Radio Aids and Flight Planning 2 Flashcards
Without RAIM capability, the pilot of a non-WAAS GPS-equipped aircraft:
A) May still navigate IFR for enroute and terminal operations and even fly GPS approaches if the CDI display sensitivity can be manually changed.
B) Can execute a GPS stand-alone approach if a DME source is available for position updating at the destination airport.
C) Is permitted to continue using GPS as the primary navigation source for IFR flight as long as a baro-input from the aircrafts altitude encoder is continuously available.
D) Will have no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
D) Will have no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position.
TSO 129(a)-compliant GPS avionics must be capable of automatically increasing the CDI display sensitivity as an aircraft moves closer to the airport during a GPS approach. This “stepping up” or “tightening” of CDI sensitivity provides for the greater tracking accuracy required during the terminal and approach phases. From the following statements regarding GPS avionics operation during an approach, select those which are correct:
1) When the aircraft reaches 30NM or less from the destination and an approach for that airport has been loaded into the flight plan, the CDI sensitivity automatically changes from +/- 5NM to the terminal value of +/- 1NM (full scale deflection).
2) Manually setting the CDI display sensitivity automatically changes the RAIM sensitivity on all IFR certified GPS avionics.
3) At a distance of 2NM inbound to the final approach fix waypoint the CDI display sensitivity begins to transition to the approach value of +/- 0.3NM and will have achieved this extra sensitivity by the time the aircraft passes the FAF waypoint.
4) When the aircraft arrives at the missed approach waypoint, waypoint sequencing for the missed approach segment is always automatic and directs the pilot to fly the missed approach holding waypoint.
5) As the aircraft starts to fly the missed approach segment the CDI display sensitivity reverts to the enroute value of +/- 5NM.
6) If RAIM is not available when crossing the final approach fix waypoint, the pilot must execute the missed approach procedure.
A) 2, 3, 5.
B) 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 3, 6.
D) 4, 5, 6.
C) 1, 3, 6.
From the following statements that relate to the RAIM component of a TSO C-129 compliant GPS receiver, select the one which is correct:
A) RAIM is able to predict the scheduled removal of satellites from service as well as being able to predict satellite failure.
B) If RAIM is not available prior to crossing the final approach waypoint during an approach, the GPS receiver will not go into the approach “ACTIVE” mode.
C) RAIM function requires continuous input from ground based NAVAIDs or facilities.
D) The RAIM alert level will automatically change when a pilot manually sets the CDI scale factor (or sensitivity) on any TSO C-129 receiver.
B) If RAIM is not available prior to crossing the final approach waypoint during an approach, the GPS receiver will not go into the approach “ACTIVE” mode.
WAAS-corrected GPS signals offer approximately 5 times greater position accuracy than basic or uncorrected GPS signals. Another true statement related to the use of this satellite based augmentation would be:
A) The database of WAAS enabled GPS receivers are compatible with those of earlier non-WAAS receivers.
B) WAAS-capable GPS receivers use differential correction signals to improve the accuracy of the position solutions but still rely on RAIM function to provide integrity.
C) WAAS geo satellites provide a ranging signal which improves availability.
D) WAAS-capable receivers are able to predict the availability of LPV approaches at destination airports.
C) WAAS geo satellites provide a ranging signal which improves availability.
The statements that follow relate to GPS stand-alone approaches. Identify those that are correct.
1) Stand-alone approach design is usually based on a “T” pattern of waypoints which eliminates the need for a procedure turn.
2) GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “RNAV(GNSS) RWY XX”.
3) Pilot verification of GPS stand-alone approach waypoints is not required if they have been retrieved from a current data base supplied by a Transport Canada Approved vendor.
4) GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “(GNSS)” which appears following the runway identification.
5) Stand-alone approach waypoints retrieved from a current database and inserted into the active flight plan may be deleted and replaced by manually entering the new coordinates for pilot defined waypoints that facilitate direct routings to the FAF.
6) General Aviation pilots do not require a special license endorsement to qualify them to conduct GPS stand-alone approaches.
A) 1, 2, 6.
B) 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 6.
D) 1, 3, 4.
A) 1, 2, 6.
Prior to commencing a GPS-based approach, pilots using TSO C129/129(a) avionics should:
A) Ensure that ATC approval has been received to descend to the equivalent of CAT1 ILS minima.
B) Determine that the avionics will present all of the approach waypoints as flyover waypoints.
C) Ensure that the CDI sensitivity is operating in the terminal mode if conducting an overlay approach.
D) Use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach level RAIM will be supported for the ETA (+/- 15min).
D) Use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach level RAIM will be supported for the ETA (+/- 15min).
When using a WAAS certified GPS (TSO C146a) and planning a GPS approach at the alternate, is the pilot required to manually perform a RAIM check in flight?
A) Yes, as well as prior to flight.
B) Yes, periodically during the flight and at least once prior to the mid-point of the flight to destination.
C) No, a WAAS-certified GPS will complete a RAIM check and self test automatically.
D) No, unless there is a WAAS NOTAM predicting a satellite outage at the destination.
C) No, a WAAS-certified GPS will complete a RAIM check and self test automatically.
A WAAS NOTAM predicts that approach level RAIM will not be available at your destination. Upon arrival at the aerodrome during the period covered by the NOTAM, you note that published approach level RAIM is available. What are your options for the approach?
A) You may not use any GPS-based approaches as a result of the published NOTAM.
B) You may fly a GPS-based approach at the airport, but only to LNAV minima.
C) You are safely able to use a GPS-based approach.
D) You may only proceed with available GPS overlay approaches and must monitor the underlying NAVAID.
C) You are safely able to use a GPS-based approach.
What requirements must be met if a GNSS approach is planned at both the destination and the alternate aerodrome?
A) The destination and alternate aerodromes are separated by at lease 75NM when both are located in Nunavut, or north of 56 degrees N latitude in Quebec and Labrador.
B) The pilot must use the alternate minima requirements for “No IFR Approach Available”.
C) A GNSS approach cannot be planned at both the destination and the alternate - one aerodrome must have as approach based on traditional NAVAIDs.
D) An additional RAIM check must be completed prior to beginning the descent for the destination.
A) The destination and alternate aerodromes are separated by at lease 75NM when both are located in Nunavut, or north of 56 degrees N latitude in Quebec and Labrador.
Do cold temperatures have any effect on a Constant Descent Angle style on non-precision approach?
A) Yes, the approach is steeper in cold temperatures due to a smaller altimeter error over the FAF than at the MDA.
B) No, as long as the appropriate cold temperature corrections are made, there will be no effect on the descent angle.
C) Yes, the approach is shallower in cold temperatures due to a larger altimeter error over the FAF than at the MDA.
D) No, cold temperature corrections are not required when using this descent method because the descent angle does not vary with temperature.
C) Yes, the approach is shallower in cold temperatures due to a larger altimeter error over the FAF than at the MDA.
Pick the correct statements with reference to 406MHz ELTs:
1) 406MHz ELTs provide position information accurate within a radius of about 2-5km.
2) 406MHz is an exclusive, dedicated frequency that cannot be activated by any other type of equipment.
3) 406MHz ELTs can be tested for a maximum of 5 seconds within the first 5 minutes of every hour just like the 121.5MHz ELTs.
4) One drawback of 406MHz ELTs is that there are a higher number of false alerts.
5) Users of 406MHz ELTs should listen on 406MHz prior to flight to ensure that the ELT is not transmitting.
6) An alert will be sent to the Joint Rescue Coordination Centre only after the switch on the 406MHz ELT has been selected to the “ON” position for more than 50 seconds.
A) 1, 3, 6.
B) 1, 2, 6.
C) 2, 3, 5.
D) 2, 4, 6.
B) 1, 2, 6.
With regards to Primary (PSR) and Secondary (SSR) Surveillance Radar, which statement is true?
A) PSR requires the aircraft to be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
B) SSR requires the aircraft to be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
C) PSR does not require a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
D) SSR does not require a transponder and is incapable of detecting weather.
C) PSR does not require a transponder and is capable of detecting weather.
A pilot forgets to set 29.92” from 30.22” climbing through FL180 to FL220. After levelling at his assigned altitude, the pilot realizes the problem and then sets 29.92 on the altimeter subscale. What indications would be seen by the ATS controller monitoring the aircrafts altitude readout?
A) An immediate indication of 300 ft loss.
B) Nothing, because the subscale is not geared to the encoding altitude readout.
C) An immediate indication on 300 ft altitude gain.
D) No noticeable indication provided the subscale is moved very slowly.
B) Nothing, because the subscale is not geared to the encoding altitude readout.
Which of the following is true with respect to airborne weather radar?
A) Drop size determines radar echo intensity to a much greater extent than does drop number.
B) Cloud that is visible to the naked eye will always be displayed on the indicator.
C) Drops of frozen precipitation provide stronger radar returns than do drops of liquid precipitation.
D) The intensity of radar echoes depends solely upon the number of drops of frozen precipitation present per unit volume of storm cell cloud.
A) Drop size determines radar echo intensity to a much greater extent than does drop number.
Two characteristic weather radar scope patterns known as “hooks” and “fingers” identify areas of:
A) Lightning and heavy static discharge.
B) Moderate to heavy icing in cloud.
C) Convergent air flow and ice crystal formation.
D) Hail and turbulence.
D) Hail and turbulence.
