Chapter 2 - Patient Care Q's

Question 1

Routes of entry of toxic chemicals may include:

a. Swallowing and inhalation
b. Inhalation only
c. Absorption through skin or mucous membranes
d. Inhalation, swallowing, or absorption through skin or mucous membranes

Answer 1

D. Inhalation, swallowing, or absorption through skin or mucous membranes

Question 2

Written instructions for handling of biohazardous materials, safe use of the produce, and cleanup and disposal directions are called:

a. Package inserts
b. HIPAA
c. MSDS
d. Biohazardous warning systems

Answer 2

C. MSDS Material Safety Data Sheets.

Question 3

When should older patients be scheduled?

a. Late in the day to give them time to build their strength
b. For one examination at a time
c. As early in the day as possible
d. Only when no one else is in the department

Answer 3

C. As early in the day as possible

Question 4

Patients who have been NPO should be scheduled:

a. Last
b. First
c. Just before lunch
d. In any way that helps the work flow

Answer 4

B. First

Question 5

Patients with diabetes should be scheduled:

a. Late in the day to give them time to build their strength
b. Only after they have had their insulin
c. As early in the day as possible
d. Immediately after a full breakfast

Answer 5

C. As early in the day as possible

The need for insulin means patients who are diabetic should be imaged early.

Question 6

Endoscopic procedures should be scheduled:

a. After ingestion of barium for increased contrast
b. First in a series of procedures
c. After a series of procedures so as to verify the diagnosis
d. Only by the endoscopy department

Answer 6

B. First in a series of procedures

It is important that either the stomach or the colon be empty, with nothing interfering from a previous procedure.

Question 7

What describes Torts?

a. Violations of criminal law
b. Considered part of personal injury law
c. Provide for compensation for injury
d. Violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide for compensation for injury

Answer 7

D. Violations of civil law that are part of a professional injury law and provide for compensation for injury.

Be sure to know these basic legal concepts. D is the most complete answer.

Question 8

Which of the following would be considered as an example of battery?

A. Violating HIPAA
B. Radiographing the wrong patient or body part
C. Verbally abusing a patient
D. Criticizing a physicians order in front of a patient

Answer 8

B. Radiographing the wrong patient or body part

Choice A is a violation of privacy, choice C is a form of assault, and choice D is unprofessional behavior

Question 9

Assault means:

A. threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive
B. Striking the patient
C. Touching the patient without consent
D. Performing radiography against the patients will

Answer 9

A. Threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive.

Keep in mind that assault does not have to involve touching the patient.

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of invasion of privacy?

A. Radiographing the wrong patient
B. Unjustified restraint of patient
C. Improperly exposing the patient’s body
D. Radiographing the wrong body part

Answer 10

C. Improperly exposing the patient’s body

Choices A and D constitute battery. Choice B could be considered false imprisonment.

Question 11

Unintentional misconduct is also called:

a. Negligence
b. An accident
c. Libel
d. Slander

Answer 11

a. Negligence

Although unintentional, it still carries with it penalties. Something that should have been done was not done.

Question 12

The concept of the reasonably prudent person is interpreted as:

a. How a reasonable jury member would perform the act
b. How a professional who has similar education, training, and experience would perform the act
c. How a prudent attorney would interpret the act
d. How a reasonable and prudent judge would rule on the act

Answer 12

b. How a professional who has similar education, training, and experience would perform the act

The defendant is compared with individuals having similar experience.

Question 13

Respondeat superior means:

a. “The thing speaks for itself”
b. A radiographer has no need to carry malpractice insurance
c. The reasonable and prudent person should make the decision
d. “Let the master answer”

Answer 13

d. “Let the master answer”

The employer is always responsible for the actions of the employees. This does not mean the radiographer is not also responsible.

Question 14

Gross negligence is:

a. A case that includes the injured person as a contributing party to the injury
b. Loss of life or limb
c. An act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb
d. Found in criminal cases only

Answer 14

c. An act that shows reckless disregard for life or limb

Choice B actually involves loss of life or limb; gross negligence does not have to involve an actual loss.

Question 15

Which of the following conditions must be met to prove malpractice?

a. The injury actually occurred and is a result of negligence
b. The standard of care was violated by the person being sued
c. The injury was caused by the person being sued and is a result of negligence
d. The standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred and was caused by the defendant and was a result of negligence

Answer 15

d. The standard of care was violated and the injury actually occurred and was caused by the defendant and was a result of negligence

Be familiar with these facts concerning malpractice.

Question 16

A case involving obvious negligence would be defined by the doctrine of:

a. Respondeat superior
b. Slander
c. Libel
d. Res ipsa loquitur

Answer 16

d. Res ipsa loquitur

This means “the thing speaks for itself.” It is something that could not have occurred by natural means.

Question 17

Which of the following statements are true concerning valid (informed) consent?

1. Patient must be of legal age
2. Patient must be given a brochure describing the risks of the procedure in lay terms
3. Consent must be offered voluntarily
4. Patient must be mentally competent
5. Patient must completely understand all aspects of the procedure

a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 5

Answer 17

a. 1, 3, 4

1. Patient must be of legal age
2. Consent must be offered voluntarily
3. Patient must be mentally competent

Choice 2 is incorrect because a brochure does not have to be given to the patient. Choice 5 is incorrect because patients are unlikely to completely understand all aspects of a procedure.

Question 18

Patient transfers from cart to x-ray table and back to cart should be performed:

a. By the radiographer alone if the patient is ambulatory
b. By two or more radiographers to ensure patient and radiographer safety
c. By the radiographer alone if the department is short staffed
d. By the radiographer alone so as not to frighten the patient

Answer 18

b. By two or more radiographers to ensure patient and radiographer safety

Choice A is incorrect because a patient who is ambulatory would not be on a cart. Choice C is incorrect because patient care must never be compromised because of short staffing. Choice D is incorrect because safety is of paramount importance.

Question 19

A patient history should be taken by the radiographer:

a. To assist the radiographer in understanding the patient’s injury and to assist the radiologist with interpretation of the images
b. To verify patient name and form of payment
c. Only on patients from the ED
d. Only in the absence of the patient’s chart

Answer 19

a. To assist the radiographer in understanding the patient’s injury and to assist the radiologist with interpretation of the images

It is very important to obtain an accurate patient history on all patients.

Question 20

Direct contact allows an infectious organism to move:

a. From the susceptible host directly to the infected person
b. From the infected person directly to the susceptible host
c. In either direction

Answer 20

b. From the infected person directly to the susceptible host

Be sure to review the principles of infection control.

Question 21

21. MSDS provide directions for:

a. Housekeeping only
b. Engineering only
c. Radiology only
d. All persons exposed to hazardous materials

Answer 21

d. All persons exposed to hazardous materials

Question 22

22. If the radiographer touches hazardous chemicals, what must be done first?

a. Rinse immediately with warm water
b. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes
c. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15 minutes
d. Rinse with the warmest water that can be tolerated

Answer 22

b. Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes

Question 23

23. Vectors may be:

a. Insects
b. Persons
c. Plants
d. Objects

Answer 23

A. Insects

Vectors involve animals.

Question 24

24. Common vehicle transmission involves:

a. The spread of infection in crowded forms of public transportation, such as jet aircrafts, subways, and trains
b. Food, water, medications, and equipment
c. Animals
d. Plants

Answer 24

B. Food, water, medications, and equipment

This differs from vector-borne transmission and does not involve motor vehicles.

Question 25

25. Airborne transmission of infection may occur as a result of contact with: a. Bird droppings, acid rain, or air pollution b. Droplets and dust c. Animals d. Other humans

Answer 25

B. Droplets and dust Choice C would be vector-borne, and choice D would be direct contact.

Question 26

26. Indirect contact involves: a. Coughs or sneezes b. An object containing pathogenic organisms c. Plants and animals d. Other humans

Answer 26

B. An object containing pathogenic organisms Choice A would be droplet transmission, choice C would be vector-borne transmission, and choice D would be direct contact.

Question 27

27. A system that emphasizes the placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient is called: a. Universal precautions b. Standard precautions c. Universal safety d. Infection barriers

Answer 27

B. Standard precautions Standard precautions were formerly called Universal precautions.

Question 28

28. The placement of barriers between the health care worker and the patient assumes that: a. There is always a contagion present b. No one wants to be touched c. Every patient should be in isolation d. Every health care worker is carrying something contagious

Answer 28

A. There is always a contagion present Standard precautions are used because we can never know for sure what each patient may carry.

Question 29

29. The most effective method used to prevent the spread of infection is: a. Wearing of gloves b. Wearing of gowns c. Distance d. Handwashing

Answer 29

D. Handwashing is always the first defense. However, it does not replace any other methods.

Question 30

30. Because barium enemas increase the possibility of contact between body substances and clothing, the radiographer should always wear: a. Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs b. Head covering c. Shoe covering d. A regular hospital uniform

Answer 30

A. Disposable gowns or surgical scrubs This is the ideal apparel for these procedures. Head and shoe coverings do little, and a regular uniform may carry organisms after the exam is over.

Question 31

31. A radiographer should wear eye protection: a. Any time blood may be present b. Any time an injection is being made c. Any time there is a possibility of blood splashing d. With nearly all patients

Answer 31

C. Any time there is a possibility of blood splashing This precaution is very important to observe.

Question 32

32. Needles should be recapped after use: a. Never b. Always c. In a nonsterile field d. Only during procedures involving a sterile field

Answer 32

A. Never This greatly increases the chance for a needlestick injury and the transmission of pathogens.

Question 33

33. Any area that is touched by body fluids: a. Must be washed completely b. Must be covered and isolated for the remainder of the day c. Must be evaluated by infection control d. Must be reported to risk management

Answer 33

a. Must be washed completely Health care workers must always assume that pathogens are present. Washing per protocol is mandatory.

Question 34

34. Hands should be washed: a. At least five times during each shift to help stop the spread of infections b. Before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment c. Every hour regardless of patient contact d. Both with and without gloves

Answer 34

B. Before and after contact with each patient and before touching equipment Handwashing is the best protection against transmission of pathogens.

Question 35

35. The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible by the use of water and chemical disinfectants is called: a. Surgical asepsis b. Sterilization c. Medical asepsis d. Boiling

Answer 35

C. Medical asepsis Surgical asepsis is the complete removal of organisms.

Question 36

36. The process of eliminating all organisms from the environment by gas sterilization, use of germicides, or use of dry heat is called: a. Surgical asepsis b. Sterilization c. Medical asepsis d. Autoclaving

Answer 36

A. Surgical asepsis This is much more complete than medical asepsis.

Question 37

37. When putting on gloves for a procedure, which of the following should occur first? a. Carefully open glove package, and avoid touching outside of gloves b. Wash hands c. Place glove package in center of sterile field in preparation for the procedure d. Put on one glove immediately so that one hand is protected and the other is free

Answer 37

B. Wash hands Always wash hands before beginning any procedure.

Question 38

38. After a radiographer is gowned and gloved for a procedure, hands may not be placed: a. Anywhere on the body because the gown and gloves are sterile b. Anywhere on the front or sides of the gown c. Anywhere on the table containing the sterile field d. Under the arms or on the sides or back of the gown

Answer 38

D. Under the arms or on the sides or back of the gown Underarms (because of perspiration), sides, and back are considered nonsterile.

Question 39

39. A radiographer who is assisting with a sterile procedure but is not gloved and gowned: a. Should stand between the physician and the sterile field b. Should carefully place all utensils needed in the center of the sterile field by dropping them after removing them from their packages c. May briefly come in contact with the sterile field to move utensils around d. May not have contact with the sterile field or anyone who is scrubbed in

Answer 39

D.

Question 40

40. What route of transmission involves touching a susceptible person with a contaminated object (e.g., an IR)? a. Droplet transmission b. Indirect contact c. Direct contact d. Airborne transmission

Answer 40

B. Droplet transmission involves coughs and sneezes, direct contact involves a person, and airborne transmission involves droplets and dust. Radiographers must be constantly aware of the methods of transmission.

Question 41

41. Which of the following transmission-based precautions also require the use of standard precautions? a. Airborne and droplet precautions b. Only contact precautions c. Only droplet precautions d. Droplet, contact, and airborne precautions

Answer 41

D. Standard precautions must be practiced at all times.

Question 42

42. Which of the following rules must always be followed regardless of the route of transmission of infection? a. Gloves must be worn b. Gowns must be worn c. Patient must not have any direct contact with the health care worker d. Handwashing must be performed

Answer 42

D. Note the constant emphasis on handwashing. None of the other choices must be followed in every circumstance.

Question 43

43. Which of the following does not require the use of gloves? 1. Airborne 2. Droplet 3. Contact a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1, 2 d. 1, 3

Answer 43

B. Gloves need not be worn with respiratory isolation. All of the other choices involve body fluids.

Question 44

44. Which of the following requires that all equipment and personnel be carefully covered? a. Airborne precautions b. Contact precautions c. Droplet precautions d. Patients with neutropenia

Answer 44

D. This prevents the patient from contracting something from the health care worker or the equipment.

Question 45

45. What is used for total protection of the health care worker from every method of transmission possible in the work setting? a. Standard precautions b. Airborne precautions c. Contact precautions d. Droplet precautions

Answer 45

A. Standard precautions is always the most all-inclusive.

Question 46

46. Used bandages and dressings must be placed: a. Inside contaminated linens so they are not touched b. Into red plastic biohazard bags and sealed c. Into sharps containers d. In a nearby waste container

Answer 46

B

Question 47

47. The winged infusion set used for venipuncture is also known as: a. IV catheter b. Hypodermic needle c. Butterfly d. Winged injection set

Answer 47

C

Question 48

48. When performing mobile radiography on a patient in isolation, which two radiographers are designated? a. Primary and secondary b. Clean and contaminated c. Technologist and student d. Clean and dirty

Answer 48

B. Working as a team.

Question 49

49. The most common site of health care-acquired infections (HIA) is: a. Open wound b. Compound fracture c. Urinary catheter d. Surgical sutures

Answer 49

C. Great care must be taken when the patient has a urinary catheter.

Question 50

50. The reservoir of infection is located: a. Anywhere organisms can thrive b. On all surfaces c. Only on patients in isolation d. Only on already contaminated surfaces

Answer 50

A

Question 51

51. Assessment of changing patient conditions includes observing for: a. Skin that becomes unusually warm b. Patient expressions of discomfort or dizziness c. Lips that become jaundiced d. Skin that becomes diaphoretic, lips and nails that turn cyanotic, and patient complaints of dizziness or discomfort

Answer 51

D. The radiographer should be constantly observing the patient for any such signs.

Question 52

52. The normal adult body temperature taken orally is: a. 98.6° C b. 98° C to 99° C c. 99.6° F d. 98° F to 99° F

Answer 52

D. Choice A is incorrect because it indicates degrees centigrade. Choice B is incorrect because it indicates a range of normal temperature in degrees centigrade.

Question 53

53. Which of the following may be ingested by a patient who has been placed on a clear liquid diet? 1. Bouillon 2. Gelatin 3. Tea a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 53

D. All are clear liquids.

Question 54

54. Barium sulfate is classified as a(n): a. Dissolvable organic salt b. Inert inorganic salt c. Nonionic contrast agent d. Iodinated contrast agent

Answer 54

B

Question 55

55. A sphygmomanometer is used to: a. Hear the heartbeat b. Hear the blood pressure c. Measure blood pressure d. Measure body temperature

Answer 55

C. This is the real name for a “blood pressure cuff.”

Question 56

56. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg reveals that: a. The pressure is 120 mm Hg when the heart is at rest b. The diastolic pressure is 120 mm Hg c. The systolic pressure is 80 mm Hg d. The pressure is 80 mm Hg when the heart is at rest

Answer 56

D. The numerator indicates the blood pressure when the heart is pumping, the systolic pressure. The denominator indicates the blood pressure when the heart is at rest, the diastolic pressure. The symbol “Hg” stands for mercury.

Question 57

57. When oxygen is administered, the usual rate is: a. 3 to 5 lb/minute b. 3 to 5 L/hour c. 3 to 5 L/minute d. 5 to 7 L/minute

Answer 57

C. Be certain to flow the oxygen at the proper rate, which is per minute.

Question 58

58. A mechanical method used to clear the patient’s airway is called: a. The Heimlich maneuver b. CPR c. Suctioning d. NG tube insertion

Answer 58

C. The Heimlich maneuver is performed by a person, CPR is for cardiac/respiratory arrest, and a nasogastric (NG) tube is for introducing substances directly into the stomach.

Question 59

59. Which of the following contains all the instruments and medications necessary for dealing with cardiac arrest? a. Crash cart b. Tackle box c. IVP cabinet d. Code cabinet

Answer 59

A. The radiographer must always be familiar with the contents of the crash cart and what each item does.

Question 60

60. What condition is caused by loss of a large amount of blood or plasma? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock

Answer 60

C. Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to foreign proteins, cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, and septic shock occurs when toxins produced during infection cause a dramatic drop in blood pressure.

Question 61

61. What causes blood to pool in peripheral vessels? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Neurogenic shock

Answer 61

D. Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to foreign proteins, cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, and hypovolemic shock occurs following loss of a large amount of blood or plasma.

Question 62

62. What follows an allergic reaction to foreign proteins? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock

Answer 62

A. Cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, hypovolemic shock occurs following loss of a large amount of blood or plasma, and septic shock occurs when toxins produced during infection cause a dramatic drop in blood pressure.

Question 63

63. What is caused by an infection that results in extremely low blood pressure? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock

Answer 63

D. Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to foreign proteins, cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, and hypovolemic shock occurs following loss of a large amount of blood or plasma.

Question 64

64. What condition occurs secondary to heart failure or interference with heart function? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock

Answer 64

B. Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to foreign proteins, cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, and hypovolemic shock occurs following loss of a large amount of blood or plasma.

Question 65

65. What condition may occur after injection of an iodinated contrast agent? a. Anaphylaxis b. Cardiogenic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. Septic shock

Answer 65

A. Anaphylaxis is an allergic reaction to foreign proteins. Cardiogenic shock results from cardiac failure, hypovolemic shock occurs following loss of a large amount of blood or plasma, and septic shock occurs when toxins produced during infection cause a dramatic drop in blood pressure.

Question 66

66. Which of the following is a symptom of shock? a. Accelerated pulse; extremely warm skin b. Accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin c. Systolic pressure less than 50 mm Hg d. Accelerated pulse; cool, clammy, pale skin; systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg

Answer 66

D. The radiographer must be able to recognize all of these. These types of questions may be on the certification exam because patient care in imaging is the responsibility of the radiographer.

Question 67

67. What should the radiographer do first when it is suspected a patient is going into shock? a. Call for assistance b. Place patient in Trendelenburg position c. Take patient’s blood pressure to confirm shock status d. Administer oxygen

Answer 67

B. Keep blood flowing to the brain by placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position, head lower than the hips.

Question 68

68. Which of the following statements apply when radiography is performed on trauma patients? 1. Work quickly and efficiently 2. Patient may be left alone if unconscious 3. Spinal injury may be ruled out if patient is not on a spine board or wearing a cervical collar 4. Observe for changes in wound dressing while performing radiography 5. Document in writing changes in patient’s condition a. 1, 3, 4 b. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 4, 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer 68

C. Choice 2 is incorrect because the patient should never be left alone under any circumstances. Choice 3 is incorrect because of potentially devastating consequences; a spinal injury should always be assumed.

Question 69

69. Which of the following is used to feed a patient or conduct gastric suction? a. Urinary catheter b. Chest tube c. Ventilator d. NG tube

Answer 69

D. Be sure to be familiar with these various devices that may be present in a patient.

Question 70

70. Which of the following is used to administer nutrition or long-term chemotherapy? a. Urinary catheter b. Chest tube c. Ventilator d. Venous catheter

Answer 70

D. Be sure to be familiar with these various devices that may be present in a patient.

Question 71

71. What is the site of most nosocomial (health care-acquired) infections? a. Urinary catheter b. Chest tube c. NG tube d. Venous catheter

Answer 71

A. Nosocomial infections are those acquired in the health care setting. Most of these infections are the result of urinary catheter use. This is similar to a previous question but uses the term “nosocomial.” It’s important to know both terms.

Question 72

72. What is another name for a mechanical respirator? a. Urinary catheter b. Chest tube c. Ventilator d. Venous catheter

Answer 72

C. The radiographer must be careful working around the ventilator so as to not affect its operation.

Question 73

73. The most frequently performed examination using a contrast medium is a(n): a. Small bowel study b. IVP c. Barium enema d. Chest x-ray study

Answer 73

D. Air is a negative contrast agent. Hence, chest x-ray exams are contrast studies. For the best contrast the exposure is made on the second (and deeper) inspiration. Exposure after only one inspiration is an incomplete study.

Question 74

74. Which of the following statements are true concerning positive contrast media? (choose 4) a. Air is the most commonly used b. Aqueous iodine compounds may be used if perforations are suspected c. Barium should be mixed with cold water for retrograde administration d. Nonionic contrast media are ideal for injection because they do not contain iodine, reducing the risk of reactions e. Barium is an inert substance f. Aqueous iodine compounds may cause serious dehydration g. Barium is a surgical contaminant

Answer 74

The correct choices are: b, e, f, g. Choice a is incorrect because air is a negative contrast agent. Choice c is incorrect because barium should be mixed with warm water. Choice d is incorrect because nonionic contrast media do contain iodine.

Question 75

75. Which of the following is a legitimate contraindication to the use of iodinated contrast media? a. Allergy to seafood b. Known sensitivity to proteins c. Previous sensitivity to contrast agents d. Allergy to any medications

Answer 75

D. This is the first and most important issue that must be taken into consideration. Be sure to read the package inserts that come with contrast agents and review the contraindications and side effects.

Question 76

76. A reaction at the site of injection of iodinated contrast media may be caused by: a. Extravasation of contrast agent b. Allergy to seafood c. Anaphylaxis d. Allergy to certain medications

Answer 76

A. Extravasation involves escape of the contrast agent into the tissues surrounding the injection site.

Question 77

77. Which of the following is a symptom (are symptoms) of a contrast agent reaction? a. Hoarseness and sneezing b. Sneezing only c. Urticaria is the primary symptom d. Hoarseness, sneezing, urticaria, and vomiting

Answer 77

D. The radiographer must be aware of all possible symptoms and know what to do immediately.

Question 78

78. After injection of iodinated contrast media, the radiographer should: a. Leave the patient to rest b. Remain with the patient and have a conversation with the patient, listening for signs of laryngeal swelling c. Tell the patient a funny story as a means of alleviating anxiety about the procedure d. Alert a radiologist

Answer 78

B. It is important to remain with the patient and observe for symptoms of a possible reaction.

Question 79

79. At the first indication of a contrast agent reaction, the radiographer should: a. Immediately shout for help b. Stop the examination and obtain help so as not to alarm the patient c. Continue with the examination because most reactions turn out to be minor d. Call a respiratory or cardiac arrest code

Answer 79

B. Maintain composure, yet react quickly.

Question 80

80. Hypodermic needles are described by their gauge, which is a: a. List of the uses of the needle b. Measure of the length of the needle c. Measure of the diameter of the needle d. Measure of the diameter of the needle opening—the larger the gauge, the smaller the diameter

Answer 80

D. This is sometimes confusing, so be sure to review and be familiar with it.

Question 81

81. Air must not be injected when performing venipuncture because: a. An air embolus would form and may become fatal to the patient b. Most examinations requiring injection are not air contrast studies c. It would interfere with the iodine d. It would prevent visualization of the iodine

Answer 81

A. Special care must be taken when venipuncture is performed. Review all of the steps in venipuncture.

Question 82

82. A smaller, easier-to-handle injection set that includes plastic projections on both sides of the needle and may be used for venipuncture is called a: a. Venous catheter b. Butterfly c. Hypodermic needle d. Single-injection needle

Answer 82

B

Question 83

83. A venous catheter: a. Is less flexible and more difficult to use than a needle or butterfly b. Is a combination unit with a needle inside a flexible plastic catheter; both the needle and the catheter are inserted into the vein, after which the needle is withdrawn c. Is only used for chemotherapy

Answer 83

B. Be familiar with all the items used for venipuncture.

Question 84

84. Place the following steps for performing venipuncture in the proper order. 1. Secure tourniquet in place 2. Thoroughly cleanse the skin 3. Wash hands 4. Select vein 5. Put on gloves 6. Perform puncture 7. Cover wound and compress site 8. Inject contrast agent 9. Check wound for swelling 10. Observe blood return a. 5, 4, 1, 6, 8, 7 b. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 10, 8, 7, 9 d. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 8, 9, 10, 7

Answer 84

C. You already know that any list of steps for a procedure will begin with washing hands. That immediately rules out choices A and D. As soon as hands are washed, the next step must be gloving. That points directly to choice C, which is the only possible answer to this question. Always evaluate the question and read all of the possible answers. Many times you will recognize a shortcut such as this.

Question 85

85. Venipuncture: a. May be performed by a radiographer where allowed by state law b. May be performed by a nurse only c. Must be performed by a radiology supervisor d. May be performed by a radiographer under any circumstances

Answer 85

A. Venipuncture is part of a radiographer’s scope of practice. It is tested on the ARRT exam. It may, however, be regulated by state law in some circumstances. Be sure to know what you can and cannot do on the job.

Question 86

86. A contrast medium overdose: a. Cannot occur because a contrast medium is not a drug b. May occur in infants c. May occur if contrast material was injected during the week before the examination d. May occur in infants or adults who have renal, cardiac, or hepatic failure

Answer 86

D. All relevant history and blood values must be present on the chart and consulted before the exam is begun.

Question 87

87. If medication needs to be ordered for a patient in the radiology department, a physician always: 1. Chooses the drug and the dosage 2. Selects the route of administration 3. Administers the drug a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Answer 87

A

Question 88

88. A patient who has sustained a head injury in a motor vehicle accident arrived in the radiology department alert and well oriented. While radiographing the patient, the radiographer observed that the patient was becoming drowsy, irritable, and less coherent. Which of the following would be the correct action for the radiographer to take? a. Continue the radiographic examination b. Ignore the changes in the patient’s condition, and place the patient back on the stretcher after completing the examination c. Notify the department supervisor or the attending physician of the change in the patient’s condition d. Sound an emergency code alert

Answer 88

C

Question 89

89. A reaction that causes the patient’s skin to turn cyanotic means: a. The skin is turning yellow b. The skin is turning white c. The skin is turning blue d. The skin is turning red

Answer 89

C. This may indicate that a reaction is starting.

Question 90

90. What degree of reaction is vomiting? a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. Severe reaction to contrast agent c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent

Answer 90

A. The radiographer must respond quickly and be aware that a more severe reaction may be imminent that a more severe reaction may be imminent.

Question 91

91. In patient care, the radiographer must be constantly aware of the myriad of variations among people of all backgrounds and experiences. This involves the study and understanding of: a. Nonverbal communication b. Diversity c. Verbal communication only d. Patient preferences

Answer 91

B. Understanding of diversity is a prime part of every radiographer’s practice.

Question 92

92. What degree of reaction is dyspnea? a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. Severe reaction to contrast agent c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent

Answer 92

B. The radiographer should be calling for assistance.

Question 93

93. Which of the following is always a part of the radiographer’s scope of practice? a. Patient education b. Administration of medications c. Serve as a resource person for referring physicians d. Serving on the hospital’s radiation safety committee

Answer 93

A. Although the other choices may be part of a radiographer’s practice in various venues, patient education is always part of practice.

Question 94

94. What degree of reaction is cardiac arrest? a. Mild to moderate reaction to contrast agent b. Severe reaction to contrast agent c. Not considered a reaction to contrast agent

Answer 94

B. A cardiac arrest code should be called; CPR should be initiated.

Question 95

95. A document that provides instructions regarding medical care that a patient may prepare before incapacitation is called a(n): a. Preplanning order b. Advance directive c. Physician notice d. Informed consent

Answer 95

B

Question 96

96. The formal term for “no code” is a(n): a. Advance directive b. Right to die c. Do not resuscitate (DNR) order d. Euthanasia

Answer 96

C

Question 97

97. Which of the following contains points that are enforceable? a. ARRT Mission Statement b. ARRT Code of Ethics c. ARRT Examination Content Specifications d. ARRT Rules of Ethics

Answer 97

D. The Rules of Ethics are enforceable by the ARRT. Be certain to understand these for the ARRT exam.

Question 98

98. Which of the following serves as a guide to professional conduct? a. ARRT Mission Statement b. ARRT Code of Ethics c. ARRT Examination Content Specifications d. ARRT Rules of Ethics

Answer 98

B. The Code of Ethics is a set of aspirational goals for radiographers’ practice.

Question 99

99. The patient may be left alone following injection of a contrast agent: a. Never b. After several minutes have passed and there is no sign of a reaction c. Immediately since contrast agent reactions are rare d. If they are of legal age

Answer 99

A. Contrast agent reactions can begin with very benign symptoms. Never leave the patient alone.

Question 100

100. The study of contrast agents, their administration, and possible reactions fall under the category of: a. Nursing b. Pharmacology c. Emergency care d. Respiratory care

Answer 100

B