Human Factors

Question 1

Oxygen is transported by the circulating blood to the tissue of the body combined with which of the following carrier molecules:

A) Gamma globulin.
B) Activated blood platelets.
C) Hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
D) Fibrinogen.

Answer 1

C) Hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.

Question 2

Hypoxia may be defined as:

A) A deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the bodily tissue.
B) An excessive accumulation of carbon monoxide in bodily tissue.
C) A type of neuromuscular irritability due to excess carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) An abnormally low level of carbon dioxide in the blood.

Answer 2

A) A deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the bodily tissue.

Question 3

Some of the subjective symptoms of hypoxia might be:

A) Combative behavior, loss of hearing, delirium.
B) Apprehension, headache, euphoria.
C) Slight nausea, ringing in the ears, laryngeal edema.
D) Vertigo, itching, gastrointestinal pain.

Answer 3

B) Apprehension, headache, euphoria.

Question 4

The duration of useful consciousness at 40,000 feet is:

A) 5-12 seconds.
B) 15-30 seconds.
C) 30-45 seconds.
D) 40 to 55 seconds.

Answer 4

B) 15-30 seconds.

Question 5

What would be the duration of useful consciousness for a person at 30,000 feet following a rapid depressurization?

A) 8-13 seconds.
B) 15-30 seconds.
C) 45-75 seconds.
D) 40-55 seconds.

Answer 5

C) 45-75 seconds.

Question 6

Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to hyperventilation?

A) Hyperventilation symptoms always develop very rapidly.
B) It is an abnormal increase in the rate of deep breathing.
C) It results in an abnormally low level of carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) There are very few distinguishable differences between the signs and symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia.

Answer 6

A) Hyperventilation symptoms always develop very rapidly.

Question 7

A condition characterized by a variety of symptoms resulting from exposure to low barometric pressures that cause inert gases (mainly nitrogen) to come out of solution and form bubble in body tissues and fluids is known as:

A) Denitrogenation disorder.
B) Hypobaric syndrome.
C) Pulmonary syndrome.
D) Decompression sickness.

Answer 7

D) Decompression sickness.

Question 8

A potentially very dangerous condition due to nitrogen bubbles present in the smaller blood vessels of the lungs and in the tissue of the trachea is:

A) Parasthesia.
B) The bends.
C) The chokes.
D) Pulmonary stenosis.

Answer 8

C) The chokes.

Question 9

Carbon Monoxide is:

A) A highly toxic pungent gas that is often produced by faulty hot water heaters.
B) A constituent of the natural gas molecule.
C) A highly toxic, odorless gas that is a product of incomplete fuel combustion.
D) A flammable, odorless, toxic gas released by aircraft batteries during charging.

Answer 9

C) A highly toxic, odorless gas that is a product of incomplete fuel combustion.

Question 10

From the statements listed below concerning the physiological aspects of exposure to carbon monoxide, select those which are true:

1) The binding affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is about 210 times that of oxygen.
2) The symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning can be easily recognized.
3) The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is reduced in heavy smokers.
4) Severe carbon monoxide poisoning can be very quickly cured once the source of gas is removed and fresh air is breathed.
5) Heavy smokers may become hypoxic at altitudes below 10,000 feet ASL.

A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 4, 5

Answer 10

B) 1, 3, 5.

Question 11

An initial symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning would be:

A) Euphoria.
B) Rapid, shallow respiration.
C) Tingling of the extremities.
D) Blurred thinking.

Answer 11

D) Blurred thinking.

Question 12

The four areas of the body that are most sensitive to the mechanical effect of trapped gas are the:

A) Joints, paricardial sac, inner ear, cerebral ventricles.
B) Outer ear, pleural cavity, subdural space, eye sockets.
C) Middle ear, sinuses, teeth, gastrointestinal tract.
D) Spinal cord, outer ear, medulla, pleural cavity.

Answer 12

C) Middle ear, sinuses, teeth, gastrointestinal tract.

Question 13

The pilot of an aircraft climbing to an assigned altitude experiences a “popping” sensation within the ears. He/she should be aware that:

A) This is a normal occurrence and is due to air escaping through the Eustachian tubes into the back of the throat.
B) This sensation can indicate a severe sinus infection that requires medical attention.
C) Air is trying to enter the inner ear and is causing the fluid to pulsate in the semicircular canals.
D) Outside ambient air pressure is forcing the eardrum to push inward against trapped air bubbles which subsequently burst.

Answer 13

A) This is a normal occurrence and is due to air escaping through the Eustachian tubes into the back of the throat.

Question 14

The primary focusing element of the human eye (ie. that structure through which most of the light refraction occurs) is the:

A) Pupil.
B) Optic disk.
C) Lens.
D) Cornea.

Answer 14

D) Cornea.

Question 15

The two types of photoreceptor cells in the retina of the eye are known as rods and cones. the rods:

A) Are responsible for daylight vision as well as for all high resolution vision.
B) Are less numerous and less sensitive than the cones.
C) Are very sensitive to color.
D) Are responsible for night vision.

Answer 15

D) Are responsible for night vision.

Question 16

Any flight crew member donating blood should not fly:

A) Until he/she has consulted with a physician.
B) Until he/she has consulted with a Regional Aviation Medical Officer.
C) For at least 48 hours.
D) For at least 8 hours.

Answer 16

C) For at least 48 hours.

Question 17

Alcohol consumption, even in small quantities, can:

A) Result in enhanced cognitive ability.
B) Increase the susceptibility of an individual to hypoxia.
C) Drastically lower a persons blood pressure.
D) Temporarily improve short term memory.

Answer 17

B) Increase the susceptibility of an individual to hypoxia.

Question 18

With reference to reducing the alcohol content in an individuals bloodstream, you should know that:

A) The rate at which alcohol leaves the blood due to metabolic processes in the liver is always much faster in a person who is a frequent consumer.
B) Such a reduction can only be attained over the passage of time.
C) Alcohol removal from the blood can be accelerated by taking an analgesic such as acetaminophen or ASA (acetylsalicylic acid).
D) Drinking strong black coffee, breathing 100% oxygen or taking a cold shower are effective ways of speeding up the rate of alcohol metabolism or removal.

Answer 18

B) Such a reduction can only be attained over the passage of time.

Question 19

A very insidious illusion known as the “Black Hole Illusion” can be experienced by pilots while on approach at night over dark terrain with no lights below or to the sides of the approach path, and with only the distant airport runway lights to provide visual stimuli. This illusion induces a false perception of aircraft altitude and results in the pilot flying the approach:

A) Too high.
B) Not aligned with the runway centerline and below VREF.
C) Too low.
D) At a speed that is well above VREF.

Answer 19

C) Too low.

Question 20

While holding on a taxiway, an aircraft that was holding next to you with its wing tip in line with yours, edges forward to proceed to the active runway. Your brain interprets this peripheral visual information as though you were moving backwards and caused you to apply additional brake pressure. The illusion that you have just experienced is known as the:

A) Autokinetic illusion.
B) False visual reference illusion.
C) Vection illusion.
D) Coriolis illusion.

Answer 20

C) Vection illusion.

Question 21

During the transition from instrument to visual reference, the pilot of an aircraft on a night approach to a light, downslope runway is likely to develop the illusion of being:

A) High, resulting in a dangerously low approach.
B) Low, causing the aircraft to cross the threshold low and slow.
C) High, resulting in an abnormally high rate of descent close to the threshold.
D) Low, causing the aircraft to cross the threshold high and fast.

Answer 21

D) Low, causing the aircraft to cross the threshold high and fast.

Question 22

Rain on an aircrafts windscreen may cause a runway to appear:

A) Farther away and higher.
B) Closer and lower.
C) Farther away and lower.
D) Closer and higher.

Answer 22

B) Closer and lower.

Question 23

Shortly after commencing a missed approach you enter cloud, what sensations are you likely to have?

A) A normal climb.
B) A high nose attitude thus having the tendency of lowering the nose.
C) A descent thus having the tendency of raising the nose.
D) No sensation at all.

Answer 23

B) A high nose attitude thus having the tendency of lowering the nose.

Question 24

You are on an instrument approach at night. During the transition phase to a lighted up slope runway there is the possible illusion of_____when there is rain on the windscreen.

A) Being too low and thus decreasing the rate of descent.
B) Being very low and thus increasing the rate of descent.
C) Being very high and thus increasing the rate of descent.
D) Being too high and thus decreasing the rate of descent.

Answer 24

C) Being very high and thus increasing the rate of descent.

Question 25

You are flying a low altitude on a downwind with a strong tailwind. What illusion will be sensed as you enter the base turn?

A) Aircraft slipping, airspeed decreasing.
B) Aircraft skidding, airspeed increasing.
C) Aircraft skidding, airspeed decreasing.
D) Aircraft slipping, airspeed increasing.

Answer 25

C) Aircraft skidding, airspeed decreasing.

Question 26

It is known that improper seat height adjustment has been responsible for a number of specific landing problems and accidents. A pilot seat that has been adjusted to a height position that is too low would most likely:

A) Adversely affect a pilots instrument scan technique.
B) Result in an undetected undershoot during a visual approach.
C) Cause the pilot to fly a visual approach at a too low a speed.
D) Result is an undetected overshoot during a visual approach.

Answer 26

B) Result in an undetected undershoot during a visual approach.

Question 27

Consider a scenario where a VFR pilot with limited experience encounters deteriorating weather conditions during a cross country flight and decides to press on. In this case, which of the following statements would best describe this pilots decision making behavior?

A) A person will tend to react only to information that confirms that his/her decision was right and to discount or ignore other subsequent information that doesn’t support that decision.
B) False assumptions once made can still easily be changed.
C) A persons subconscious will tend to focus on unfavorable incoming information during times of stress.
D) It is very difficult to shape new information to support personal preferences.

Answer 27

A) A person will tend to react only to information that confirms that his/her decision was right and to discount or ignore other subsequent information that doesn’t support that decision.

Question 28

CFIT (Controlled Flight Into Terrain) continues to pose a major threat to the safety of aircraft passengers and crew worldwide. The definition of a CFIT accident is an event which:

A) An aircraft impacts the ground, water, or an obstacle during the approach and landing phase of flight.
B) An aircraft is inadvertently flown into the ground, water, or an obstacle while the crew was involved with an in-flight emergency.
C) An airworthy and normally functioning aircraft is inadvertently flown into the ground, water or an obstacle with no prior awareness by the crew.
D) An aircraft that was mechanically sound is inadvertently flown into the terrain while the crew was following erroneous navigation signals from ground based navigation aids or was receiving radar vectors from ATC.

Answer 28

C) An airworthy and normally functioning aircraft is inadvertently flown into the ground, water or an obstacle with no prior awareness by the crew.

Question 29

Which of the following statements is true with regards to the causes and prevention of CFIT accidents?

A) Loss of situational awareness is a major contributing factor.
B) A stabilized final approach is recognized as an aid in preventing CFIT accidents.
C) Knowledge of IFR and VFR weather minima is essential.
D) All of the above.

Answer 29

D) All of the above.

Question 30

Under the threat and error management model a threat may be defined as:

A) An incorrect action taken by the flight crew.
B) An event or error that occurs beyond the influence of the flight crew.
C) A security event.
D) The result of an error by the flight crew.

Answer 30

B) An event or error that occurs beyond the influence of the flight crew.

Question 31

Identify the threat in the following sequence of events:

A) A crew is fatigued due to a delay caused by unforecast adverse weather at their departure point.
B) The crew forget to obtain an updated ATIS and program the FMS for the wrong runway.
C) The crew are high on the arrival due to the wrong programming.
D) The approach is unstable and the crew elect to go around.

Answer 31

A) A crew is fatigued due to a delay caused by unforecast adverse weather at their departure point.

Question 32

You are awaiting takeoff clearance when you observe a heavy aircraft carry out a missed approach at 100’ on the active runway. You are cleared for immediate takeoff by ATC. You should.

A) Proceed to takeoff as cleared.
B) Ignore the clearance.
C) Refuse the clearance and advise ATC of the reason why.
D) Slowly taxi to position in the hope that wake vortices will dissipate quickly.

Answer 32

C) Refuse the clearance and advise ATC of the reason why.

Question 33

If a pilot has a good overall mental picture of what is going on during a flight, he/she has:

A) A positive attitude.
B) Good situational awareness.
C) Good CRM.
D) The right stuff.

Answer 33

B) Good situational awareness.

Question 34

The best way for a pilot to assess his/her level of fatigue is:

A) To ask crew scheduling.
B) Self assessment using a fatigue prediction model.
C) Count the number of time zones from origin to destination.
D) All of the above.

Answer 34

B) Self assessment using a fatigue prediction model.

Question 35

Jet lag may be described as:

A) A pilot who is always “behind” the aircraft.
B) The time taken for a jet engine to spool up.
C) Interruption of circadian rhythm making it hard to sleep when required, and to stay awake later when needed.
D) Exhaustion.

Answer 35

C) Interruption of circadian rhythm making it hard to sleep when required, and to stay awake later when needed.

Question 36

Which of the following are effects of fatigue that have been observed in pilots:

A) Poor performance of tasks.
B) Poor Judgement.
C) Diminished decision making skills.
D) All of the above.

Answer 36

D) All of the above.

Question 37

Use of charts, checklists and manuals is:

A) To be avoided.
B) A fundamental part of modern airline SOP’s.
C) Outdated.
D) None of the above.

Answer 37

B) A fundamental part of modern airline SOP’s.

Question 38

Management of risks in airline operations is an important part of:

A) Performance engineering.
B) Maintenance operational control.
C) The safety Management System.
D) Load control.

Answer 38

C) The safety Management System.

Question 39

A fundamental component of the Safety Management System is:

A) Ensuring that blame is correctly placed.
B) Allowing managers to avoid responsibility.
C) Encouraging the reporting of incidents and safety concerns.
D) All of the above.

Answer 39

C) Encouraging the reporting of incidents and safety concerns.