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Comprehensive Radiology Review > Rad Review 50-100 > Flashcards

Rad Review 50-100 Flashcards

1
Q

At least how many HVLs are required to reduce the intensity of a beam of monoenergetic photons to less than 10% of its original value?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C. 4

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2
Q

Which of the dose–response curves shown in the figure below is representative of radiation-induced skin erythema?

  1. Dose–response curve A
  2. Dose–response curve B
  3. Dose–response curve C

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

C. 3 only

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3
Q

The principal function of filtration in the x-ray tube is to reduce

A. patient skin dose
B. operator exposure
C. scattered radiation
D. image noise

A

A. patient skin dose

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4
Q

The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed

A. absorption
B. scattering
C. attenuation
D. divergence

A

C. attenuation

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5
Q

Which of the following radiation situations is potentially the most harmful?

A. A large dose to a specific area all at once
B. A small dose to the whole body over a period of time
C. A large dose to the whole body all at one time
D. A small dose to a specific area over a period of time

A

C. A large dose to the whole body all at one time

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6
Q

All of the following device(s) can be used to reduce patient dose, except

  1. grid
  2. collimator
  3. gonad shield

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

EXCEPT

A. 1 only

  1. grid
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7
Q

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

  1. HVL
  2. kV
  3. mA

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. HVL
  2. kV
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8
Q

The radiographer’s radiation monitor report must include which of the following information?

  1. Lifetime dose equivalent
  2. Quarterly dose equivalent
  3. Inception date

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Lifetime dose equivalent
  2. Quarterly dose equivalent
  3. Inception date
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9
Q

The exposure rate to a body 4 ft from a source of radiation is 2.5 mGy/h. What distance from the source would be necessary to decrease the exposure to 1 mGy/hr?

A. 4.6 ft
B. 5.3 ft
C. 6.3 ft
D. 7.2 ft

A

C. 6.3 ft

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10
Q

All the following function to reduce patient dose except

A. beam restriction
B. high kVp, low mAs factors
C. a high-ratio grid
D. gonadal shielding

A

EXCEPT

C. a high-ratio grid

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11
Q

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?

  1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
  2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
  3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

  1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
  2. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
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12
Q

What is the anatomic structure indicated by number 3 in the radiograph in Figure 6–20?

A. Mandibular angle
B. Coronoid process
C. Zygomatic arch
D. Maxillary sinus

A

B. Coronoid process

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13
Q

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

A. the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR.
B. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits.
C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.
D. the central ray is perpendicular to the IR and exits at the nasion.

A

EXCEPT

C. the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR.

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14
Q

Angulation of the central ray may be required

  1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
  2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
  3. to project through certain articulations.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. to avoid superimposition of overlying structures.
  2. to avoid foreshortening or self-superimposition.
  3. to project through certain articulations.
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15
Q

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A. diploe
B. lambda
C. bregma
D. pterion

A

C. bregma

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16
Q

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

A. AP axial
B. Lateral
C. Parietoacanthial
D. Submentovertical (SMV)

A

D. Submentovertical (SMV)

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17
Q

The focal spot-to-table distance in mobile fluoroscopy must

A. be at least 38 cm
B. not exceed 38 cm
C. not be less than 30 cm
D. not exceed 30 cm

A

C. not be less than 30 cm

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18
Q

The femoral neck can be located

A. parallel to the femoral shaft.
B. perpendicular to the femoral shaft.
C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.
D. perpendicular to a line from the iliac crest to the pubic symphysis.

A

C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis.

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19
Q

The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed

A. absorption
B. scattering
C. attenuation
D. divergence

A

C. attenuation

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20
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to evaluate the dynamics of a part?

A. Fluoroscopy
B. Stereoscopy
C. Tomography
D. Phototiming

A

A. Fluoroscopy

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21
Q

Which of the following are considered most radiosensitive?

A. Lymphocytes
B. Ova
C. Neurons
D. Myocytes

A

A. Lymphocytes

22
Q

A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following:

A. Spontaneous abortion
B. skeletal anomalies
C. neurologic anomalies
D. organogenesis

A

B. skeletal anomalies

23
Q

Classify the following tissues in order of increasing radiosensitivity

  1. Liver cells
  2. Intestinal crypt cells
  3. Muscle cells

A. 1, 3, 2
B. 2, 3, 1
C. 2, 1, 3
D. 3, 1, 2

A

D. 3, 1, 2

  1. Muscle cells
  2. Liver cells
  3. Intestinal crypt cells
24
Q

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron?

A. Photoelectric effect
B. Coherent scatter
C. Compton scatter
D. Pair production

A

C. Compton scatter

25
Q

Irradiation of macromolecules in vitro can result in

  1. main-chain scission
  2. cross-linking
  3. point lesions

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. main-chain scission
  2. cross-linking
  3. point lesions
26
Q

How is the intensity of an x-ray photon affected after each time it scatters?

A. Its intensity increases 4 times.
B. Its intensity increases 1000 times.
C. Its intensity decreases 4 times.
D. Its intensity decreases 1000 times.

A

D. Its intensity decreases 1000 times.

27
Q

Which of the following factors will affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary beam?

  1. Half-value layer (HVL)
  2. Kilovolts (kV)
  3. Milliamperes (mA)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. Half-value layer (HVL)
  2. Kilovolts (kV)
28
Q

Sources of natural background radiation contributing to whole-body radiation dose include

  1. dental x-rays
  2. terrestrial radionuclides
  3. internal radionuclides

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

  1. terrestrial radionuclides
  2. internal radionuclides
29
Q

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?

  1. Quality of radiation
  2. Type of tissue being irradiated
  3. Fractionation

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Quality of radiation
  2. Type of tissue being irradiated
  3. Fractionation
30
Q

Which of the following is (are) considered long-term somatic effect(s) of exposure to ionizing radiation?

  1. Life-span shortening
  2. Carcinogenesis
  3. Cataractogenesis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Life-span shortening
  2. Carcinogenesis
  3. Cataractogenesis
31
Q

Which of the following is a measurement of dose to biologic tissue?

A. air kerma
B. Gray
C. Sievert
D. Becquerel

A

C. Sievert

32
Q

Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public’s exposure to human-made radiation?

A. 10%
B. 50%
C. 80%
D. 90%

A

D. 90%

33
Q

Which of the following cells is the least radiosensitive?

A. Myelocytes
B. Myocytes
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Erythroblasts

A

B. Myocytes

34
Q

Which of the following is (are) used to account for the differences in tissue characteristics when determining effective dose to biologic material?

  1. Tissue weighting factors (W t )
  2. Radiation weighting factors (W r )
  3. Absorbed dose

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

  1. Tissue weighting factors (W t )
35
Q

Which of the following occurs during Bremsstrahlung (Brems) radiation production?

A. An electron makes a transition from an outer to an inner electron shell.
B. An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy.
C. A high-energy photon ejects an outer-shell electron.
D. A low-energy photon ejects an inner-shell electron.

A

B. An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy.

36
Q

What is likely to occur if 25 rad is accidentally delivered to a recently fertilized ovum?

A. Skeletal anomalies
B. CNS anomalies
C. Spontaneous abortion
D. Childhood malignancy

A

C. Spontaneous abortion

37
Q

The symbols 130 ^ 56 BA and 138 ^ 56 are examples of which of the following?

A. Isotopes
B. Isobars
C. Isotones
D. Isomers

A

A. Isotopes

38
Q

As the x-ray tube filament ages, it becomes progressively thinner because of evaporation/vaporization. The vaporized tungsten is frequently deposited on the window of the glass envelope. This may

  1. act as an additional filter.
  2. reduce tube output.
  3. result in arcing and tube puncture.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. act as an additional filter.
  2. reduce tube output.
  3. result in arcing and tube puncture.
39
Q

A fill factor of 80% in direct or indirect digital radiography means that:

A. 20% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 80% representing the sensing area
B. 80% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 20% representing the sensing area
C. The saturation level will be unacceptable
D. Only 20% of the image will be captured

A

A. 20% of the pixel area is occupied by the detector electronics with 80% representing the sensing area

40
Q

The type of x-ray tube designed to turn on and off rapidly, providing multiple short, precise exposures, is

A. high speed
B. grid-controlled
C. diode
D. electrode

A

B. grid-controlled

41
Q

The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the

A. ionization chamber
B. scintillation camera
C. photomultiplier
D. photocathode

A

A. ionization chamber

42
Q

The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is the product of

  1. flux gain
  2. minification gain
  3. focusing gain

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

A

C. 1 and 2 only

  1. flux gain
  2. minification gain
43
Q

All of the following are potential digital pre-processing problems, except:

A. Edge enhancement
B. Defective pixel
C. Image lag
D. Line noise

A

EXCEPT

A. Edge enhancement

44
Q

In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the

A. kVp and mA
B. backup timer
C. milliamperage (mA) and time
D. kilovoltage (kV) and time

A

A. kVp and mA

45
Q

Which of the following combinations would pose the least hazard to a particular anode?

A. 0.6-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
B. 0.6-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
C. 1.2-mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs
D. 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

A

D. 1.2-mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs

46
Q

Changes between the images shown in the figures below represent changes made to

A. pixel size
B. matrix size
C. window width
D. window level

A

C. window width

47
Q

All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except

A. the timer
B. the kilovoltage meter
C. the milliamperage meter
D. the autotransformer

A

EXCEPT

C. the milliamperage meter

48
Q

Inadequate collimation in CR imaging can result in an image that is too

  1. light
  2. dark
  3. noisy

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. light
  2. dark
  3. noisy
49
Q

Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single-phase equipment

  1. 100% voltage ripple
  2. 13% voltage ripple
  3. 3.5% voltage ripple

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

  1. 100% voltage ripple
50
Q

Quality Control (QC) testing is used to evaluate digital display monitors in all of the following ways, except

A. Display luminance response
B. Display resolution
C. Display matrix size
D. Display noise

A

EXCEPT

C. Display matrix size

Comprehensive Radiology Review (6 decks)

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