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Quiz questions Flashcards

1
Q

If the Geographic Mosaic of Co-evolution is occurring, what would you expect to see when you looked at populations of two interacting species:

  • At any given point in time some populations are acting as mutualists, and some populations are acting as parasites
  • All populations are acting as mutualists at one point in time, and all populations are acting as parasites at the next point in time
  • All populations act as parasites at all times
  • All populations act as mutualists at all times
A

At any given point in time some populations are acting as mutualists, and some populations are acting as parasites

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2
Q

Game theory is a mathematical model that can be applied in evolution to (pick two):

  • Help explain why species strategies persist
  • Identify an optimal strategy for a species
  • Help explain why species cheat
  • Help explain why species cooperate
A

Help explain why species strategies persist Identify an optimal strategy for a species

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3
Q

Zooxanthellae living in coral are an example of a ____ mutualism:

  • Trophic mutualism
  • Defensive
  • Terrestrial
  • Dispersive
A

Trophic mutualism

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4
Q

Co-evolution can be driven by:

  • Both antagonistic and mutualistic interactions
  • Antagonistic interactions
  • Mutualistic interactions
  • Neutral interactions
A

Both antagonistic and mutualistic interactions

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5
Q

Given that the costs of mounting a fever are less than the benefits, the principle of asymmetric harm predicts that natural selection should result in which of the following?

  • Fevers only occur when an infection has progressed far enough that a fever will be necessary to help clear it.
  • A fever response is mounted more often than it is actually needed to help defend against an infection.
  • frequent cases where fevers would be beneficial but a fever response is not mounted
  • evolution of lower basal body temperatures
A

A fever response is mounted more often than it is actually needed to help defend against an infection.

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6
Q

Experimental infection of lizards with heat-killed bacteria by Linda Vaughn et al. (1974) resulted in behavioral changes that led to ________ in the lizards.

  • higher body temperature
  • increased rates of mortality
  • lower reproductive success
  • increased levels of aggression
A

higher body temperature

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7
Q

How can age-specific antagonistic pleiotropy account for senescence?

  • An allele that confers benefits at a young age might be favored even if it is deleterious at a later age.
  • Mutations that occur early in life are likely to produce more mutations later in life.
  • Early acting mutations are acted on more strongly by selection than late-acting mutations.
  • Alleles that confer benefits early in life also tend to confer benefits later in life.
A

An allele that confers benefits at a young age might be favored even if it is deleterious at a later age.

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8
Q

The mutation accumulation hypothesis for the evolution of senescence proposes that for late-life traits, selection cannot purge deleterious mutations. What assumptions does this hypothesis make?

  • Population sizes are very large and mutations have small fitness effects.
  • Population sizes are finite and mutations have small fitness effects.
  • Population sizes are finite and mutations have large fitness effects.
  • Population sizes are very large and mutations have small fitness effects.
A

Population sizes are finite and mutations have small fitness effects.

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9
Q

What is the precision grip?

A

positioning of the thumb and fingers that facilitates refines tool usage in hominins

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10
Q

True or False: Humans evolved from chimpanzees

A

False

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11
Q

True or False: Several physiological modifications throughout the entire body, and not just in the feet, appear to have been required for the evolution of bipedalism.

A

True

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12
Q

Which is NOT true of lactose tolerance in humans?

A

It is only present in individuals with (at least some) European ancestry

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13
Q

Of the following, which represents the oldest hominin fossil?

  • Sahelanthropus
  • Ardipithecus
  • Australopithecus
  • Kenyanthropus
A

Sahelanthropus

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14
Q

Lactase persistence is common in adult humans

A

False

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15
Q

The Laetoli footprints in Tanzania show evidence of what key trait in A. afarensis?

A

bipedalism

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16
Q

Biodiversity and species richness are the same thing.

A

False

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17
Q

Who hypothesized that the likelihood of species extinction is inversely proportional to the size of the species range?

  • Dave Jablonski
  • EO Wilson
  • Lee van Valen
  • David Raup
A

Dave Jablonski

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18
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the K-T (K-Pg) extinction?

  • Organisms with a large body size were less likely to go extinct
  • Several mammal species survived
  • The same number of lineages were present after the K-T extinction, but fewer individuals in each lineage were present
  • Only species adapted to the dark and cold survived
A

Several mammal species survived

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a proven method of increasing your likelihood of going extinct?

  • Having a broad geographic range
  • Having a small population size
  • Having a specialized diet
  • Having a low genetic diversity
A

Having a broad geographic range

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20
Q

You are given a choice to conserve only one of four ponds, and you decide to conserve the pond with the greatest phylogenetic diversity. Pond A contains five fish species and two plankton species. Pond B contains three fish species, two plankton species, three aquatic plant species, and two mollusc species. Pond C contains six aquatic plant species and five mollusc species. Pond D contains two fish species, one plankton species, and one plant species. Which pond (A, B, C or D) will you conserve?

A

B

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21
Q

Of the following, which does not appear to be a consequence of multicellularity?

  • reduced irreversible integration
  • specialization of function
  • division of labor
  • increased morphological diversity
A

reduced irreversible integration

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22
Q

True or False. All life has a tendency to progress towards greater complexity

A

False

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason that volvocine algae are ideal for studying the evolution of individuality?

  • They transitioned to multicellularity relatively recently.
  • Within the group, there are multiple, separate transitions to germ and soma lines.
  • The group exhibits extensive variation in its degree of multicellularity.
  • They readily form aggregate slugs.
A

They readily form aggregate slugs.

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24
Q

Based on the figure, what date of origin would you predict for organisms with around 100 different cell types?

A

500 million years ago

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25
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an individual?

A

It is an integrated and indivisible whole.

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26
Q

Hox genes encode

A

transcription factors.

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27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding regulatory enhancers is FALSE?

A

They can be made of RNA.

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28
Q

Which of the following is UNLIKELY to occur when a gene is duplicated?

A

The duplicate may impede gene function.

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29
Q

The scala naturae is the

A

view that all of life can be arranged on a single scale from simple to complex.

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30
Q

With whom did the idea that life evolves from simple to complex begin?

A

the ancient Greeks

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31
Q

What are the two reasons that natural selection between sexes is likely to vary?

A

Males produce more sperm than females produce eggs, and eggs are more costly

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32
Q

A species interaction in which two organisms live in close association with each other is:

A

Symbiosis

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33
Q

Diffuse co-evolution:

A

Occurs when evolutionary changes many species could drive evolutionary responses in many other species

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34
Q

What is Hamilton’s Rule?

A

If relatedness times the benefit of helping a relative exceeds the cost of helping a relative than altruism will occur

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35
Q

Game theory is a mathematical model that can be applied in evolution to (pick two):

A

Help explain why species strategies persist Identify an optimal strategy for a species

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36
Q

Karl Ernst von Baer proposed that the most conserved stages of development among vertebrates are the ________ stages.

A

earliest

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37
Q

True or False. HOX genes within a species rapidly acquire and fix mutations each generation to ensure the greatest phenotypic diversity and responsiveness to dynamic external conditions.

A

False

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38
Q

True or False. Developmental constraints can slow the rate at which macroevolutionary events can occur.

A

True

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39
Q

Which term describes the following: A evolutionary pattern when a species remains relatively unchanged over very long periods of time

A

stasis

40
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for natural selection to act to change allele frequencies in a population:

  • That the population mates at random.
  • That within-population genetic variation is present.
  • That this variation is heritable.
  • That there is variance in reproductive success.
  • That reproductive success is dependent in some way on the genetic variation.
A

That reproductive success is dependent in some way on the genetic variation.

41
Q

Fill in the blanks to make the following statement true: Adaptation describes _______ trait that makes an organism more fit to its environment, and that has arisen as a result of _______ .

  • an inherited, natural selection
  • pleiotrophic, natural selection
  • a phenotypic, in vitro fertilization
  • a phenotypic, genetic drift
  • an evolving, founder effect
A

an inherited, natural selection

42
Q

A number of important discoveries occurred in the time period between the publication of Erasmus Darwin’s Zoonomia and Charles Darwin’s On the Origin of Species. Which of the following was NOT discovered during this time period:

  • Hugo de Vries discovered mutations
  • Dinosaurs were discovered by William Buckland
  • Richard Owens described homology
  • Charles Lyell described unitformitarian explanations of geological features
  • All of the above were discovered during this time period
A

Hugo de Vries discovered mutations

43
Q

The Modern Synthesis is

  • a unification of Mendel’s ideas about heredity with Darwin’s ideas about evolution
  • a period of time before Darwin when ideas about extinction were developed
  • a hip band from the early 1980s
  • a mathematical formula pertaining to genetic drift
  • a unification of LaMark’s views on evolution with de Vries’ views about mutation
A

a unification of Mendel’s ideas about heredity with Darwin’s ideas about evolution

44
Q

Based on our current understanding of natural populations, what is the best way to describe intraspecific (within species) genetic variation?

  • Most species are heterozygous at between 5% and 30% of the loci in their genomes.
  • Genetic drift causes most alleles at nearly 90% of the loci in the genome to be fixed.
  • Most species are so well adapted to their environment that they have few alleles at each locus.
  • Most species are heterozygous at most (>80%) of the loci in their genomes.
  • Other than a few species that are at extreme conservation risk, most species have plenty of genetic diversity.
A

Most species are heterozygous at between 5% and 30% of the loci in their genomes.

45
Q

Darwin’s experience on the voyage of the Beagle was important to his development of his theory for which of the following reasons?

  • both ‘His visit to the Cape de Verde islands demonstrated the veracity of uniformitarianism’ and ‘His collections in South America demonstrated the subtle phenotypic variations possessed by all species’ are correct
  • both ‘His visit to the Cape de Verde islands demonstrated the veracity of uniformitarianism’ and ‘His time on the Galapagos demonstrated the mechanism of heredity’ are correct
  • His time on the Galapagos demonstrated the mechanism of heredity
  • His collections in South America demonstrated the subtle phenotypic variations possessed by all species
  • His visit to the Cape de Verde islands demonstrated the veracity of uniformitarianism
A

both ‘His visit to the Cape de Verde islands demonstrated the veracity of uniformitarianism’ and ‘His collections in South America demonstrated the subtle phenotypic variations possessed by all species’ are correct

46
Q

Darwin’s theory of evolution provided explanations for all of the following EXCEPT

  • the diversity of life on the planet.
  • why the vast majority of species are extinct.
  • why Earth is not the center of the universe.
  • the similarities and differences among species
A

why Earth is not the center of the universe.

47
Q

The Reverend Thomas Malthus was extremely important to the development of the theory of evolution by means of natural selection. What was his greatest contribution to the development of this theory?

  • His essay on the Principles of Population was influential to both Darwin and Wallace
  • He took over Darwin’s country parsonage so that Darwin had time to conduct his experiments
  • Mathus was an editor for the Biological Journal of the Linnean Society, which published Darwin and Wallace’s initial theory of natural selection
  • As a member of the clergy, he encouraged people to incorporate Darwin’s views into their religious beliefs such that there would never again be a conflict between religion and science
  • As a close personal friend of Darwin’s father, he convinced the elder Darwin to allow his son to take the voyage of the Beagle
A

His essay on the Principles of Population was influential to both Darwin and Wallace

48
Q

The proof of Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium is derived from a Punnett square. Where does the ‘2’ (2pq) come from?

  • There are two ways that an individual can be heterozygous, depending on which parent passes on the wild type allele
  • There are two alleles passed on by each parent in diploid species
  • Diploid species have two alleles at each locus
  • There was one ‘2’ for both Weinberg and Hardy
A

There are two ways that an individual can be heterozygous, depending on which parent passes on the wild type allele

49
Q

Darwinian fitness measures

  • the number of an individuals alleles that are passed down to the next generation
  • a measure of the resting heart rate
  • . the number of offspring that are produced by relatives of the individual
  • how many people a male sleeps with in his lifetime
A

the number of an individuals alleles that are passed down to the next generation

50
Q

If 17 out of 1000 individuals exhibit a particular phenotype, which of the following is a true statement?

  • The genotype frequency that produces this phenotype is 1.7%
  • The allele frequency for the allele that produces this phenotype is the square root of 17%
  • The allele frequency for the allele that produces this phenotype is 17%
  • The genotype frequency that produces this phenotype is 17%
A

The genotype frequency that produces this phenotype is 1.7%

51
Q

Three genotypes are present in a population at the ‘A’ locus. If ACAD = 0.2 and ACAC = 0.6, what is the frequency of ADAD?

  • 0.2
  • 0.8
  • 0.4
  • 0.1
  • The answer cannot be calculated based on the information provided
A

0.2

52
Q

According to Sewell Wright, populations are usually genetically structured by what abiotic factor?

  • Physical separation of individuals (i.e., isolation by distance).
  • Habitat (i.e., isolation by environment).
  • Physical separation of demes (i.e., isolation by environment).
  • Inbreeding (i.e., isolation by FST).
A

Physical separation of individuals (i.e., isolation by distance).

53
Q

The frequency of A1 among Continental populations of bats is 0.95. On a nearby island, the frequency of A1 is 0.65. There are approximately 1000 bats on the island, and each generation an average of one bat migrates from the continent to the island. How does the frequency of A1 on the island change from one generation to the next?

  • Over time, A1 will increase on the island until an equilibrium is reached between the frequency of the allele island and the continent. The equilibrial point is predicted to be m=0.3.
  • A1 on the island is constant, because bats from the island are likely to travel the continent at a rate equal to that of those that travel from the continent to the island.
  • Over time, A1 on the continent will decrease until equilibrium is reached between the frequency of the allele island and the continent. The equilibrial point is predicted to be at A1=0.8.
  • The frequency of A1 on the continent will decrease by 0.0003 per generation.
  • The frequency of A1 on the island will increase by 0.0003 in each generation.
A

The frequency of A1 on the island will increase by 0.0003 in each generation.

54
Q

In an inbred population (F = 0.2) otherwise obeys HWE assumptions, two alleles are present (A1 = 0.68). What is the expected proportion of homozygous individuals?

  • 0.34816
  • 0.2176
  • 0.65184
  • The answer cannot be calculated based on the information provided.
A

0.65184

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a true statement:

  • Genes are segments of DNA that code for a particular type of RNA or protein.
  • At a given genetic locus in a typical eukaryotic genome, only some of the single nucleotide mutations will result in a new phenotype for Natural Selection to act upon.
  • Every mutation in the genome of a typical eukaryotic species introduces a new phenotype for Natural Selection to act upon.
A

Every mutation in the genome of a typical eukaryotic species introduces a new phenotype for Natural Selection to act upon.

56
Q

In salamanders, a single genetic locus codes for the color of the dorsal stripe. Salamanders with one or two copies of the Ds+ allele have a reddish-orange stripe, while those individuals without any copy of this allele have a yellow stripe. Which of the following is NOT a true statement?

  • If 16 individuals in 100 have a yellow stripe, the frequency of the Ds+ allele is 0.6.
  • If 1 individual in 100 has a yellow stripe, the frequency of the Ds+ allele is 0.9.
  • If 49 individuals in 100 have a yellow stripe, the frequency of the Ds+ allele is 0.3
  • If 1 individual in 100 has a yellow stripe, the frequency of the Ds+ allele is 0.99.
A

If 1 individual in 100 has a yellow stripe, the frequency of the Ds+ allele is 0.99.

57
Q

In a population of wildflowers, flower color is controlled by a single locus. Homozygous dominant individuals are red, homozygous recessive individuals are white, and heterozygous individuals are pink. If 16 of 100 flowers are white and 32 of 100 are pink, can you calculate the expected value for FST? Choose the best answer.

  • Yes. FST = ~0.271
  • No. The question cannot be answered without knowing the coefficient of inbreeding.
  • Yes. FST = ~0.333
  • Yes. FST = ~0.5
A

Yes. FST = ~0.333

58
Q

What causes inbreeding depression?

  • The exposure of homozygous dominant alleles to purifying selection.
  • The exposure of homozygous recessive alleles to directional selection.
  • The exposure of homozygous dominant alleles to directional selection.
  • The exposure of homozygous recessive alleles to purifying selection.
A

The exposure of homozygous recessive alleles to purifying selection.

59
Q

Blending inheritance is problematic for Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection because

  • no one individual would have an advantage at reproduction
  • rare variants would be lost easily via blending
  • new mutations wouldn’t be present
  • the average individual would always be the best fit to the environment
A

rare variants would be lost easily via blending

60
Q

The frequency of A1 among Continental populations of bats is 0.95. On a nearby island, the frequency of A1 is 0.65. There are approximately 1000 bats on the island, and each generation an average of one bat migrates from the continent to the island. How does the frequency of A1 on the island change from one generation to the next?

  • Over time, A1 will increase on the island until an equilibrium is reached between the frequency of the allele island and the continent. The equilibrial point is predicted to be m=0.3.
  • The frequency of A1 on the continent will decrease by 0.0003 per generation.
  • A1 on the island is constant, because bats from the island are likely to travel the continent at a rate equal to that of those that travel from the continent to the island.
  • Over time, A1 on the continent will decrease until equilibrium is reached between the frequency of the allele island and the continent. The equilibrial point is predicted to be at A1=0.8.
  • The frequency of A1 on the island will increase by 0.0003 in each generation.
A

The frequency of A1 on the island will increase by 0.0003 in each generation.

61
Q

In a population of diploid snails of size N=1000, what is the probability that a novel allele caused by a new mutation at a locus that previously only had one allele will increase to fixation as a result of genetic drift?

  • 0.0005
  • 0.0002
  • 0.0001
  • 0.9998
  • 0.9995
A

0.0005

62
Q

Two genetic loci are suspected of being in linkage disequilibrium. At the pitx gene two alleles are observed in a population, the most common (pitxi) with a frequency of 0.7. At the eda gene, two alleles are also observed, with the most common (edai) at a frequency of 0.58. Given the haplotype frequencies (below) are these loci in linkage disequilibrium in this population?

  • No, because D = 0.036
  • You Answered
  • Yes, because D = 0.036
  • No, because pitxi > pitxii and edai > edaii
  • The question cannot be answered with the information provided.
A

No, because D = 0.036

63
Q

Quantitative genetics assumes that

  • many loci interact pleiotrophically to influence the phenotype.
  • many loci are functionally independent, but interact with the environment.
  • few loci are under selection.
  • few loci are actually independent because the whole-organism phenotype is under selection.
A

many loci interact pleiotrophically to influence the phenotype.

64
Q

Linkage equilibrium accumulates when genetic drift, natural selection, or population admixture produces haplotypes that are over- or under-represented when compared to the expectations of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium models.

  • True
  • False
A

True

65
Q

If the coefficient of linkage disequilibrium (D) is equal to 0.2 (D=0.2), what can we surmise about the loci in question?

  • the frequency of the dominant alleles at each locus is high
  • the loci aat linkage equilibrium
  • the loci are in linkage disequilibrium
  • the loci are likely to be subject to genetic drift
  • the loci are under natural selection
A

the loci are in linkage disequilibrium

66
Q

True or False: Population size does not influence the rate at which genetic drift removes heterozygosity from the population

A

False

67
Q

True or False: Natural selection always leads to linkage disequilibrium.

A

False

68
Q

Reinforcement is more likely to occur

  • in regions of secondary contact
  • in systems where there is paternal care
  • in insect systems where males display behaviors associated with mating
  • in tropical ecosystems
  • none of these answers are correct
A

in regions of secondary contact

69
Q

Bacula are

  • structures that potentially confer reproductive isolation in chipmunks
  • cysts that form on the backs of vertebrates
  • a type of vampire squid
  • canonical variates that decrease the variance of qualitative traits
  • both ‘cysts that form on the backs of vertebrates’ and ‘structures that potentially confer reproductive isolation in chipmunks’ are correct
A

structures that potentially confer reproductive isolation in chipmunks

70
Q

What would we predict the fate of a hybrid zone where the parental fitness was much higher than the hybrid fitness

  • both ‘the hybrid zone will be relatively narrow and short lived’ and ‘reinforcement should lead to speciation’ are correct
  • the hybrid zone will be stable over time
  • reinforcement should lead to speciation
  • parental populations will eventually blend together
  • the hybrid zone will be relatively narrow and short lived
A

both ‘the hybrid zone will be relatively narrow and short lived’ and ‘reinforcement should lead to speciation’ are correct

71
Q

True or False: in the morphological species concept, species are defined based on differences in discrete morphological traits only.

A

False

72
Q

. True or False: Species are difficult to classify because they evolve over time rather than being fixed created entities.

A

False

73
Q

Physical barriers that prevent (or reduce) the transfer of gametes include

  • all of the answers are correct
  • mating isolation – potential mates come into contact but do not mate (behavioral in animals, mediated by specialized pollinators in plant)
  • allopatric isolation - populations that inhabit ranges that are allopatric
  • ecological isolation – populations that breed at different times (temporal, like Rhagoletis), or in different places (habitat isolation, like Sticklebacks
A

all of the answers are correct

74
Q

How could genomic conflict play a role in the evolution of reproductive isolation?

  • all of the above are correct except ‘the hybrids may be missing vital genes which lead to developmental defects’
  • epistatic interactions are disrupted in hybrids, leading to developmental defects
  • Cytonuclear interactions, where Mitochondrial genes inherited from the mother are in conflict with alleles at nuclear genes that are inherited from the father can be disrupted, reducing the fitness of hybrids
  • the hybrids may be missing vital genes which lead to developmental defects
  • the hybrids may have mismatched alleles at certain loci, leading to a disruption of essential cell function
A

all of the above are correct except ‘the hybrids may be missing vital genes which lead to developmental defects’

75
Q

What is the definition of ‘species’?

  • both ‘the names given to a category in the Linnean taxonomic system’ and ‘a group of individual organisms that participates in a gene pool’ are correct
  • the names given to a category in the Linnean taxonomic system
  • a group of individual organisms that participates in a gene pool
  • a type of organism created by a supernatural being
  • a fixed, unchanging form
A

both ‘the names given to a category in the Linnean taxonomic system’ and ‘a group of individual organisms that participates in a gene pool’ are correct

76
Q

Which of the following is a criticism of the biological species concept?

  • all of the answers are valid
  • it can not be applied to organisms that reproduce asexually, and to many plants which hybridize freely
  • it can not be applied to organisms that cannot be easily studied in nature (for verification of RI) or to extinct organisms
  • gene flow is notoriously difficult to investigate
  • it can be difficult to apply in practice, particularly in populations that are geographically isolated from one another
A

all of the answers are valid

77
Q

True or False: All genes are single-copy in an organism’s genome

A

False

78
Q

Coalescence is:

  • used to trace ancestry of gene copies back in time
  • the process of reconstructing a phylogenetic tree
  • a process for understanding genetic diversity among populations.
A

used to trace ancestry of gene copies back in time

79
Q

If two species look alike, we can infer:

  • it’s just a coincidence
  • the species have hybridized
  • they share a common ancestor
A

they share a common ancestor

80
Q

A sister taxon relationship is one that:

  • consists of all the members of an ingroup
  • consists of the outgroup and the most recently evolved member of a clade
  • consists of taxa that share a most recent common ancestor
  • excludes any member of the ingroup
A

consists of taxa that share a most recent common ancestor

81
Q

A synapomorphy is a(n)

  • shared, derived character
  • convergent character
  • shared ancestral character
  • analogous character
A

shared, derived character

82
Q

Which of the following would not be considered to function as an island system?

  • a forest patch on a farm
  • a river
  • a lake
  • a mountain
A

a river

83
Q

One reason that bats are the only native mammals to some oceanic islands would be:

  • humans accidentally transported them on ancient sailing vessels
  • they can fly
  • they know how to swim.
  • they can avoid predation.
A

they can fly

84
Q

True or False: The Equilibrium Theory of Island Biogeography applies only to oceanic islands

A

False

85
Q

After the Permian, the southern land mass was

  • Laurasia
  • none of these
  • Pangea
  • Gondwana
A

Gondwana

86
Q

True or False: The wings of bats and butterflies represent homologous traits

A

False

87
Q

When more than two species are interacting, and evolutionary change in one causes change in one or more of the others, it is known as:

  • Diffuse coevolution
  • Pairwise coevolution
  • Predator-prey coevolution
  • Antagonistic coevolution
A

Diffuse coevolution

88
Q

True or False: The evolution of more diverse prey phenotypes should increase potential niche diversity for predators.

A

True

89
Q

True or False: Fixation of neutral mutations can increase standing genetic variation within a population

A

True

90
Q

For the syntenic dot plot below, what does the shorter line in between and perpendicular to the two longer lines represent?

  • matching gene sequences
  • a chromosomal inversion
  • a synonymous mutation
  • a region with high mutation rates
A

a chromosomal inversion

91
Q

Point mutations in the third codon position are most likely to be

  • silent
  • nonsynonymous
  • frameshift
  • none of the above
A

silent

92
Q

Joannanewsom musicalgeniusii (Fig. A) are evolving at a rate of 0.6%/week and 80% of their genomes are not under strong functional constraints and Mileycyrusii popstarii (Fig. B) are evolving at a rate of 1%/week and 75% of their genomes are under strong functional contraints.

Complete the following sentences:

______________will exhibit the most rapid DNA divergence, while ___________will exhibit the most new nucleotide variations overall.

A

Mileycyrusii popstarii / Joannanewsom musicalgeniusii

93
Q

Which of the following evidence supports the Enemy Release Hypothesis?

  • Invasive species are often less attacked by disease or natural enemies such as herbivores and predators than neighboring native species
  • All organisms are frequently attacked by disease
  • Many native organisms have co-evolved with their enemies
  • Invasive species often form monocultures
A

Invasive species are often less attacked by disease or natural enemies such as herbivores and predators than neighboring native species

94
Q

What evolutionary process would we expect small population sizes to lead to?

  • Natural Selection
  • Migration
  • Genetic Drift
  • Mutation
A

Genetic Drift

95
Q

The longer, narrower shells and the longer siphons in quagga mussels are a product of which type of selection:

  • Determined
  • Disruptive
  • Directional
  • Balancing/Stabilizing
A

Directional

96
Q

Would you expect genetic variation in a species under directional selection to:

  • Remain Constant
  • Increase
  • Decrease
A

Decrease

Evolution (11 decks)

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