Canadian Aviation Regulations 1 Flashcards by Corey Robb

A 41 year old airline transport pilot can maintain a Category 1 Medical Certificate by having:

A) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.
B) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 years.
C) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated.
D) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.

D) a medical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.

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A 43 year old pilot flying single pilot VFR in a commercial operation can maintain a category 1 medical certificate by having:

A) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required.

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What privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose Category 1 Medical Certificate expires?

A) Commercial Pilot privileges.
B) Private Pilot privileges.
C) All flying privileges will be immediately suspended.
D) Recreational Pilot privileges.

B) Private Pilot privileges.

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The minimum number of hours of instrument flying experience that must have been acquired by an applicant for the Airline Transport Licence is?

A) 25 hours.
B) 100 hours.
C) 75 hours.
D) 50 hours.

C) 75 hours.

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When the group 1 instrument Rating of an ATPL pilot expires, what licence privileges may then be exercised by that individual?

A) Prívate Pilot privileges.
B) ATPL Pilot privileges restricted to daytime VFR operations.
C) Student Pilot privileges since the ATPL certificate would be revoked.
D) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement.

D) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement.

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A LARGE aircraft is a term used to describe which of the following?

A) An aircraft with a maximum verified takeoff weight of more than 5,700KG or 12,566LBS.
B) A turbine engines aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of more than 44,000LBS.
C) An aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of 15,000KG (33,069LBS) or more.
D) An aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff weight of 50,000LBS or more.

A) An aircraft with a maximum verified takeoff weight of more than 5,700KG or 12,566LBS.

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Which of the following would require the PIC to file a mandatory reportable incident with the Transportation Safety Board?

A) An airport employee sustains serious injury as a result of being directly exposed to jet blast.
B) An unresponsive passenger due to a medical condition requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.
C) An aircraft that sustains damage that affects the structural strength of the aircraft.
D) A shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.

D) A shortage of fuel requiring approach and landing priority at the destination.

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How soon after an aircraft accident should the relevant information pertaining to its occurrence be reported to the Transportation Safety Board of Canada?

A) Within 7 days and by registered mail.
B) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available.
C) Within 10 days and by telephone.
D) Within 24 hours and either by telephone or email.

B) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available.

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Any aircraft that has been involved in an accident causing death or injury may not be moved or interfered with in any way in order to_________ without first obtaining permission from the minister. The missing words are?

A) remove the Aircraft Journey Log.
B) avoid danger to any person or property.
C) extricate and person.
D) prevent destruction by fire.

A) remove the Aircraft Journey Log.

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Pilots of IFR aircraft operating within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply Mode A, Code:

A) 1000 and on Mode C.
B) 1500 and on Mode C.
C) 2000 and on Mode C.
D) 3000 and on Mode C.

C) 2000 and on Mode C.

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In a climb to a cruise altitude above 12,500 feet ASL on a VFR flight, what code(s) would a pilot set on his/her transponder?

A) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12,500 feet ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude.
B) 1000 until the aircraft climbs above 12,500 feet ASL and then to code 2000.
C) 1200 until the aircraft has reached its cruising altitude and then to code 1400.
D) 1200 until the aircraft reaches 12,500 feet ASL and then to code 1000 for operation above that altitude.

A) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12,500 feet ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude.

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An aircraft that had been using code 7500 on a transponder subsequently changes to code 7700. This sequence of transponder operation would indicate that:

A) The aircraft had developed an unrelated emergency following the unlawful interference.
B) The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.
C) The aircraft is unable to transmit any ETA’s and changes to planned destination following unlawful interference.
D) The pilot is making every effort to inform ATC of how serious this highjack situation is by using this code sequence to activate their radar monitoring alarm systems.

B) The aircraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

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A servicable transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within:

A) The canadian high level airspace.
B) All class A, B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace.
C) Any controlled low level airspace above 9,500 feet ASL.
D) All class B, C and D airspace and within any restriced airspace.

B) All class A, B and C airspace as well as within any class D or E airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace.

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As a measure of safety, a pilot should adjust the aircraft transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, plus Mode C (if available) for which of the following occasions.

A) A VFR flight along a low level airway above 12,500 feet ASL.
B) An IFR flight that is operating at FL180 or above and for which ATC has not assigned a transponder code.
C) A VFR flight that is operating within the Canadian ADIZ.
D) An IFR flight along a low level Air Route.

D) An IFR flight along a low level Air Route.

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Determination of the appropriate altitude for cruising flight in the Northern Domestic Airspace is based on the aircrafts:

A) Magnetin Heading.
B) True Heading.
C) Magnetic Track.
D) True Track.

D) True Track.

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Reduced Vertical Seperation Minimum (RVSM) is the application 1,000 ft vertical separation at and above FL290 between RVSM certified aircraft operating within designated RVSM airspace. RVSM and RVSM transition airspace is defined as controlled airspace extending from:

A) FL290 to FL330 for RVSM transition airspace and FL330 to FL420 RVSM airspace.
B) FL290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.
C) FL230 to FL410 for RVSM transition airspace and FL270 to FL410 RVSM airspace.
D) FL230 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.

B) FL290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace.

Prior to entering RVSM airspace pilots are required to ensure which of the following equipment is functioning normally?

A) Two seperate and independent altimeter systems.
B) One autopilot with an altitude hold function.
C) One altitude alerting device.
D) All of the above.

D) All of the above.

RVSM certified aircraft that intend to fly along a high level airway between FL290 and FL410 inclusive and with a published track of 265°M should be operated at:

A) Odd flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals.
B) Even flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals.
C) Odd flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.
D) Even flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.

D) Even flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals.

The next three RVSM flight levels immediatelly above FL290 that would be appropriate for the operation of an RVSM certified aircraft whose track is 180°M would be:

A) FL300, FL310, FL320.
B) FL330, FL370, FL410.
C) FL300, FL320, FL340.
D) FL310, FL330, FL350.

C) FL300, FL320, FL340.

During climbs and descents in RVSM airspace flight crews should not overshoot or undershoot assigned flight levels by more than:

A) 50 ft.
B) 150 ft.
C) 200 ft.
D) 3000 ft.

B) 150 ft.

When ATC has temporarily suspended RVSM within selected non-radar coverage areas due to adverse weather conditions, controllers will then provide ______feet vertical separation for opposite direction traffic and _____feet vertical separation for same direction traffic. The missing numbers are, respectively:

A) 1,000 ft; 2,000 ft.
B) 2,000 ft; 2,000 ft.
C) 2,000 ft; 4,000 ft.
D) 4,000 ft; 2,000 ft.

C) 2,000 ft; 4,000 ft.

The base of the Arctic Control Area is:

A) FL330.
B) FL290.
C) FL270.
D) FL230.

C) FL270.

IFR flight only is permitted for aircraft that wish to operate within the Northern Control Area from:

A) FL230 and above.
B) FL230 to FL600 inclusive.
C) FL250 and above.
D) FL270 to FL600 inclusive.

A) FL230 and above.

What airspace would a northbound aircraft flying at FL260 enter immediately after departing the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area.

A) The Arctic Control Area.
B) Uncontrolled High Level airspace.
C) The Northern Control Area.
D) Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace,

C) The Northern Control Area.

Consider an aircraft flying at FL190 that has just exited the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area northbound. If the pilot now wishes to climb and maintain FL220, he/she should: A) Request the desired flight level change from ATC. B) Broadcast the intended change in 122.8 MHz and then make the change. C) Inform the nearest FIC of the intended change and then climb to FL220. D) Broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MHz and then make the change.

D) Broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MHz and then make the change.

In order to increase a VHF/UHF airway’s basic width of _____NM, _____degree splay (diverging) lines are projected from either side of the airway centreline and intersect the basic airway width boundary at a distance of _____NM from the navigation facility. The missing number are, respectively: A) 4; 5; 50.8. B) 8; 4.5; 50.8. C) 8.68; 5; 49.66. D) 4; 4.5; 49.66.

B) 8; 4.5; 50.8.

With reference to T-Routes, select the statement below that is false: A) They are low level controlled fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area 8NM wide. B) They are low level fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area of 6NM each side of the centre line. C) The airspace associated with these routes is 10NM on each side of the centre line. D) RNAV-T route airspace and protection areas do not splay.

B) They are low level fixed RNAV routes that have a primary obstacle protection area of 6NM each side of the centre line.

Which of the following types of controlled airspace that are based in low level airspace can extend upwards into the high level airspace structure? A) Victor Airways. B) Control Area Extensions. C) Terminal Control Areas. D) Class C control zones associated with Canadas major airports.

C) Terminal Control Areas.

An aircraft would be operating in class A airspace anytime that it was flying within: A) Any portion of Canadian controlled High-Level Airspace at FL600 and below. B) All of the Northern Domestic Airspace above 18,000 ft ASL. C) A military terminal control area between 12,500 ft ASL and 17,999 ft ASL. D) All of the Canadaian domestic airspace above FL600.

A) Any portion of Canadian controlled High-Level Airspace at FL600 and below.

Which of the following regions would constitute Class B airspace? A) That portion of the control area extension above 9,500 ft ASL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft ASL. B) Airspace that underlies the Northern Control Area and extends from 12,500 ft ASL, up to, but not including, FL230. C) Transition Areas adjacent to class C control zones that extend vertically from 700 ft ASL up to 2,200 ft ASL. D) Within low level airways above 12,500 ft ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher.

D) Within low level airways above 12,500 ft ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher.

An example of class D airspace would be: A) A military flying area. B) A control zone without an operating control tower. C) The transition area which underlies the lateral limits of the CNMPS Airspace. D) A control zone with an operating control tower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C.

D) A control zone with an operating control tower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C.

All high level controlled airspace above FL600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated: A) Class A. B) Class G. C) Class E. D) Class F.

C) Class E.

That airspce within a Victor Airway at 12,500 ft ASL and below would be designated as: A) Class B. B) Class E. C) Class D. D) Class G.

B) Class E.

Consider an airport with a class C control zone. What would be the status of this airport and its control zone airspace classification when the tower is not operating? A) Controlled Airport; Class E Airspace. B) Controlled Airport; Class D Airspace. C) Uncontrolled Airport; Class E Airspace. D) Uncontrolled Airport; Class G Airspace.

C) Uncontrolled Airport; Class E Airspace.

A true statement regarding an active Restricted Area would be: A) Flight through an active restricted area is prohibited at all times. B) A pilot may fly through an active restricted area provided that either an IFR or DVFR flight plan has been filed for the flight and during that time the aircraft operates within the Restricted Area the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on 121.5 MHz. C) Aircraft on an IFR flight plan or on an IFR flight itinerary will automatically be cleared by ATC to fly through an active restricted area. D) A pilot may fly through an active Restricted Area if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority.

D) A pilot may fly through an active Restricted Area if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling authority.

With respect to Class F advisory airspace, pilots should know that: A) An advisory area is a region of positively controlled airspace. B) Specific instructions that apply to the use of advisory airspace are detailed in the planning section of the CFS. C) Pilots of activity participating aircraft within an advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. D) IFR aircraft that are transitting an advisory area will always receive ATC vectoring to resolve potential conflicts with any VFR aircraft within the area.

C) Pilots of activity participating aircraft within an advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.