Explore his relationships and which ones are enabling him
d) Explore triggers to his substance use and ways to plan to avoid them”

A

A

81
Q

“65. Man in CCU who lies in bed naked. When getting nursing care always allows gown or covers to fall off and expose himself. Chart states history of gross indecency. Consulted for treatment suggestion. What would you need to see/know before treatment recommendation?
a. ECG
b. number of victims he exposed himself
c. Ask him if he wants and consents to treatment
d. Testosterone level “

A

C

82
Q

“69. 19 year old female, lives with parents. Went away for university, came back and BMI is now 16. Parents very concerned and brought her to appointment. What is the best treatment option
a) Maudsley family therapy
b) CBT
c) ?psychodynamic”

A

“A) Maudsley family therapy

A) TRUE - best
B) FALSE - CBT is also reasonable, especially if more independent from family
C) FALSE”

83
Q

“72. Person w depression on HCTZ, Warfarin, Propranolol, and Clonazepam. Wants to start Citalopram. What’s the most concerning drug-drug interaction?
a) Prolonged QTc** THIS WOULD BE THE MOST RISK
b) Increased bleeding risk** if drug-drug interactions”

A

“Recall 2019

UPDATE: TR2021 super smart lecturer said answer is C) bleeding.
NOTE: something to think about, if answer choice includes hyponatremia that might be best answer as per Simon Woo (HCTZ and citalopram –> SIADH)

========
old answer

A) QTc prolongation

Lexicomp says ““C”” level (monitoring) for:
- Citalopram + HCTZ (hyponatremia)
- Citalopram + Warfarin (bleeding)

Citalopram blackbox warning for QTc in elderly. Doesn’t seem to be related to the existing medications though…

84
Q

“73. ECT treatment – 8th or so treatment. Seizures getting worse and worse in quality / duration. What to do next?
a) D/c odansetron
b) Add ketamine
c) Increase propofol

A

“A) FALSE - ondansetron suspected to increase seizure threshold, but minimal evidence
B) TRUE - decreases seizure threshold (assuming you also decrease the propofol)
C) FALSE - increases seizure threshold

Managing missed or short seizures — There are several procedures to use for persistent missed or short seizures [2,3,37,38]:
- Decreasing or discontinuing anticonvulsant mood stabilizers and benzodiazepines, if possible.
- Hyperventilating the patient before and during the seizure.
- Decreasing the anesthetic dose to the minimum compatible with full unconsciousness.
- Switching anesthetic to etomidate (0.15 to 0.30 mg/kg IV) or ketamine (1 to 2 mg/kg IV), which are less anticonvulsant than methohexital.
- Intravenous caffeine has been used to prolong seizures, but is no longer recommended because its clinical benefits are uncertain.

85
Q

“74. Guy with PKU, what are his chances of having a kid with PKU?
a) 50%
b) 25%
c) Close to 0%”

A

C

PKU is autosomal recessive

86
Q

“88. Schizophrenia study with 100 participants. PANSS scores taken at baseline. 50 will receive new type of psycho therapy with one practitioner. 50 will receive no psychological treatment. After 6 weeks there is a marked reduction in scores for the treatment group versus the no treatment group. The researcher wants to add this therapy into the guidelines for treating schizophrenia. What was the limitation to this study?

A) Only one provider of the therapy
B) the control group was inadequate
C) N is too small
D) The study design was to short”

A

“Recall 2020
B) No active control intervention = TRUE

A) FALSE - one provider is okay
B) TRUE
C) FALSE - is okay
D) FALSE - nothing wrong with 6 weeks

This is similar to a single arm study. Which is only useful to test to see if something is safe. You should not draw conclusions on efficacy based on this.

Randomized Control Study with adequate levels of blinding is best.
Here the control group does not get any intervention. Hawethorne effect (observership bias) is not being accounted for.

nothing wrong with 6 weeks duration. Same person doing therapy less of a problem.


B-> I don’t think this is a single arm study. There are 2 arms, but the non-experimental arm is not active control.”

87
Q

“92. A 13 year old boy presents with a history of depression and decrease in his academic performance. Over the last several weeks, he has been having difficulties concentrating, and falling due to abnormal jerky in his limbs. There is an acute onset of bilateral horizontal diplopia. There is no history of convulsions or clouded sensorium. On CSF analysis, there is an increase in measles immune globulin G. A negative workup for HIV, Syphillis, Hepatitis B and C are obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Anti-NMDA encephalitis
2. Progressive Supranuclear Palsy
3. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
4. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis”

A

D

88
Q

“98. What finding would you expect to finding on EEG at the onset of an attack of narcolepsy?
1. 5 to 7 Hz spikes
2. Slow alpha waves
3. Low voltage fast waves”

A

“Recall 2017
C) low voltage fast paced waves = TRUE

Narcolepsy is intrustion of REM sleep into wakefulness.
On EEG, cataplexy may look like REM sleep. Sleep attacks?
REM sleep on EEG: low voltage + mixed frequency activity, sawtooth waves, theta activity, slow alpha activity”

89
Q

“101. Suicide in physicians, major factor?
1. Untreated mental illness
2. Substance use
3. Stressful workload”

A

A

90
Q

“102. Patient presents with fever, confusion, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, dry, vision changes. What is best treatment?
1. Physostigmine
2. Dantrolene
3. Cyproheptadine
4. Flumazenil”

A

A–physostigmine

“A) Physostigmine for Anticholinergic toxicity
B) Dantrolene is for NMS
C) cyproheptadine is antihistamine”

91
Q

“103. Patient on codeine and medication for migraine. St. John’s wort might’ve been mentioned. Comes in with serotonin syndrome. What is most likely anti-migraine med?
1. Topiramate
2. Sumatriptan
3. Gabapentin or pregabalin”

A

“B) Sumatriptan = true

Triptan = major 5HT1D agonist (Charbenneau OR2017 p.43), on slide for SS
SJW = direct action on serotonin receptors (CANMAT Dep 2016 p.580 top left)”

92
Q

“110. Man with schizophrenia on Abilify 15mg daily. Psychotic symptoms well controlled on that does. Then becomes depressed and put on Wellbutrin 300. Depressive symptoms respond well, but develops restlessness. What do you do?
1. Stop Wellbutrin
2. Decrease Abilify
3. Add Propanolol
4. Add Cogentin”

A

“Recall 2017
B) Decrease aripiprazole = TRUE

Bupropion is 2D6 inhibitor. Aripiprazole is 2D6 substrate, so blood levels too high. Can reduce dose to achieve therapeutic levels.

A) FALSE. May lose antidepressant effect
B) TRUE
C) FALSE. Easier solution
D) FALSE. Easier solution”

93
Q

“115. You are seeing a 20? year old man in the ED. He had recently gone on a trip by himself to Hawaii to spend some time apart from his vocally critical parents. He had been taking an antidepressant for depression and as he was feeling well, he stopped taking it. ?Drank alcohol while in Hawaii. He returns home a while later on a several hours long flight.
Soon after returning, his parents bring him into the ED concerned about a change in his mental status. He is speaking quickly and jumping around topics. He is talking about being King Kamehameha and being the one responsible for bringing aloha to Hawaii.
What most likely triggered this presentation?
1. High expressed emotions with parents
2. Time zone changes
3. Discontinuing his medication
4. Alcohol use?”

A

“Repeat 2020

B) Time zone change (Jet Lag hypothesis) = best?

A) FALSE. More relevant to schizophrenia.
B) TRUE-est. Time zone change
““Jet lag hypothesis””, going eastward risk factor for poor sleep.
C) FALSE. Opposite, starting you may expect switch.
D) FALSE. Substance use cannot explain in these circumstances. Unknown amount use, no suggestion of use d/o that would involve w/d and sole effect of depressants would not trigger manic episode, and from vignette it appears to be at least a few days prior to switch so doesn’t account as a significant option in this case.