Random stuff Flashcards

1
Q

Which hepatitis types are faeco-oral spread rather than blood?

A

A+E

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2
Q

Which hepatitis is most likely to be asymptomatic?

A

C

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3
Q

Which hepatitis types have vaccines against them?

A

A and B

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4
Q

Hep A and B might cause what syndrome?

A

Immunological- rash, fever, polyarthritis, rarely glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

Rarely, hepatitis is caused by which viruses?

A

CMV, EBV, HSV

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6
Q

What can you give in Hep C to prevent it becoming chronic?

A

Interferon

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7
Q

Which types of hepatitis do not develop into chronic infection?

A

A and E

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8
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated hepatitis?

A

Symptomatic

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9
Q

What is a marker of acute Hep B infection

A

Surface antigen

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10
Q

What does an IgG core hep b antibody show?

A

Past infection

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11
Q

What does an IgM core hep b antibody show?

A

Acute infection

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12
Q

What is a marker of being vaccinated against hep b?

A

Surface antibody

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13
Q

What is a marker of being infectious with hep b?

A

HbeAg infectivity marker

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14
Q

Which drugs are metabolised by the p450 system?

A
Carbamezapine
OCP
Warfarin
Phenytoin
Theophyline
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15
Q

Which drugs induce the p450 system?

A
Carbamezapine
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas and St John's Wort
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16
Q

Which drugs inhibit the P450 system?

A
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol (binge)
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole, Miconazole
Grapefruit and Cranberry juice
Clarithromycin
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17
Q

What is isoniazid?

A

Antibiotic used for TB

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18
Q

What is cimetidine?

A

H2 antagonist (like ranitidine)

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19
Q

What is chloramphenicol?

A

Antibiotic eye drop

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20
Q

What are sulphonamides?

A

Antimicrobials that start with ‘sulf-‘
Diuretics that end in ‘-amide’/-‘emide’
Anticonvulsants
Antiretrovirals

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21
Q

What drugs do you give for secondary prevention following an MI?

A
Aspirin 75mg OD
Clopidogrel 75mg OD
Beta blocker – Bisoprolol 10mg OD
ACE Inhibitor – Ramipril 10mg OD
Statin – Atorvastatin 80mg OD
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22
Q

What is a side effect of amlodipine?

A

Swollen ankles

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23
Q

Where in the body are lipophilic drugs distributed?

A

Whole body

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24
Q

Where in the body are hydrophilic drugs distributed?

A

Stay in plasma

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25
Which of lipophilic and hydrophilic drugs need to be metabolised before excretion?
Lipophilic only, they are metabolised into a hydrophilic substance
26
Where does metabolism of lipophilic drugs occur?
Liver
27
What are the stages of lipophilic drug metabolism?
Phase I- oxidation/reduction/hydrolysis Phase II- conjugation with glucuronide/sulphate → hydrophilic drug.
28
How are hydrophilic drugs metabolised?
Unchanged
29
When lipophilic drugs have been metabolised into hydrophilic drugs, where are they excreted?
Kidneys, gall bladder
30
Some lipophilic drugs are metabolised into active metabolites e.g. opioids. When might this be a problem?
Accumulate in renal failure
31
What is 'steady state' of a drug?
When you give several doses, the plasma conc rises and falls but doesn't fall back to 0 so a small increase with every dose. Steady state is when it is in equilibrium with its elimination. Normally 4 to 5 times the drug's half-life. So may need a loading dose.
32
What is meant by the prescribing cascade?
When a medication is given to counteract the side-effects of another medication
33
What can drug reactions be sub-divided into?
ABCDE: A- predictable from the way the drug works B- bizzare- cannot be predicted from how the drug works C- chronic- only after long term use D- delayed- years later E- end of treatment effects e.g. withdrawal
34
Can you give augmentin in penicillin allergy?
No- it is co-amoxiclav which contains amoxicillin
35
Can you give ceftriaxone in penicillin allergy?
With caution- it is a cephalosporin which 10% are also allergic to
36
Can you give Magnapen in penicillin allergy?
No it is aka co-fluampicil
37
Can you give tazocin in penicillin allergy?
No
38
Can you give Selexid in penicillin allergy?
No it is pivmecillinam
39
Can you give Timentin in penicillin allergy?
No
40
Can you give co-amoxiclav in penicillin allergy?
No
41
Can you give meropenem in penicillin allergy?
With caution- it is a carbapenem which 10% are also allergic to
42
Can you give aztreoman or other monobactams in penicillin allergy?
With caution 10% are also allergic
43
Can you give co-fluampicil in penicillin allergy?
No
44
For staph aureus you give which antibiotic?
Flucloxacillin
45
For strep pyogenes you give which antibiotic?
Benzylpenicillin
46
For gram -ve you give which antibiotic?
Cephalosporins (not in elderly though)
47
For anaerobes you give which antibiotic?
Metronidazole
48
For gram +ve (e.g. MRSA) you give which antibiotic?
Vancomycin
49
UTI normally caused by which bacteria?
Gram -ve rods | Enterococci
50
UTI antibiotics?
Trimethoprim Nitrofurantoin (lower UTI only) Pivmecillinam (lower only)
51
Bacteria causing sinusitis?
Mixed- strep pneumoniae, staph aureus, H. Influenzae
52
Abx for severe/prolonged sinusitis?
Amoxicillin | Clarithromycin
53
Bacteria causing CAP?
Strep pneumoniae
54
Antibiotics for CAP?
Co-amox and clarithromycin | or levofloxacin
55
Causative organism of HAP?
Enterobacteriaceae
56
Causative organism VAP?
Pseudomonas ssp
57
Aspiration pneumonia causative organism
Anaerobes
58
Endocarditis pathogen?
Strep (esp strep viridans) | Staph aureus
59
Endocarditis additional pathogen in prosthetic valve?
Coagulase negative staph
60
what is duke's criteria used in?
Infective endocarditis diagnosis
61
What bloods do you do in endocarditis?
3x blood cultures separated in time over 24hrs
62
Antibiotics for endocarditis?
Vancomycin + rifampicin + ciprofloxacin (native) or gentamicin (prosthetic)
63
Causative organisms of surgical site infection?
Staph aureus | Group A beta-haemolytic strep (strep pyogenes)
64
Trimethoprim should be avoided in...
first trimester of pregnancy
65
Trimethoprim interferes with ____ _____ synthesis
Folic acid
66
Strep pneumoniae is a.....?
alpha haemolytic streptococcus (gram +ve)
67
Strep pyogenes is a?
Group A beta haemolytic strep (gram +ve)
68
Staph aureus is a?
Coagulase positive staphylococcus (gram +ve)
69
Staph epidermis is a?
Coagulase negative staphylococcus (gram +ve)
70
are coagulase negative staphs problematic?
Only with prostheses
71
Clostridium ssp. are?
Spore forming gram positive bacilli
72
Listeria ssp are?
Non-spore forming gram positive bacilli
73
Are mycobacteria gram positive or negative?
Weakly positive, but better to use an acid fast stain
74
What are enterococci?
Streptococci (gram positive catalase negative cocci)
75
What is neisseria meningitidis?
Gram negative (diplo)coccus
76
What is haemophilus ssp?
Gram negative cocco-bacillus
77
What are enterobactericaea?
Gram negative bacillus
78
what is coombs test for?
Haemolytic anaemia
79
SACDC is caused by?
B12 deficiency
80
Which type of lymphoma might present with a single enlarged lymph node?
Hodgkins
81
What organomegaly is present in lymphoma?
Hepatomegaly | Splenomegaly
82
Ramsey Hunt is
Bells palsy plus ear symptoms
83
Ramsey Hunt is caused by
VZV