Rad Review 1-50 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following procedures requires that the patient be placed in the lithotomy position?

A. Myelography
B. Venography
C. T-tube cholangiography
D. Hysterosalpingography

A

D. Hysterosalpingography

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2
Q

Examples of potential late effects of ionizing radiation on humans can include

  1. Leukemia
  2. Genetic defects
  3. Malignant disease

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Leukemia
  2. Genetic defects
  3. Malignant disease
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3
Q

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) has recommended what total equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus?

A. 0.5 mSv
B. 5.0 mSv
C. 50 mSv
D. 500 mSv

A

B. 5.0 mSv

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4
Q

If exposure factors of 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 12 ms yield an output exposure of 150 mR, what is the milliroentgens per milliampere-seconds (mR/mAs)?

A. 0.32
B. 3.1
C. 17.6
D. 31

A

D. 31

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5
Q

IRs/cassettes frequently have a lead-foil layer behind the rear screen that functions to

A. improve penetration
B. absorb backscatter
C. preserve resolution
D. increase the screen speed

A

B. absorb backscatter

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6
Q

If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen?

A. Recumbent AP
B. Lateral recumbent
C. Lateral cross-table recumbent
D. Recumbent Waters’

A

C. Lateral cross-table recumbent

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7
Q

Which of the following correctly identifies the letter L in the radiograph shown in Figure 7–13?

A. Hamate
B. Lunate
C. Scaphoid
D. Trapezium

A

B. Lunate

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8
Q

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

  1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
  2. The axiolateral projection should be avoided.
  3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 3 only

  1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
  2. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.
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9
Q

Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?

  1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
  2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient.
  3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

  1. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient.
  2. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.
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10
Q

Which of the following is (are) likely to improve image quality and decrease patient dose?

  1. Beam restriction
  2. Low kilovolt and high milliampere- second factors
  3. Grids

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

  1. Beam restriction
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11
Q

Gonadal shielding should be provided for male patients in which of the following examinations?

  1. Femur
  2. Abdomen
  3. Pelvis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Femur
  2. Abdomen
  3. Pelvis
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12
Q

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

  1. Knee
  2. Intervertebral joints
  3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 1 and 3 only

  1. Knee
  2. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
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13
Q

When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the

  1. male pelvis is deeper.
  2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°.
  3. female greater sciatic notch is wider.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. male pelvis is deeper.
  2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°.
  3. female greater sciatic notch is wider.
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14
Q

With which of the following does the femoral head articulate?

  1. Ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis
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15
Q

To obtain an AP projection of the right ilium, the patient’s

A. left side is elevated 40°.
B. right side is elevated 40°.
C. left side is elevated 15°.
D. right side is elevated 15°.

A

A. left side is elevated 40°.

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16
Q

Which of the four baselines illustrated in Figure 6–15 should be used for a lateral projection of facial bones?

A. Baseline 1
B. Baseline 2
C. Baseline 3
D. Baseline 4

A

C. Baseline 3

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17
Q

With milliamperage adjusted to produce equal exposures, all the following statements are true except

A. a single-phase examination done at 10 mAs can be duplicated with three-phase, 12-pulse at 5 mAs.
B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.
C. Three-phase equipment can produce comparable radiographs with less heat unit (HU) buildup.
D. Three-phase equipment produces lower-contrast radiographs than single-phase equipment.

A

ALL TRUE EXCEPT

B. There is greater patient dose with three-phase equipment than with single-phase equipment.

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18
Q

Geometric unsharpness is most likely to be greater

A. at long SIDs.
B. at the anode end of the image.
C. with small focal spots.
D. at the cathode end of the image.

A

D. at the cathode end of the image.

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19
Q

Which of the following can impact the visibility of the anode heel effect?

  1. SID
  2. IR size
  3. Screen speed

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. SID
  2. IR size
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20
Q

An exposure was made using 300 mA and 50 ms. If the exposure time is changed to 22 ms, which of the following milliamperage selections would most closely approximate the original receptor exposure?

A. 300 mA
B. 400 mA
C. 600 mA
D. 700 mA

A

D. 700 mA

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21
Q

Compared to a low ratio grid, a high ratio grid will

  1. absorb more primary radiation.
  2. absorb more scattered radiation.
  3. allow more centering latitude.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. absorb more primary radiation.
  2. absorb more scattered radiation.
22
Q

A decrease from 200 to 100 mA will result in a decrease in which of the following?

  1. Wavelength
  2. Exposure rate
  3. Beam intensity

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

C. 2 and 3 only

  1. Exposure rate
  2. Beam intensity
23
Q

The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high-subject-contrast part can be minimized by

  1. using a compensating filter.
  2. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors.
  3. increased collimation.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. using a compensating filter.
  2. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors.
24
Q

Factors that determine AEC exposure determination include

  1. the thickness and density of the object
  2. positioning of the object with respect to the photocell
  3. beam restriction

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. the thickness and density of the object
  2. positioning of the object with respect to the photocell
  3. beam restriction
25
Q

A satisfactory radiograph of the abdomen was made at a 42-inch SID using 300 mA, 0.06-second exposure, and 80 kVp. If the distance is changed to 38 inches, what new exposure time would be required?

A. 0.02 second
B. 0.05 second
C. 0.12 second
D. 0.15 second

A

B. 0.05 second

26
Q

If the center photocell were selected for a lateral projection of the lumbar spine that was positioned with the spinous processes instead of the vertebral bodies centered to the grid, how would the resulting radiograph look?

A. The image would be underexposed.
B. The image would be overexposed.
C. The image would be correctly exposed.
D. An exposure could not be made.

A

A. The image would be underexposed.

27
Q

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

  1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
  2. right iliac wing
  3. right anterior iliopubic column

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum
  2. right iliac wing
28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true?

  1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female.
  2. The pelvic outlet is wider than that of the female.
  3. The ischial tuberosities are further apart.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

A. 1 only

  1. The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female.
29
Q

The absorption of useful radiation by a grid is called

A. grid selectivity.
B. grid cleanup.
C. grid cutoff.
D. latitude.

A

C. grid cutoff.

30
Q

Focal-spot blur is greatest

A. directly along the course of the central ray
B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam
C. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam
D. as the SID is increased

A

B. toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam

31
Q

In which of the following ways might higher image contrast be obtained in abdominal radiography?

  1. By using lower kilovoltage
  2. By using a contrast medium
  3. By limiting the field size

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. By using lower kilovoltage
  2. By using a contrast medium
  3. By limiting the field size
32
Q

OID is related to spatial resolution in which of the following ways?

A. Spatial resolution is directly related to OID.
B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID.
C. As OID increases, so does spatial resolution.
D. OID is unrelated to spatial resolution.

A

B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to OID.

33
Q

If a patient received 0.3 Gy during a 3 minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?

A. 1 mGy/min
B. 10 mGy/min
C. 100 mGy/min
D. 1000 mGy/min

A

C. 100 mGy/min

34
Q

All the following statements regarding mobile radiographic equipment are true except

A. the exposure cord must permit the operator to stand at least 6 ft from the patient, x-ray tube, and useful beam
B. exposure switches must be the two-stage type
C. a lead apron should be carried with the unit and worn by the radiographer during exposure
D. the radiographer must alert individuals in the area before making the exposure

A

ALL TRUE EXCEPT

B. exposure switches must be the two-stage type

35
Q

Which of the following formulas is a representation of the inverse-square law of radiation used to determine x-ray intensity at different distances?

A

A.

36
Q

The radiographic accessory used to measure the thickness of body parts in order to determine optimum selection of exposure factors is the

A. gantry.
B. caliper.
C. collimator.
D. ruler.

A

B. caliper.

37
Q

The interaction illustrated below

  1. can pose a safety hazard to personnel
  2. can have a negative impact on image quality
  3. occurs with low-energy incident photons

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. can pose a safety hazard to personnel
  2. can have a negative impact on image quality
38
Q

Filtration is added to the x-ray beam to

A. decrease photoelectric interaction.
B. remove the “hard” x-rays.
C. produce a more heterogeneous x-ray beam.
D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy.

A

D. produce an x-ray beam with higher average energy.

39
Q

Which of the following is most likely to deliver the largest dose to the ovaries?

A. AP lumbar spine, 7 × 17 in. IR, 80 kVp
B. AP lumbar spine, 14 × 17 in. IR, 80 kVp
C. AP abdomen, 80 kVp
D. AP abdomen, 70 kVp

A

B. AP lumbar spine, 14 × 17 in. IR, 80 kVp

40
Q

Which of the following contributes most to patient dose?

A. The photoelectric effect
B. Compton scatter
C. Classic scatter
D. Thompson scatter

A

A. The photoelectric effect

41
Q

Which of the following has (have) an effect on the amount and type of radiation-induced tissue damage?

  1. Quality of radiation
  2. Type of tissue being irradiated
  3. Fractionation

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. Quality of radiation
  2. Type of tissue being irradiated
  3. Fractionation
42
Q

Which of the following types of adult tissues is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation exposure?

  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Nerve tissue
  3. Epithelial tissue

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. Muscle tissue
  2. Nerve tissue
43
Q

In electronic imaging, as digital image matrix size increases

  1. pixel size decreases
  2. resolution decreases
  3. pixel depth decreases

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

A

A. 1 only

  1. pixel size decreases
44
Q

The CR should be directed to the center of the part of greatest interest to avoid

A. rotation distortion
B. magnification
C. foreshortening
D. elongation

A

A. rotation distortion

45
Q

SID affects spatial resolution in which of the following way

A. Spatial resolution is directly related to SID.
B. Spatial resolution is inversely related to SID.
C. As SID increases, spatial resolution decreases.
D. SID is not a spatial resolution factor.

A

A. Spatial resolution is directly related to SID.

46
Q

Recently, dual-sided reading technology has become available in more modern CR readers, in which two sets of photodetectors are used to capture light released from the front and back sides of the phosphor storage plate, or PSP (photostimulable phosphor). This technology enables improved:

A. Slow-scan direction speed
B. Modulation transfer function
C. Signal-to-noise ratio
D. Fast-scan direction speed

A

C. Signal-to-noise ratio

47
Q

Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip?

  1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS
  2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
  3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

B. 1 and 2 only

  1. 2 inches medial to the ASIS
  2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
48
Q

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

  1. uterine tubal patency
  2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
  3. uterine position

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3

  1. uterine tubal patency
  2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
  3. uterine position
49
Q

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

A. cephalad
B. proximal
C. distal
D. lateral

A

C. distal

50
Q

Which of the following shoulder projections can be used to evaluate the lesser tubercle in profile?

A. External rotation position
B. Internal rotation position
C. Neutral rotation position
D. Inferosuperior axial position

A

B. Internal rotation position