Exam 2 Quiz Questions Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

A human does not become infected with Borrelia from the tick until about 24-48 hours into the bloodmeal. Why?

A

Borrelia expresses OspA in the tick midgut and it has to switch expression to OspC to migrate to the tick’s salivary glands and transfer to the human.

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2
Q

A person has a painless ulcer on his penis that doesn’t seem to be healing very well. What is the most likely cause of the ulcer?

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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3
Q

All of the spirochete can cause similar disease symptoms in a multiphasic presentation. What is the most obvious symptom in leptospirosis that is not typically present in syphilis or Lyme disease?

A

jaundice

  • Lepto is more likely to cause significant liver damage than either Treponema or Borrelia
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4
Q

Chlamydia goes through a unique life cycle. Which form is infectious?

A

the elementary bodies

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5
Q

Syphilis rates decreased dramatically in the late 1940s because of the introduction of _______ but rates began increasing again, mainly in men who have sex with men, associated with _______.

A

penicillin

HIV

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6
Q

Hutchinson’s Triad, associated with congenital syphilis, consists of which 3 characteristics?

A

Teeth malformations, keratitis, and deafness.

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7
Q

If infected by both N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis during a sexual encounter, you are more likely to develop symptoms from which infection?

A

N. gonorrhoeae if you’re a guy but with girls it’s about the same.

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8
Q

if it burns when you pee, you have:

A

either gonorrhea, chlamydia, or both

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9
Q

The most typical presentation of gonorrhea or chlamydia in women is:

A

asymptomatic

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10
Q

The primary reason that effective vaccines have not been generated against N. gonorrhoeae is because:

A

N. gonorrhoeae is highly variable antigenically making it a poor vaccine candidate.

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11
Q

There are striking similarities in the late-stage disease symptoms of leprosy and syphilis. Why do you think that is?

A

Both diseases are characterized by chronic inflammation and destruction of cutaneous, cartilaginous, and bone tissue by the immune system, leading to similar physical characteristics, although the mechanisms differ.

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12
Q

There were several problems with the Lyme vaccine on the market from 1998-2002. What were the problems?

A
  • The vaccine was recombinant OspA, which is only expressed in the tic, not the human.
  • OspA antibodies have been detected in Stage III arthritis, so the vaccine could be responsible for development of autoimmune-mediated arthritis
  • Public opinion of vaccines in general at that time severely, influenced sales of the vaccine, making it unmarketable.
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13
Q

What is the mechanism of Borrelia motility?

A

Periplasmic flagella attached at both ends extend the length of the spirochete, wrapping around the body of the spirochete inside the outer membrane. Torsion of these flagella cause a corkscrew-like action.

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14
Q

Why do syphilis and Lyme diseases have multiple phases?

A

Spirochetes are localized in the skin at the site of infection during the first phase and disseminate hematogenously for the second phase, leading to systemic disease.

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15
Q

Two major bacterial factors that contribute to infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis are:

A

antigenic variation of outer membrane proteins and intracellular survival

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16
Q

If a person has a rash on the palms of his hands and soles of his feet, he may have:

A

secondary syphilis

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17
Q

Why are most infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis unrecognized or undiagnosed in women? (2)

A
  • most are asymptomatic

- The primary site of infection is the cervix and minor discharge may not be noticed.

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18
Q

most likely Org. for :

- college students who have not been vaccinated, living in dorms

A

Neisseria meningiditis

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19
Q

most likely Org. for :

- men who have sex with men

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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20
Q

most likely Org. for :

- young sexually active teens and young adults

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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21
Q

most likely Org. for :
- Hikers, campers, and hunters in the northeast states (CT, DE, ME, MA, VT), Minnesota, and Wisconsin or southwest Virginia.

A

Borrelia borgdorferi

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22
Q

most likely Org. for :

- elderly female non-smokers who suppress their coughs

A

Mycobacterium avium

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23
Q

most likely Org. for :
- People living in poor areas of Brazil, Madagascar, Mozambique, Tanzania, and Nepal, and people who play with armadillos

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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24
Q

most likely Org. for :

- Young sexually active teenagers, and children in developing countries.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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25
most likely Org. for : | - tourists swimming in inland lakes in Hawaii
Leptospira
26
Bacillus anthracis edema factor and lethal factor are incapable of causing disease symptoms without:
protective antigen
27
botulinum toxins function by ____ at the ____ to prevent release of _____, resulting in _____
- cleaving SNARE proteins - neuromuscular junction - excitatory neurotransmitter - flaccid paralysis
28
Tetanus toxin functions by ______ at the _____ to prevent release of _____, resulting in spastic paralysis
- cleaving synaptobrevin - interneuron-motor neuron junction - inhibitory neurotransmitter - spastic paralysis
29
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - Hikers in northern NC in July
Rickettsia rickettsii
30
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - people playing with flying squirrels with fleas in rural eastern states
Rickettsia prowazekii
31
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - Farmers delivering newborn sheep or their children drinking unpasteurized goat milk
Coxiella Burnettii
32
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - people with immune suppression who have cats
Bartonella hensellae
33
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - Travellers to S. America who eat soft cheeses made from raw milk or veterinarians delivering calves
Brucella abortus
34
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - people eating meat on a buffet (particularly pork and sweet potatoes)
Clostridium perfringens
35
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - Deer hunters in the mid-Atlantic states bitten by ticks
Ehrlichia Chaffeensis
36
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - child who steps on a rusty nail
Clostridium tetani
37
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - people who eat home-canned potatoes or green beans or babies given raw honey
Clostridium botulinum
38
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - Senators who have upset their constituents or wool sorters
Bacillus anthracis
39
most likely org. to cause dz post-exposure: | - people in Japan bitten by red mites
Orientia tsutsugamushi
40
What is the importance of animals (or people) being infected but not showing disease?
They can be asymptomatic carriers, able to spread a pathogen to others without being obviously sick themselves.
41
One major difference between Brucella and Bartonella transmission is:
Bartonella uses an intermediate host (flea, lice), but Brucella does not.
42
Several hunters have come down with abrupt fever, headache, chills, myalgia and some have a rash. You suspect a rickettsial organism to be responsible. How do you determine which organism is responsible to treat appropriately?
it doesn't matter, treat with doxycycline
43
Ehrlichia and Anaplasma cause nearly identical disease characteristics but differ in two primary ways: Type of cell they replicate in (monocyte vs granulocyte) and Type of tick that transmits them (Lone Star vs Ixodes) .
- type of cell they replicate in (monocyte vs. granulocyte) | - type of tick that transmits them (Lone Star vs. Ixodes)
44
You go hiking and later that night, find a tick attached to your ankle. You recognize this tick as a Dermacentor species. You remove the tick promptly. Are you concerned that you are going to develop Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
No, the tick was only attached for a couple of hours, at most, and it needs 24-48 hrs to transmit the rickettsia.
45
Despite the name, where are you most likely to see Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Virginia, North Carolina, Tennessee, and Arkansas
46
A tuberculous granuloma consists of which of the following? Select all that are correct.
- epithelial cells - mycobacteria - macrophages - T cells
47
an effective immune response against mycobacteria is:
a strong cellular response
48
How does Bordetella pertussis stimulate cAMP?
Both pertussis toxin and CyaA
49
If Bordetella pertussis did not express TCT, would it still cause disease?
Yes, but it probably would not be as severe and it wouldn't last as long.
50
How does Haemophilus influenzae, a respiratory bacterium, reach the meninges to cause meningitis?
LPS and glycopeptidase impair ciliary function, allowing H influenzae to cross the endothelial barrier into blood. Then it spreads hematogenously to the meninges.
51
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces multiple virulence factors and toxins, and it's resistant to many antibiotics, so it's critical to treat any infection aggressively with Cipro or imipenem immediately.
False
52
The most common presentation from Legionella pneumophila infection is:
asymptomatic
53
The two cell types most often attacked by respiratory bacteria are:
ciliated epithelial cells and alveolar macrophages
54
Why are mycoplasma resistant to most antibiotics?
because they lack peptidoglycan
55
why is diphtheria no longer a significant problem in the US?
it is toxin-mediated disease and the vaccine produces a highly effective neutralizing antibody response against the toxin
56
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Hospital-acquired pneumonia or infection of burn wounds
57
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Haemophilus influenzae
meningitis in children 3-18 mos. (if encapsulated)
58
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Legionella pneumonphila
flu-like illness or severe pneumonia with multi-organ disease
59
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Mycoplasma pneumoniae
"walking pneumonia"
60
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Bordetella pertusssis
cold-like symptoms followed by paroxysmal coughing
61
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Corynebacterium diphtheria
sore throat with pseudomembrane
62
most likely presentation of disease for: | - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
progressive night cough with night sweats and bloddy sputum
63
How do you tell the difference between Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes on a blood agar plate?
S. aureus is yellow and usually non-hemolytic and S. pyogenes is white and beta-hemolytic
64
The most common diseases caused by Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes, respectively, are:
Skin and soft tissue infections, and pharyngitis.
65
Food poisoning caused by Staph aureus will have an abrupt onset within about 4 hours. Why?
You ingest the pre-formed heat-stabile enterotoxin when you eat the food so there is not a long delay while the bacteria multiply and produce the toxin.
66
Antibiotic resistance is mediated by 3 basic mechanisms. What are they? (3)
- modify the target of the antibiotic - pump the antbiotic out of the cell - modify the antibiotic so it's inactive
67
How did Staph aureus develop vancomycin resistance?
it picked up the gene fron Enterococcus
68
Rheumatic fever is caused by what mechanism?
Antibodies generated against M protein cross-react with heart and joint proteins, causing fever and pain.
69
You have a patient with symptoms of toxic shock syndrome. What would you find in her blood?
TSST-1 or Strep pyogenes and SpeA.
70
What is endotoxin?
Part of the bacteria, typically LPS of Gram- bacteria, that activate macrophages, B cells, and C' pathway to induce cytokine production, acute phase response, and inflammation.
71
An incubation period of a few hours after ingestion of pathogenic bacteria suggests that disease is mediated by:
heat-stable toxins
72
Heat-stable and heat-labile toxins of Bacillus cereus cause two different forms of disease. Heat ____ toxin causes vomiting and heat ___ toxin causes diarrhea. B cereus food poisoning associated with vomiting is most commonly associated with which food? ___ .
- stable - labile - rice
73
Systemic illness including high fever, non-GI symptoms, and meningitis is frequently associated with which one of the following pathogens?
Listeria Monocytogenes
74
What two type of cells in the intestines are commonly invaded by enteric bacteria to gain entry into the host from the lumen?
- enterocytes | - M cells
75
Which are the most common cause of food and waterborne disease in the US?
viruses
76
You go to the county fair and eat lots of fried foods, foods on a stick, and fried foods on a stick. The next day, you go out to the local Chinese buffet and pig out. About an hour after dinner, you have the worst diarrhea of your life. Which of the following organisms is MOST LIKELY responsible?
E. coli
77
most likely org to cause disease for: | - Graduate students having egg salada at a potluck BBQ
Salmonella
78
most likely org to cause disease for: | - College students who go to Mexico for spring break and drink the water
ETEC
79
most likely org to cause disease for: | - Infants in Guatemala
EPEC
80
most likely org to cause disease for: | - children who particpate in petting zoos, or their parents who eat the big juicy burger at the county fair
EHEC
81
most likely org to cause disease for: | - children 1-4 yrs old in a daycare center
Shigella
82
most likely org to cause disease for: | - `Children who drink raw milk on their farm or people who eat chicken in a restaurant
Campylobacter
83
most likely org to cause disease for: - People who eat raw oysters in the panhandle of Fl. (which is on the Gulf Coast) or children in Africa with poor sanitation
Vibrio
84
most likely org to cause disease for: | - pregnant women who eat deli meat or soft cheeses
Listeria
85
most likely org to cause disease for: | - adults with diabetes or liver disorders or children who eat undercooked pork
Yersinia
86
A guy comes into the emergency room with an open wound that is obviously infected. He tells you that he cut himself while fishing and "it got worse." There is significant swelling, redness, pus, and appears to be necrotic. Which organism is the wound most likely infected with?
- it could be any of the following, depending on other factors: - Vibrio vulnificus - Streptococcus pyogenes - Staphylococcus aureus
87
Panophthalmitis or ocular infection by Bacillus cereus is caused by:
a traumatic inoculation and expression of three toxins.
88
Antibiotic treatment of Shigella infection is not recommended because:
- it's a self-limiting disease - Shiga toxins are released only when Shigella dies - there's a greater incidence of hemolytic uremic syndrome after antibiotic treatment