Quiz Questions Flashcards
The central dogma provides a framework for thinking about how genetic information is copied and used to produce structural and catalytic components of the cell. From the choices below, select the order of biochemical processes that best correlates with the tenets of the central dogma.
replication, transcription, translation
Changes in DNA sequence from one generation to the next may result in offspring that are altered in fitness compared to their parents. The process of change and selection over the course of many generations is the basis of . . .
evolution
A cell’s genome . . .
contains all of a cell’s DNA
Where does most new membrane synthesis take place in a eukaryotic cell?
in the endoplasmic reticulum
What is the smallest distance between two points that can be resolved with a light microscope
0.2um
Trypsin is an enzyme found in the first section of the small intestine that starts the digestion of protein molecules by cutting long chains of amino acids into smaller pieces. Into what classification of enzymes does trypsin fall?
Proteases
true or false: a protein domain is a separate polypeptide chain that carries out a specific function as part of a larger protein
false
true or false: denatured proteins can often refold into the correct conformation
true
true or false: a coiled coil is a protein structure that forms when two or more helices fold around each other
true
Some proteins have alpha helices, some have beta sheets, and still others have a combination of both. What determines if a primary structure will fold into a alpha helix or beta sheet
specific amino acid sequence
What is a motif that would be expected to form a coiled coil dimer? X= any amino acid
(Leu-X-X-Leu-X-X-X)n
true or false: disulfide bonds are the only covalent bonds that can link together two amino acids in proteins
false
true or false: hydrogen bonds occur between atoms of the polypeptide backbone as well as side chains
true
true or false: nonpolar amino acids tend to be found in the interior of proteins
true
true or false: the sequence of atoms in the polypeptide backbone does not vary between proteins
true
which tri-peptide is likely to be on the surface of a cytosolic protein?
serine-threonine-tyrosine
transporters, in contrast to channels, work by
specific recognition of transport substrates
relative rate of diffusion of: alanine, estrogen, and sodium (fastest to slowest)
estrogen, alanine, sodium
which ion is most abundant inside a typical mammalian cell
K+
which ion would be able to freely diffuse through a Na+ channel: Ca2+, Cl-, Mg2+, or H+
H+ (similar size/charge)
to repolarize the membrane during an action potential what occurs
voltage gated k+ ion channels open
proteins that are fully translated in the cytosol and lack a sorting signal will end up in the
cytosol
what proteins would you not expect RNA from the rough endoplasmic reticulum to encode
cytoplasmic proteins
signal sequences that direct proteins to the correct compartment are
encoded in the amino acid sequence and sufficient for targeting a protein to its correct destination
how does the nuclear pore restrict passage of large molecules that do not bear the correct nuclear localization signal
nuclear pore proteins contain disordered segments that form a gel like meshwork inside the pore
which of the following is required for the citric acid cycle to fully oxidize the carbons donated by acetyl CoA: oxygen, oxaloacetate, or NAD+
all of the above
tripalmitin is a rare triglyceride made from 3 palmitic acid (C16:0) molecules. How many rounds of beta oxidation are needed to break each of the fatty acids into acetyl CoA?
7
which would yield the least ATP: complete oxidation of 4 glucose, complete oxidation of 8 acetyl CoA, complete oxidation of 8 pyruvate
complete oxidation of 8 acetyl CoA
true or false: in oxidative phosphorylation, ATP molecules are produced in the cytosol as glucose is converted into pyruvate
false
the direct energy source for generating ATP by ATP synthase in the light reaction is from
proton gradient across the thylakoid membranes generated by electron transfer
what processes occur during light independent reaction of photosynthesis
utilization of ATP and NADPH, G3P production
NOT water splitting
in electron transport chain in chloroplasts, low energy electrons are taken from
H2O
what is the final result of the electron transfer in stage 1 of the membrane based processes that drive ATP synthesis in the chloroplast
NADP+ is reduced to NADPH (final electron acceptor)
in stage 1 of photosynthesis, proton gradient is generated and ATP is synthesized. Where do protons become concentrated in the chloroplasts?
thylakoid space
direction of DNA synthesis
DNA is synthesized 5’ to 3’ and template is read 3’ to 5’
the enzyme that removes the RNA primer is __________ and the enzyme that eliminates supercoiled DNA is ___________
nuclease, topoisomerase
proteasomes act primarily on proteins marked for destruction by which modification
ubiquitination
true or false: RNA polymerase adds bases in a 3’ to 5’ direction, DNA polymerase adds bases in 5’ to 3’ direction
false
true or false: RNA polymerase does not proofread its work, DNA polymerase does
true
true or false: the eukaryotic cell must have a nuclear spliceosome to remove introns from RNA
true
true or false: prokaryotic cell must have a cytosolic spliceosome to remove introns from RNA
false
name some noncoding RNA
transfer RNA
small nuclear RNA
ribosomal RNA
result of high glucose and lactose conditions
CAP not bound
Lac repressor not bound
Lac operon OFF
examples of post transcriptional control proteins
spliceosome
Dicer
RISC
(NOT mediator)
which occurs only after a eukaryotic mRNA is exported from the nucleus
translation begins
what occurs before the eukaryotic mRNA in exported to the cytosol
polyadenylation at 3’ end
introns spliced
5’ capping
NOT an example of epigenetic inheritance
inheritance of a point mutation in a gene
examples of epigenetic inheritance
patterns of chromosome condensation, methylation pattern of DNA, regulatory proteins/transcription factors
5’ AUUGGUAA 3’
what is the anticodon on the tRNA in P site when release factor binds to the A site?
3’ ACC 5’
