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PID > Quiz Questions Exam 1 > Flashcards

Quiz Questions Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the One Health Initiative?

A

Human Health, animal health, and global health are inextricably linked

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2
Q

Most emerging infectious disease outbreaks occur for what reason?

A

Humans encroach on wilderness and wildlife, changing the balance of the ecosystem

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3
Q

What factors led to the increase in Lyme disease in the US?

A

Deforestation caused the loss of predators of the white-footed mouse, which is a very bad groomer, so overpopulation of infected mice led to higher rates of infected ticks and higher rates of transmission to humans

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4
Q

Which factors have led to decreases in the incidence of infectious diseases?

A

Vaccines, drug development, education

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5
Q

What is the primary difference between a Gram + and Gram - bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram+ has a thick peptidoglycan layer with teichoic acids and Gram- has a thin peptidoglycan layer with an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides

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6
Q

Why do some bacteria produce spores?

A

Spores allow the bacteria to survive in a dormant state under environmentally harsh conditions.

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7
Q

What are the characteristics that define a Virus?

A
  • Obligate intracellular parasite

- chromosome can be RNA, DNA, segmented, and packaged inside either a naked capsid or a capsid with an envelope

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8
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- environmentally labile

A

naked

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9
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- spread easily by fomites

A

naked

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10
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- released by budding

A

enveloped

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11
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- detergents destroy infectivity

A

enveloped

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12
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- still infectious if it dries out

A

naked

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13
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- requires antibodies and cell-mediated immune response

A

enveloped

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14
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- survives the gut to cause foodborne illness

A

naked

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15
Q

envelope or naked capsid:

- coated with lipids and glycoproteins

A

enveloped

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16
Q

Bacterial and viruses make errors during replication, resulting in mutations in genomes.

A
  • Bacteria have multiple mechanisms for genetic repair, including recombination, SOS response, and excision
  • Homologous recombination is used by both bacteria and viruses to repair genetic mutations, and also gain functions such as antibiotic/antiviral resistance
  • Mutation and repair mechanisms can be used to engineer bacteria and viruses for use in medical applications and as tools for research
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17
Q

There are 7 steps all viruses must go through to effectively replicate. What is not a step in the replication cycle of a naked capsid virus?

A
  • budding
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18
Q

A lipopolysaccharide is:

A
  • only gram - bacteria
  • also called the O antigen
  • made up of repeating polysaccharide units
  • an endotoxin
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19
Q

the first defensse against pathogens is

A
  • physical and chemical barriers
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20
Q

function of eosinophils

A

granular cells that defend against parasites by releasing peroxidase and phosphatases, and also involved in allergic response

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21
Q

function of basophils or mast cells

A

granular cells that release histamine during an inflammatory or allergic response

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22
Q

function of neutrophils

A

primary phagocytic defense against bacteria; these cells ingest and degrade the bacteria but do not present antigen to activate the adaptive response

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23
Q

function of monocytes

A

circulating cells that differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells in tissues

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24
Q

function of dendritic cells

A

professional antigen presenting cells that phagocytose pathogens, migrate to the draining lymph node, and present antigen to naive T cells to initiate the adaptive response

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25
Q

function of macrophages

A

antigen presenting cells that phagocytose pathogens, presenting antigens to T cells, and produce cytokines/chemokines to enhance the inflammatory response

26
Q

function of NK cells

A

granular lymphocytes that kill infected or tumor cells without requiring activation through a T cell receptor and MHC

27
Q

function of CD4 T cells

A

help initiate and direct adaptive immune response

28
Q

function of CD8 T cell

A

recognize and kill infected cells after activation by T helper cells

29
Q

function of plasma B cells

A

produces antibodies

30
Q

function of memory cells

A

remember a previous threat to response to a second exposure very rapidly

31
Q

during the innate response, what occurs?

A

Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria to clear the infection, macrophages phagocytose bacteria and produce cytokines/chemokines to recruit additional monocytes and neutrophils to the site, and dendritic cells phagocytose bacteria and migrate to the draining lymph node and present antigen to naive T cells to initiate the adaptive response

32
Q

What are the 3 main functions of macrophages?

A
  • phagocytosis
  • antigen presentation
  • cytokine secretion
33
Q

where do dendritic cells presnt antigen to naive T cells?

A

paracortex of the lymph node or the white pulp of the spleen

34
Q

receptors on phagocytic cells recognize specific types of molecules on/in bacteria and viruses. these molecules are referred to as:

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)

35
Q

What do TLRs recognize?

A

bacterial and viral DNA, ssRNA, dsRNA, flagellin, and various other molecules specifically associated with pathogens

36
Q

what are some of the factors in body secretions (tears, saliva, mucus) that have antimicrobial activity?

A

defensins, lactoferrin, immunoglobulin A

37
Q

Most cells in the body express ____ molecules containing “self” antigen unless they are infected or cancerous; if the express “non-self” bits, NK and CD8 cells will recognize and kill them. Antigen presenting cells phagocytose pathogens and express bits of the pathogen in ____ molecules to present antigen to T and B cells.

A
  • MHC class I

- MHC class II

38
Q

What is the result of the acute phase response?

A

fever, metabolic changes, and activation of the complement system

39
Q

the lymph nodes and spleen have similar purposes, but the spleen has an additional purpose. What functions do the have in common and what additional function does the spleen have?

A

both filter antigens from host fluids, facilitate antigen presentation to naive T cells and B cell activation, and the formation of germinal centers, but the spleen also filters old blood cells from the blood and recycles them

40
Q

branch of the immune response:

- targets extracellular pathogens

A

humoral

41
Q

branch of the immune response:

- targets intracellular pathogens

A

cell-mediated

42
Q

branch of the immune response:

- targets all types of pathogens the same way

A

innate

43
Q

branch of the immune response:

- characterized by inflammation, acute phase response, complement, and interferons

A

innate

44
Q

branch of the immune response:

- characterized by B cell production of antibody

A

humoral

45
Q

branch of the immune response:

- characterized by CD8 T cell, NK T cell and macrophage-induced killing

A

cell-mediated

46
Q

the process through which B cells improve their affinity for their cognate antigen is called ___

A

somatic hypermutation

47
Q

the process through which B cells change the base portion (Fc portion) of their antibody (to IgA, IgE, or IgG) after encountering an antigen is called ___

A

class switching

48
Q

A particular B cell that is activated independently of Th cells would secrete what type of antibody in response to an infection.

A

IgM

49
Q

What are 3 mechanisms used by CTLs to kill their target cells?

A
  • directly killing the target cell by releasing granzyme B and perforin
  • Inducing apoptosis in the target by releasing TNF-alpha and IFN-gamma
  • inducing apoptosis by Fas-FasL interactions with the target cell
50
Q

antibody component/function

- binds antigen

A

variable region

51
Q

antibody component/function

- binds to receptors on cells to faciliate phagocytosis

A

Fc region

52
Q

antibody component/function

- goes through somatic hypermutation

A

variable region

53
Q 
antibody component/function
- goes through class switch recombination
A

Fc region

54
Q

Th1 / Th2

- CTLs

A

Th1

55
Q

Th1 / Th2

- macrophages

A

Th1

56
Q

Th1 / Th2

- IL4

A

Th2

57
Q

Th1 / Th2

- IL5

A

Th2

58
Q

Th1 / Th2

- Extracellular pathogens

A

Th2

59
Q

Th1 / Th2

- intracellular pathogens

A

Th1

60
Q

Th1 / Th2

- IFN-gamma

A

Th1

61
Q

Th1 / Th2

- allergies

A

Th2

62
Q

Th1 / Th2

- antibodies

A

Th2

PID (10 decks)

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