Quizz Flashcards

1
Q

Research is NOT the same as evidence-based practice. Is this statement true or
false?

A

True

Research creates evidence, while EBP uses evidence to guide clinical decisions.

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2
Q

Which of the following is the first step in formulating a research question?

a) Reviewing the literature
b) Identifying a broad topic of interest
c) Collecting data
d) Testing the hypothesis

A

B

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3
Q

What does the acronym PICO stand for in the context of clinical research questions?

a) Population, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome
b) Population, Indicator, Comparison, Outcome
c) Patient, Investigation, Comparison, Outcome
d) Population, Intervention, Control, Outcome

A

A

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4
Q

Which type of research question is most appropriate for qualitative research?

a) What is the effect of…?
b) How do patients experience…?
c) Does X cause Y…?
d) Is there a relationship between…?

A

B

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5
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a well-formulated research question?

a) It is broad and general
b) It is specific and focused
c) It is based on anecdotal evidence
d) It includes multiple variables

A

B

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6
Q

Why is it important to review the literature before formulating a research question?

a) To find a ready-made research question
b) To ensure the question has not already been answered
c) To prove your hypothesis is correct
d) To avoid having to conduct original research

A

B

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7
Q

Which type of research question seeks to determine the prevalence of a
condition or behavior in a specific population?

a) Descriptive
b) Analytical
c) Exploratory
d) Explanatory

A

A

Descriptive research questions aim to determine the characteristics, prevalence, or distribution of a condition, behavior, or phenomenon within a specific population. These questions focus on “what” is happening without investigating cause-and-effect relationships.
e.g. “What is the prevalence of hypertension among adults in Singapore?”

Analytical: Focuses on understanding relationships or associations between variables
e.g., “Is smoking associated with lung cancer?”

Exploratory: Seeks to investigate new or poorly understood topics to generate ideas or hypotheses
e.g., “What factors influence patient satisfaction in hospitals?”

Explanatory: Aims to explain why or how a phenomenon occurs, often focusing on cause-and-effect relationships e.g., “Why does physical activity reduce the risk of heart disease?”

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8
Q

In the PICO framework, what does “C” typically represent?

a) Control
b) Comparison
c) Condition
d) Cause

A

B

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9
Q

Which of the following is an example of a poorly formulated research question?

a) What are the effects of exercise on blood pressure in adults aged 50-60?
b) How does diet influence the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes in adolescents?
c) What are the patient outcomes following the implementation of a new surgical technique?
d) Why is health important?

A

D

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10
Q

Which type of research question is best suited for a randomized controlled trial
(RCT)?

a) What is the prevalence of hypertension in adults over 60?
b) How do nurses perceive their role in patient education?
c) Does drug A reduce blood pressure more effectively than drug B in patients with
hypertension?
d) What are the barriers to healthcare access in rural communities?

A

C

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11
Q

Which of the following sampling strategies is MOST commonly used in qualitative
research?

a) Convenience sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Snowball sampling
d) Stratified sampling

A

C

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12
Q

You are planning to explore the experiences of patients with rare diseases. Which of
the following is the MOST appropriate sampling strategy?

a) Convenience sampling
b) Random sampling
c) Snowball sampling
d) Stratified sampling

A

C

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13
Q

You aim to explore participants’ perception of perioperative care. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate research design for this study?

a) Experimental study
b) Descriptive correlational study
c) Descriptive qualitative study
d) Cohort study

A

C

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14
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes qualitative research?

a) The use of close-ended questions to solicit an in-depth understanding
b) Using numerical data to describe participants’ experiences
c) The use of interviews to gather information about a phenomenon of interest
d) Qualitative research seeks to generalize its findings

A

C

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15
Q

You are interested in understanding the developing a theory to understand the
mechanisms of resilience among undergraduate students. Which of the following qualitative approach is MOST suitable?

a) Grounded theory
b) Phenomenology
c) Ethnography
d) Participatory action research

A

A.

Grounded theory: when you want to develop a theory about a process, behavior, or phenomenon, such as understanding the mechanisms of resilience among undergraduate students. It involves collecting and analyzing data to identify patterns and build a theory grounded in the data.

Phenomenology: Focuses on exploring and understanding people’s lived experiences of a phenomenon. This approach is not primarily aimed at developing a theory but rather at capturing the essence of an experience (e.g., “What is it like to experience resilience as a student?”).

c) Ethnography: Studies the culture or social practices of a group. While it could explore how students navigate their environment, it focuses on cultural and social aspects rather than developing a theory.
e.g. Studying the culture of undergraduate students in a particular institution.

Participatory Action Research: Involves collaboration with participants to solve a problem or bring about change in their community. This approach is more action-oriented and less focused on theory development.
e.g. Working with students to co-design strategies for building resilience

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16
Q

What is the primary goal of quantitative research?

a) To explore and describe a phenomenon in-depth
b) To identify patterns and relationships between variables
c) To generate new theories and hypotheses
d) To understand the subjective experiences of participants

A

B

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17
Q

The key defining characteristic of experimental research is that:

a) The independent variable is manipulated
b) Hypotheses are proved
c) A positive correlation exists
d) Samples are large

A

A

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18
Q

In an experiment, the group that does not receive the intervention is called:

a) The experimental group
b) The participant group
c) The control group
d) The treatment group

A

C

19
Q

When each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected, this is called:

a) A snowball sampling
b) A convenience sampling
c) A random probability sampling
d) A non-random sampling

A

C

20
Q

Which of the following is an example of a longitudinal study design?

a) A study comparing the blood pressure levels in 2 groups of patients on the same day
b) A study measuring the effect of a new diet on cholesterol levels at the baseline, then followed up every six months over three years
c) A survey conducted to determine nursing satisfaction at a single point in time
d) A cross-sectional study comparing smoking rates among different age groups

A

B

21
Q

Identify the following as nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio level data

Flavors of frozen yogurt _____________________

A

Nominal

22
Q

Identify the following as nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio level data

Amount of money in savings accounts _____________

A

Ratio

23
Q

Identify the following as nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio level data

GMAT score results ________________

A

Interval

24
Q

Identify the following as nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio level data

Ice cream flavor preference ____________

A

Ordinal

Ordinal Data involves ranking or ordering of categories.

For example, if respondents are asked to rank their favorite ice cream flavors, such as:
1st: Chocolate
2nd: Vanilla
3rd: Strawberry

In this case, the data becomes ordinal because there is a ranking, even though the differences between ranks are not quantified.

If the question simply lists ice cream flavors as categories (like “vanilla, chocolate, strawberry”), it is nominal.
However, if preferences are ranked or ordered, it becomes ordinal.

25
Q

Identify the following as nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio level data

Instructors classified as : Easy, Difficult or Impossible

A

Ordinal

26
Q

Which method is commonly used to assess the reliability among different raters or
observers in a study?

a) Cronbach’s alpha
b) Pearson correlation
c) Kappa statistic
d) ANOVA

A

C

Kappa statistic is commonly used to measure inter-rater reliability or agreement among different raters or observers. It evaluates the extent to which raters agree on categorical data, while accounting for the agreement that could occur by chance.

Cronbach’s alpha: Used to assess the internal consistency reliability of a scale, which measures how well the items on a test or questionnaire are related to each other.

Pearson correlation: Measures the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two continuous variables, not agreement between raters.

ANOVA: Analyzes differences between group means in a dataset, but it is not used for reliability or agreement.

27
Q

What is the difference between reliability and validity in the context of a nursing research study?

a) Reliability refers to the accuracy of the measurement, and validity refers to the consistency of the measurement.
b) Reliability refers to the consistency of the measurement, and validity refers to the accuracy of the measurement.
c) Reliability and validity both refer to the accuracy of the measurement.
d) Reliability and validity both refer to the consistency of the measurement.

A

B

28
Q

If a scale measuring anxiety gives similar scores upon repeated tests over a short
period, assuming that the actual level of anxiety has not changed, this demonstrates the scale’s:
a) Inter-rater reliability
b) Internal consistency
c) Test-retest reliability
d) Concurrent validity

A

C

Test-retest reliability refers to the ability of a scale or instrument to produce consistent results when the same measurement is taken on different occasions, assuming the condition being measured has not changed.

Inter-rater reliability: Measures the agreement between different raters or observers, not consistency over time.

Internal consistency: Refers to how well the items on a scale are correlated and measure the same underlying construct (e.g., anxiety).

Concurrent validity: Refers to how well a test correlates with another established measure of the same construct, at the same time.

29
Q

If a blood pressure cuff consistently gives a reading that is 10 mmHg higher than the actual blood pressure, this error affects the cuff’s:

a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Usability
d) Feasibility

A

B

Reliability: consistency of the measurement
Validity: accuracy of the measurement

30
Q

In a study testing the effectiveness of a new brief cognitive test against a gold
standard diagnostic test at the same time for detecting cognitive impairment in patients, which type of criterion-related validity would be most appropriate to establish?

a) Construct validity
b) Predictive validity
c) Concurrent validity
d) Content validity

A

C

Concurrent validity: Refers to how well a test correlates with another established measure of the same construct, at the same time.

31
Q

Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

A. Variance
B. Standard deviation
C. Mean
D. Range

A

C

mean, along with the median and mode, is a measure of central tendency

variance, standard deviation, range measure variability.

32
Q

What does the median represent in a data set?

A. The most frequently occurring value
B. The average value
C. The middle value when the data is arranged in order
D. The value that occurs least often

A

C

33
Q

Which measure of dispersion is most affected by extreme values?

A. Range
B. Interquartile range
C. Standard deviation
D. Median

A

A

Range is the difference between the maximum and minimum values in a dataset

Interquartile Range (IQR): Measures the spread of the middle 50% of the data (between the 25th and 75th percentiles). It is resistant to extreme values because it does not consider the highest or lowest values.

Standard Deviation: Measures the average deviation of data points from the mean. While it is influenced by extreme values, it is less directly affected than the range because it considers all data points

Median: Is not a measure of dispersion. The median is a measure of central tendency and is robust against extreme values.

34
Q

A histogram is used to display which type of data?

A. Categorical data
B. Nominal data
C. Ordinal data
D. Continuous data

A

D

Histograms are best suited for continuous data to visualize the frequency distribution of numerical variables

Categorical data: Categorical data (e.g., colors, types of fruits) is better visualized using bar charts, not histograms. Bar charts have gaps between bars, while histograms do not

Nominal data: A type of categorical data with no intrinsic order (e.g., eye color). It is also typically displayed using bar charts or pie charts.

Ordinal data: While ordinal data (e.g., “satisfaction levels: low, medium, high”) has an order, it is not continuous. Ordinal data is often displayed with bar charts rather than histograms.

35
Q

What type of error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually
true?

A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C. Type III error
D. Type IV error

A

A

Type II error: Occurs when the null hypothesis is not rejected even though it is actually false. (false negative)

Type III error: Rarely used in statistical contexts. It refers to correctly rejecting the null hypothesis but misinterpreting or solving the wrong problem.

Type IV error: Not commonly defined in standard statistical contexts; it may refer to errors related to specific decision-making frameworks but is not relevant here.

36
Q

Which of the following is necessary when obtaining informed consent?

a. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b. A description of the purpose of the research
c. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years

A

B

37
Q

What is the purpose of submitting a researcher’s curriculum vitae to the ethics
board?

a. To showcase the researchers’ publications
b. To ensure that the researcher is sufficiently qualified to conduct the research
c. To ensure that the research design is sound
d. To prevent any malpractice

A

B

Curriculum vitae (CV): to verify that the researcher has the necessary qualifications, expertise, and experience to safely and competently conduct the proposed study. This ensures that the research is carried out ethically and effectively, protecting participants from harm.

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT an ethical guideline for conducting research with
humans?

a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants, they must continue until the study has been completed
c. Keeping participants’ identity anonymous
d. Telling participants, they are free to withdraw at any time

A

B

39
Q

You are conducting research among healthy volunteers in the community, which of
the following is the MOST suitable ethics board to apply to?

a. Centralized Institutional Review Board
b. Domain Specific Review Board
c. NUS Institutional Review Board
d. Agency for Integrated care ethics review board

A

C

40
Q

What do the research participants must give before they can participate in a study?

a. Guidelines
b. A commitment to complete the study
c. Informed consent
d. Socio-demographic data

A

C

41
Q

Which of the following is the first step in the process of evidence-based practice
(EBP)?

a) Evaluating the outcomes
b) Formulating a clinical question
c) Searching for the best evidence
d) Appraising the evidence

A

B

42
Q

Which type of study is considered the highest level of evidence in the evidence
hierarchy?

a) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
b) Cohort study
c) Case-control study
d) Systematic review and meta-analysis

A

D

43
Q

Which of the following best defines evidence-based practice in healthcare?

a) The use of clinical expertise alone to make healthcare decisions.
b) The integration of best research evidence with clinical expertise and patient
values.
c) Decision-making based solely on patient preferences and experiences.
d) The implementation of traditional healthcare practices without question.

A

B