Flight Operations 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A bleed leak warning light illuminated in the cockpit could be an indication that there is a:

A) Brake bleed line fluid leak, which could result in a primary brake system failure.
B) Hydraulic air bleed system failure resulting low hydraulic system pressure due to lack of air pressure in the reservoir.
C) Bleed air leak within air cycle compressor and expansion turbine resulting in a pressurization failure.
D) Pneumatic air bleed leak which left unattended could result in a fire within the aircraft.

A

D) Pneumatic air bleed leak which left unattended could result in a fire within the aircraft.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements best describes an aircraft pressurization system?

A) Bleed air from the engines is continually distributed to the cabin area, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
B) Bleed valves control the amount of bleed air allowed to enter the cabin area to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
C) Ram air is vented into the cabin area utilizing Ram Air Turbines, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization.
D) Engine driven air cycle packs distribute air to to the cabin area, inflow valves control the amount of air allowed to enter the cabin area to obtain the desired level of pressurization.

A

A) Bleed air from the engines is continually distributed to the cabin area, outflow valves control the amount of air allowed to escape to obtain the desired level of pressurization.

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3
Q

With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, identify which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Modern aircraft pressurization systems start to pressurize the cabin during the takeoff run at which time a descent would be noted on the cabin rate of climb/descent indicator.
B) The maximum cabin altitude of a pressurized aircraft should not normally exceed 12,500 FT ASL.
C) During a normal pressurized climb, following takeoff, the cabin rate of climb would be less than the aircraft rate of climb.
D) If during descent the aircraft altitude becomes equal to the cabin altitude, the rate of descent of both the cabin and the aircraft will be the same.

A

B) The maximum cabin altitude of a pressurized aircraft should not normally exceed 12,500 FT ASL.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of a safety outflow valve on an aircraft pressurization system?

A) To prevent too low a cabin differential pressure from being reached.
B) To vent cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached.
C) To prevent ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin pressure.
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel.

A

D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel.

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5
Q

The maximum ratio of cabin air pressure to ambient air pressure that a pressurization system and aircraft pressure vessel can sustain is referred to as_____.

A) Max cabin altitude.
B) Max vessel pressure.
C) Max ambient pressure.
D) Max diff.

A

D) Max diff.

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6
Q

With respect to aircraft pressurization systems, what is the purpose of a negative pressure relief valve?

A) To prevent the cabin differential pressure from becoming too low.
B) To vent cabin air overboard when cabin altitude is reached.
C) To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure.
D) To prevent excessive pressure within the pressure vessel.

A

C) To prevent outside ambient air pressure from exceeding cabin internal pressure.

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7
Q

The pilot of a small turbojet aircraft cruising at FL330 wishes to descend and land at an airport that is 2,000FT ASL. The cabin altitude of the aircraft is 7,000FT ASL. If the jet descends at a rate of 2,500 FPM, what rate of descent should the pilot set on the cabin rate selector to affect a cabin differential pressure of zero on landing?

A) 500FPM
B) 400FPM
C) 300FPM
D) 200FPM

A

B) 400FPM

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8
Q

A battery temperature overheat warning on the cockpit advisory panel could be an indication of a:

A) Low battery voltage.
B) High battery voltage.
C) Battery thermal runaway.
D) Ground power failure causing battery depletion.

A

C) Battery thermal runaway.

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9
Q

What functions do Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) and Inverters (INVs) perform on aircraft electrical systems?

A) TRUs are employed to convert direct current to alternating current and INVs are employed to convert alternating current to direct current.
B) TRUs are employed to convert alternating current to direct current and INVs are employed to convert direct current to alternating current.
C) TRUs provide automatic bus fault protection on an aircraft DC system and INVs provide automatic overload protection on an aircrafts AC system.
D) TRUs are employed as voltage regulators in AC systems and INVs are employed as voltage regulators of DC systems.

A

B) TRUs are employed to convert alternating current to direct current and INVs are employed to convert direct current to alternating current.

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10
Q

An aircrafts bus bar can best be described as:

A) A carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure.
B) Multifunctional devices which provide voltage regulation, generator current direction, circuit and generator protection.
C) A system of electrical circuits used to control power fluctuations or surges.
D) A passive system which transfers electrical power between AC and DC powered systems depending on system demand.

A

A) A carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure.

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11
Q

Aircraft electrical circuit protection is provided by which of the following devices:

1) Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)
2) Generator Control Unit (GCU)
3) Variable Frequency Generator (AC GEN)
4) Invertor (INV)
5) Circuit Breaker (CB)
6) AC and DC Emergency Busses (EMER BUS)

A) 1, 2, 6.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 5.
D) 2, 3, 6.

A

C) 2, 5.

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12
Q

Many large turbine aircraft employ jet pumps to draw fuel into collector lines in order to ensure the high pressure fuel pump has enough fuel to supply the engine. These jet pumps are activated by:

A) High pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump.
B) Electrical boost pumps located in the fuel tanks.
C) The hydromechanical fuel control unit.
D) Direct drive from the engine accessory section.

A

A) High pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE with regards to capacitance fuel measurement systems?

A) It remains accurate in all phases of flight.
B) The system measures volume of fuel which is then converted to weight by the FMS computer.
C) Fuel measurement is achieved electrically without the need for moving parts by converting a capacitance measurement to an equivalent fuel measure.
D) Depending upon the aircraft size there may be multiple feel capacitance probes connected in parallel in each tank that assist with an average reading of fuel weight.

A

B) The system measures volume of fuel which is then converted to weight by the FMS computer.

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14
Q

Magnasticks are fuel quantity measuring devices which:

A) Are located beneath the fuel caps and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity.
B) Are located in the refueling panel to permit selection of the desired fuel load and automatically shut-off the refueling valves when the desired fuel load is boarded.
C) Are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity.
D) Are located within the fuel tanks and transmit accurate quantity measurement to the fuel quantity gauges in the cockpit.

A

C) Are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity.

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15
Q

What function(s) are performed by an accumulator on an aircraft hydraulic system?

A) To prevent fluid flow in the event of a serious system leak.
B) To absorb power fluctuations or surges in the system during high system demands and store system pressure to provide backup for key operations in case of a pump failure.
C) Diverts fluid back to the reservoir as system pressure increases beyond a prescribed level.
D) To selectively channel hydraulic fluid to a component or components to accomplish specific tasks.

A

B) To absorb power fluctuations or surges in the system during high system demands and store system pressure to provide backup for key operations in case of a pump failure.

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16
Q

The accumulator of an aircraft hydraulic system is pre-loaded to 1,000PSI. If the system normally operates at a pressure of 3,000PSI, the system pressure gauge and the accumulator gauge reading after engine startup would be respectively:

A) 0 and 1,000PSI.
B) 3,000 and 4,000PSI.
C) 3,000 and 3,000PSI.
D) 4,000 and 1,000PSI.

A

C) 3,000 and 3,000PSI.

17
Q

One method to compensate for variable system demands when one or more subsystems are activated on a hydraulic system is through the installation of:

A) Pressure control valves.
B) Fixed displacement hydraulic pumps.
C) Variable displacement hydraulic pumps.
D) Actuating cylinders.

A

C) Variable displacement hydraulic pumps.

18
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the operation of a typical anti-skid device?

A) As an aircraft begins to skid, pumping of the brakes initializes the anti-skid system to control brake pressure in order to obtain maximum stopping performance.
B) When the anti-skid control module detects that a wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded.
C) When a wheel speed transducer detects a rapid deceleration, a signal is sent to the normal brake metering valve so that a constant metered pressure is applied to the brakes.
D) When the anti-skid control module detects a rapid deceleration in wheel speed, a signal is sent to the anti-skid warning system to advise the crew that a full skid condition is imminent.
A

B) When the anti-skid control module detects that a wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded.

19
Q

Which of the following statements is true with reference to an anti-skid systems lock wheel and touchdown protection?

A) Lock wheel protection is implemented to automatically brake the main gear wheels following selection of landing gear retraction.
B) Lock wheel protection prevents tire scuffing by full brake release following a bounced landing.
C) Touchdown protection is implemented when a skid condition is detected within 5 seconds after main gear compression.
D) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways.

A

D) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways.

20
Q

If a category B item is deferred under the MEL on May 2 at 1800z, when would the MEL expire?

A) At 1800z on May 5.
B) At 0000z on May 6.
C) At 1800z on May 6.
D) At 0000Z on May 5.

A

B) At 0000z on May 6.

21
Q

INDUCED drag is:

A) Proportional to the square of the speed.
B) Proportional to the product of the coefficient of skin friction and the length of the mean camber line.
C) Inversely proportional to the square of the speed.
D) Directly proportional to the product of speed and the square of the wingspan section.

A

C) Inversely proportional to the square of the speed.

22
Q

When operating an aircraft in the slow speed range, the required power is greater than that for endurance because:

A) More of the aircrafts total weight is acting along the longitudinal axis.
B) The L/D ratio is reduced, and the drag is increased.
C) Greater deflection of the elevator control surface is causing a reduced downwash and a distorted boundary layer.
D) The L/D ratio is increased and the drag is increased.

A

B) The L/D ratio is reduced, and the drag is increased.

23
Q

In order to obtain maximum range in a constant wind condition, a pilot who is flying a turbojet aircraft at near optimum altitude and at the recommended airspeed should:

A) Maintain airspeed and reduce power as the fuel weight decreases due to burn-off.
B) Reduce power and IAS as fuel weight decreases.
C) Maintain a constant power setting and allow the IAS to attain the maximum allowable value.
D) Fly at an airspeed which corresponds to 0.66 x L/D max. x V squared.

A

B) Reduce power and IAS as fuel weight decreases.

24
Q

Which of the following features will improve lateral stability of an aircraft?

A) Wing dihedral.
B) A yaw damper system.
C) Servo tabs.
D) A differential aileron system.

A

A) Wing dihedral.

25
Q

An aircraft having wings with a pronounced DIHEDRAL encounters turbulence which causes one wing to lower. Before the dihedral design feature can proved the forces needed to restore the original “wings level” position:

A) The aircraft must initiate a turn towards the raised wing.
B) The aircraft must develop a sideslip towards the dropped wing.
C) The aircraft must develop a yawing moment towards the raised wing.
D) The aircraft must initiate a skid toward the dropped wing.

A

B) The aircraft must develop a sideslip towards the dropped wing.

26
Q

If the CG of an aircraft is a the most aft limit, what would be the effect on the stability of this aircraft?

A) Increased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
B) Increased lateral stability about the longitudinal axil.
C) Decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
D) Decreased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.

A

C) Decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.

27
Q

An aircraft has a greater longitudinal stability when:

A) The center of pressure is forward of the CG.
B) The wings have a high angle of incidence.
C) The CG is well forward of the center of pressure.
D) The wings have a high dihedral angle.

A

C) The CG is well forward of the center of pressure.

28
Q

Why is having a moving horizontal stabilizer a more effective way of trimming large aircraft?

A) At high speeds it provides more longitudinal stability and a higher critical mach number.
B) It allows for a greater center of gravity range and reduces drag in flight.
C) At low speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch.
D) At high speeds the elevator is not a large enough control surface to effectively control aircraft pitch.

A

B) It allows for a greater center of gravity range and reduces drag in flight.

29
Q

An aircraft in a constant descent, weight will equal:

A) Vertical component of lift and drag.
B) Vertical component of lift only.
C) Lift perpendicular to the flight path.
D) Resultant of lift and thrust.

A

A) Vertical component of lift and drag.

30
Q

A turbojet departing from an airport with a high elevation would have what effect on the takeoff airspeeds and distance?

A) There would not be an affect on airspeeds or takeoff distance.
B) V1 and VR speeds and the takeoff distance would increase.
C) The takeoff distance would increase but V1, VR and V2 would remain the same.
D) VR and V2 speeds would increase.

A

B) V1 and VR speeds and the takeoff distance would increase.