Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Veterinary staff ratio, veterinary production, team member production and staff payroll % are 4 key factors involved in considering when to hire, what is the 5th

A

hospital work flow

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2
Q

____ refers to the degree to whichthe test actually measures what it claims to measure

A

validity

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3
Q

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?

A

When considering not hiring a candiate due to details revealed in pre-emplyment background check

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4
Q

When it comes to Individual Develp Palns what are the three main details that should be addressed

A

development, training, career management

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5
Q

ONboard with EASE stands for Encouergaement, Align, Solve, and

A

End

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6
Q

A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered

A

High Density

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7
Q

Regarding the practice client schedule, what is the definition of an emergency

A

where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client

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8
Q

You practicew has dewcided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice, what are the risks associated with the Bonding Philosophy?

A

The clients may not like all the doctors, lack of continuity of patient care

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9
Q

When empowering a team member it is important to define the task with clairty. Which part of the SMART system will do that

A

Specific

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10
Q

When it comes to management of daily work assignments ___________ and ________ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice

A

Delegation and empowerment

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11
Q

The benefits of cross-training include

A

Empployee knowledge of the practice as a WHOLE, and the roles of others in the practice grows
whe team memberes are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline
Places another level of employee accouotability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.

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12
Q

what are the federal retention laws for applicant documents suh as resumes and employment applications

A

One year from filling the position, unless you suspect the applicandt is over 40 years of age, then it is recommended to keep records 2 years

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13
Q

List the four elements necessary to ho;d working interviews

A

must be on payroll
must be eligible to work in US
Must be paid at least min wage
Must be covered under workers compensation

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14
Q

Fit is how a candidate will complement the culture, and POTENTIAL is the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience. Define IMPACT

A

is the measure of results the candidate has achieved in the past and is likeely to achieve in the future.

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15
Q

as it relates to interviewing candidates, what are the benefits of the use of a rating scale

A

a rating scale can help when hiring becasue it is challenging to compare candidates equally and consistently, especially if there are multiple members of the management team interviewing candidates for the same position

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16
Q

Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful iwth hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make itto the final hiring pool to choose from. true or false

A

false

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17
Q

what are phase training lists and what are four benefits of using them

A

Phase training outlines th4 progressive steps in the training for a specific position within the practice.
Helps insure team member are trained properly
Aidss in titrating information/instruction to the employee to avoid overloading tehm early in the process
Provides a sresource for trarining preparation forthe trainer
provides reference and review matrial fdor the new employee and phase training can accommodate a new employee that already has somej esxperience

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18
Q

what is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually

A

1-2% of annual revenue of practice

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19
Q

new employees must have immewdiate knowledge of what 5 safety details

A

Location of first aid kit, eye wash stations and exits
Location of all PPE and instructions on proper use
Location of all mandatory posteres
Location of hospital safety manuel
Copies of all applicable OSHA standards

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20
Q

List 3 most common reasons staff member leave practice

A

lack of positive, feedback lack of training opportunities, failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice

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21
Q

Name 4 elements of ten enhancing empoyee productivity

A

shared purpose, tools sto do jjob, sops performance strandards, engage and empower, reognize and reward, physical fitness, personal focus, team focus

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22
Q

the __________and __________ of the practice help define the core competencies that shouold be expected of employees

A

mission and value

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23
Q

why are core competencies important in staff development

A

Because they jcan be tiered to beginner, intermediate, and expert and because tehy can be considered in terms of rewared based compensation

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24
Q

Name at least 4 elements that should be considered in virtual team meetig

A

put your training on a diet
gain attention from the start
establish relevance
present information with a twist
ask compelling questions
conduct realistic demonstrations
provoke discusssion
enploye interactive activities
end with a bangh
prepare prepart prepare

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25
Q

in the 70/20/10 learning and develpment model, define the elements involved

A

70% learning within an orga should come from on the job training
20% from coaching and mentoring
10% actual coureses, lectures, and formal trainging

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26
Q

an effective appointment schedule system should have what two goals

A

to eliminate client wait time,
To max the efficiency of the doctors, the supportd staff and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures

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27
Q

In dense scheduling in PMP book, list hte breakdow of the three 5 minn sevios for a 15 minute annual wellness appointment

A

first 5 min= technician check in period for patient history and vitals
second 5= doctore is present to perform the PE answer questions, gather information and discuss preventative care
the last 5= technician and/or doctor may collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinte

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28
Q

what are three ways to try to avoid appt problems with clients

A

appt cards should be givwen to clients hwo make appt wihile at cliinic
proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpectefd appt challenges
advance reminders within 24 hrs of the appt is considered sbest practice

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29
Q

name 5 + detailsj to consider regarding appt scheduling criteria for making appt schedules

A

DR avail during particular teime
relative effiiency of the DR
tiem allotted to each appt
number of patients presented by each client
types of cases seen
# of exam room
hrs of hospital operation, incliding the hours for scheduled and nonscheduled activities
favored client times for vet care
vet technician appt

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30
Q

an unusual number of established clents arriving early or late to appt may be a sign of what

A

ongoing appt scheduling and time management problems at hospital

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31
Q

when it comes to staff scheduling ________ is one of the most desired employee benefits, therefore, it is an important component in staff morale, productivity ad retention

A

flexibility

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32
Q

name and define the five potential employee schedling options

A

rotating schedule= staff and duties and shifts rotate
hybrid schedule- mix of fixed and variable days
skill based scheduling- base on known skill set of the employee and needs of practice. greater skill set employee develops, the more flexible their scheduling options
split scheduling- when employee works for more than one business unit in single workday
per diem- scheduled one day at a time as needed by practice. most common among reflief DVM

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33
Q

Ultimately the _________ is responsible for the efficiency, function, aned flow of thepractice

A

Manager

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34
Q

Whe it comes to anaging daily work assignments, what does SMART stand for and give definitions

A

Specific- define the task, wjhy is it important andwhat are the expected outcomes
Measureable- how isthe task going to be measured in terms of progress or completiion
Agreed- boht parties agree on the importance of the task and how the results with be achieved. what resources will be needed to achiever these results
Realistic- the task being delegated and the goals being sought are realistic with the time constraintes that are in plajce
Time Bound- how and when will the resultjs be expected Creaate check in point on the calendar. It prevents micro=management and keeps lilnes ofd communicaiton open.

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35
Q

what are 5 responsbilities in the role of the facilitator in staff meeting

A

starting and ending on time
controlling topics
preventing negativity from overcoming team
prioritizing topics
tactfulluy prjeventing a tea member from dominating meeting

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36
Q

It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and ____________ can help facilitate this

A

agendas

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37
Q

List five of sseven ways to engage employees during a staff meeting

A

using visual aids
tasteful appropriate humor
publicly praise work well done and celebrate successess
do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at meetings and not miss out on the announcemnts
Request team members to present topics
learning games or ice breaker exercises

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38
Q

what details should be included in meeting minutes

A

record decisions and assignments
designated responsible parties
record the deadline agreed upon during meeting
who was present
what topics if any will be revisited next meeting

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39
Q

what is the best way to end a staff meeting

A

on a positive note

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40
Q

list 6 elements that should be includedf in employee performance review

A

conversations about mission, vision and values of practice
clarity about goals
addressing team meber accomplishmnets
adfdress concerns over policy and procedures
address potential conflict with teamm members or managemetn
address any lapses in judgement however these should happen on stop

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41
Q

employee performance reviews shoud be developed from the ____________

A

job descripton

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42
Q

what renders an employee performance review useless

A

lack of clear performance expectations in job description because without them team members cannot be held accountable

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43
Q

what are 3 most common ypes of employee performance reviews

A

360 peeer review
self review
job satisfaction survery

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44
Q

what are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review

A

hold all employees accountablew for their local performance outcomes
teach all employees to identify, deploy and develop their strenghts
align all performnace appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying and developing employee strenths
disgn anndbuild each role to create work calss performers in the role

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45
Q

the most successful employee performance review programs typically combine what four elements

A

regular informal feedback from supervisors
performance goals that are set by employee and supervisor
action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems
formal reviews that document the “big picture”

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46
Q

list potential pitfalls regarding employee reviews

A

spending more time on performance review than performance planning. More time should be spent preventing perfornmance problems
be careful comparing employees
forgetting the review is about performance and not blame
stopping reviews when pay is no longer tied to the review
believing the manager is in a position to accurately assess team members
Cancelling or postponing reviews
measuring the trival
surprising a team member during the review
thinking all employees and all jobs should be assessed the same way

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47
Q

a practice witout conflicts could indicate what type of practice dynamic, and what are potentialj negative side effects of those dynamics

A

staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team all thinks so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change
This type of environment can sap the teams enthusiasm and initiative. It can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinions isn’t tolerated

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48
Q

what is the 4 step method for successful intervention regarding conflict managment

A

1)confront the behavior- call 2 employees into your office (if 2 departments, call in the supervisors) explain that their behavior isn’t acceptable and that you expect them to turn it around
2) TAlk it out- explain that they are professionals and you expect them to listen to one another and work out a solution. Parties take turns talking and listening without interrupting, which should begin to discover solutions
3)hold team members accountable for solutions- once they have heard each other out, tell them you have confidence in them to find a solution, and give them 1 or 2 days and meet again to hear their solution
4)follow up and feedback-f hold short weekly check ins where you ask each team member in front of the other how things are going. Gradually phase out the meetings as the conflict resolves, and compliment them when you see evidence of cooperation

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49
Q

define at will employment

A

form of employment in which employee is serving the employer at the will of both parties. This allows the employer to terminate its employees with or without cause

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50
Q

define ideal witness to a termination

A

same gender, and in a supervisory position , not a direct peer of employee being terminated

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51
Q

what is suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor

A

they should be advised that it is unsatisfactory and that if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved. Re-evaluate at that time

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52
Q

name 4 express exceptions to at-will employment

A

collective bargaining agreement
specific contracts that indicate a specific length of employment
dismissals based on race, sex, color, national origin, or religion prohibited by title VII of civil rights act
dismissal because of pregnancy, prohibited by the pregnancy discrimination act
Dismissal based on age if over 40, Age Discrimination in Employment ACt
Dismissal because an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe or because they have exercised their rights under the Occupational Safety and Health Act
Dismissal due to bankruptcy, prohibited by the Bankruptcy Reform Act
Dismissal because of service on a feral jury, prohibited by federal law

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53
Q

staff meeting are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products but they rarely show a financial return on investment true or false

A

false- well done staff meetings raise practice bench marks thereby providing for total quality management, increased profits and improved compliance with staff recommendATIONS AND CLIENT ACCEPTANCE

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54
Q

what are some ways to engage team members at staff meetings

A

publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at meeting and not miss out
learning games or ice breaker exercises

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55
Q

Training meetings should be 20-40 minutes long for attendees to remain engaged

A

false

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56
Q

employee performance reviews should include

A

clarity about goals and direction
addressing team member accomplishmnets
adddress concerns over policy and procedures

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57
Q

one potential employee perofrmance review ptfall is _____________________

A

measiuring the trivial

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58
Q

which element is in the ABCDEF formula

A

decision confirmed and consequences

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59
Q

avoidance of the other person, personal attacks, hurtful gossip. barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice

A

symptoms of conflict within the practice

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60
Q

what are op 3 causes of conflict in the workplace environment

A

gossip, lack of training, lack of communication

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61
Q

after meeting iwth two team members who are experiencing onflict and you have told them that you have confidence in them to find a solution, how much time do you give them before you meet again to hear their soltuion?

A

one or two days

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62
Q

in what type of employment relatiosip can an employee only be discrplined or terminated for a sufficient reason (example misconduct, negligence or theft

A

just cause

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63
Q

o not misrepresent the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employees propensity for violence, or illegal behavior in order to avoid liability claims if _______________

A

negligent referral

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64
Q

an employment contract athat details a specific length of emplymneet is an exception to At Vill employment. true or false

A

true

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65
Q

Which plans are a blend of Fee For Service and HMO medical plans. they do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network

A

Preferred provider organization plan or PPO

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66
Q

The patient protection and Affordable Care Act requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty .

A

50 full time employees

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67
Q

Why are employee medical documents stored separately from their main personnel file?

A

While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records and The ADA and FMLA require that medical recrods be stored separately.

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68
Q

Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed

A

IN the #2 employee file that contains garnsishments in addition to background check results.. documents that have no legal role in hiring, firing , promotion, demotion or other employee decisions.

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69
Q

Which entity or entites require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately (mult choice)

A

The IRS and Fair Labor standards

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70
Q

Section ___ is part of the IRS code that allows employees to pay some health care premiums on a pre-tax basis, which reduces the employee’s total taxable income

A

125

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71
Q

Which of the following health care plans operate with a “use it or lose it” rule at the end of the year

A

FSA

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72
Q

The Employee Retirement Income Secvurity ACT (ERISA) of 1974 is enforced by

A

Depart of Labor

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73
Q

How much should a practice budget for continuing education annually

A

5%

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74
Q

The ___ form should be stored separately from the employee’s other files

A

I9

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75
Q

HOw long should records of job related injuries be kept

A

5 years

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76
Q

One way to begin to create an Operations and Procedures Manuel is to refer to the __________ of the practice

A

job descriptions

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77
Q

What are the 12 Cs for team building

A

Clear Expectations
Context
Commitment
Competence
Charter
Control
Collaboration
Communication
Creative Innovation
Consequences
Coordination
Cultural Change

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78
Q

What six factors are generally considered by courts in applying The Economics Realities Test under FSLA

A

the degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual work performance
The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used
The individuals opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skills
The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weigh toward employee status
The permanence of the relationship
The extent to which the workers services are an integral part of the practice

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79
Q

AAHA Compliance study showed vets overestimate client compliance by 25%+. AAHA came up with CRAFT formula for compliance. The formula demostrates vets control three of the four components of compliance. Define CRAFT formula for compliance

A

C= compliance standard fo care
R=recommendation
a=acceptance
FT=follow through
Vets control three of the four components of compliance-
Vets set the compliance standard
Vets make the recommendations
Vets provide the follow - through

The clients responsibility is the acceptance of the recommendation

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80
Q

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck and can also mean substantial pretax savings for employers?

A

section 125

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81
Q

Regarding evaluating medical insurance plans; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation

A

10Basic type plan- HMO-PPO-POS
2) details of coverage
3) size of providers and related services- facilities within network
4) Cost to employee-employer, dependents and co-pays
5) employee eligibility
6) Simplicity of Administration

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82
Q

What common veterinary employee benefit does the IRS require to be reported as taxable, and what percent is the cut-off for not reporting it?

A

The employee pet health discount policy discounts services at greater than 20%. All discounts after 20% need to be reported as taxable

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83
Q

Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file

A

1)employment application, resume, interview notes, background checks
2) job description
3) offer of employment letter
4) performance evaluations, education training
5) disciplinary docs
6) emergency contact
6) tax withholding
7)) copy degrees- diploma
8) contracts- agreements, non competes
10) EAP- change wage, position, department
11) leave of absense- attendance records

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84
Q

What one personnel file document should be stored away in a separate file of other similar documents

A

I-9

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85
Q

Name at least four documents that might be found in an employee medical personnel file

A

Health-life insurance
physician notes, return to work notice, limited duties, a notice of accommodations
insurance or workers comp claims
physical exam results
FMLA documents

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86
Q

What element of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?

A

Listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance such as afraid of agressive animals

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87
Q

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

A

Where does position reside in hierarchy
Who do they report to
Who evaluates their performance
How much authority does this position have

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88
Q

Job descriptions are required by federal law- Tor F

A

False

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89
Q

How often should job description be evaluated for accuracy, and what changes to the practice might indicate an update is necessary?

A

Yearly- more often in case of staff reduction or growth

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90
Q

What three purposes do hospital manuals serve?

A

A reference tool for standards of care and practice guidelines
Training and instructional tool
They define a standard to which employees can be held accountable

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91
Q

Which are common subjects in Employee Manual

A

Practice mission, vision, values
Laws of Importancve ADA EEOC FMLA sexual harrassment
Define full time verses part time
Employment policies-
compensation - overtime- personnel records
Benefits offered
Non compete agreement
Jury duty
Training procedures

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92
Q

Explain the difference between the Hospital operations and procedure manual and Employee Policies and Guidelines manual

A

Hospital operation is comprehensive text details every aspect of how want work done. Employee policies manual details clarity and purpose mission0values-details expectation, comp benefits

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93
Q

Where is it recommended to keep the Hospital Safety Manual

A

A central location

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94
Q

Which plans are a blend of Fee for Service and HMO medical plans? They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferrred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network

A

Preferred provider organization plan

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95
Q

Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer

A

Flexible Spending Account FSA

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96
Q

the Patient Protection and Affordable Care ACT requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty

A

50 full time employees

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97
Q

What are employee medical documents stored separately for their main personnel file?

A

While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records
The ADA and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately

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98
Q

Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed

A

neither is acceptable - should be in file with other confidential records that have help for firing/hiring

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99
Q

Which entity requires employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately

A

the internal revenue code
Fair Labor Standards Act

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100
Q

At the core of any safety plan or manual is the _____ laws

A

Right to know

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101
Q

A section on Chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary Health Safety Manual regardless of whether that practice performs chemotherapy t or F

A

True

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102
Q

One way to begin to create an operations and Procedure Manual is to refer to the ___________ of the practice

A

job descriptions

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103
Q

In regards to idenitfying your practice drive times, there are two common calculations: Radius and drive times. Which calculation is best?

A

drive times in my opinion

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104
Q

When leanding a controlled drug to another practitioner, what step is unnessary for schedule !!!-V that is necessary for schedule II drug

A

Use the DEA form. Copy 3 of form stays with the veterinarian who received the drug. Copy 1 stays with the registerd practitioner supplying the drug. Copy 2 is sent to the DEA

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105
Q

Regarding vets for work at more than one location; they may administer, dispense, and prescribe controlled drugs providing they have a current DEA registration at the central place of business

A

False- May prescribe controlled drugs if they are registered at some principle place of business. To administer or dispense they must be classified as an employee of a registrant, or they must register at each facility where they are employed.

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106
Q

Under what circumstance can a DVM dispense an adulterated drug

A

under no circumstance

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107
Q

In regards to a DEA inspection, what can the inspector copy without the consent of the practice owner or rep?

A

all records and reports involving controlled drugs

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108
Q

A controlled drug with a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, but does have currently accepted medical uses in the US, would be in what schedule of narcotics

A

CII

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109
Q

A non vet staff member may prescribe any non-controlled drug if directed to do so by a licenses, vet who employes them and if that vet directly supervises the staff member

A

False

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110
Q

Under what four conditions will many states all a non-vet staff members to administer controlled drugs

A

1)if they are agents or employees of a registered practitioner
2) they are performing the task in the usual course of business
3) they are acting under direct supervision of a licensed vet
4) they are under the direct supervision of a licensed vet

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111
Q

What is the process for lending a fellow vet a CII drug

A

Must use the DEA 222 form. Copy 3 of form stays with the vet who received the drug. Copy 1 stays with the registered practitioner supplying the drug. Copy 2 is sent to the DEA

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112
Q

List two steps to take when a controlled drug has been lost or stolen

A

Registrants are required to notify the regional office of the DEA using DEA form 106
The local police department should also be notified

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113
Q

Define Adulterated Drugs

A

Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack of adequate control in manufacture, differ in strength from the official compendium, or that are mixed with another substance

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114
Q

List 5 label requirements for prescription drugs

A

1) the statement “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed vet
2) recommended dose and route of administration
3)quantity or proportion of each active ingredient
4)name of all inactive ingredients if the drug is for non-oral use
5) Identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the drug

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115
Q

In regards to OSHA inspection; employers have the right to deny access to specific areas of the building to avoid disturbing the business process

A

false- employers have the right to require a warrant, or to request a postponement, but not deny access once the inspection/investigation has begun

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116
Q

A vet acupuncturist leases space from a general practice. Does the general practice need to share the hazard assessments from their department, even if the acupuncturist works in a separate part of the building

A

Yes. All separate businesses within a shared space must create a hazard assessment for the entire area.

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117
Q

What else might the entities in mult business situations above be required to share or address

A

Each separate entity within the hospital will need to provide the other entity with their safety data sheets or store the safety information in a central location

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118
Q

What five elements must be in a Hazardous Chemical Plan for the hospital to design

A

must be in writing
a complete list of all hazardous chemicals must be maintained
SDS library
all containers properly labeled
staff training

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119
Q

What question is permissible to ask during pre-employment screening regarding legal history

A

Within the past 5 years have you been convicted of a felony, or a misdemeanor in the last 2 years, or are you presently charged Whe

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120
Q

When it comes to scheduled drugs, the highest potential for abuste and the lowest potential for accepted medical use fall under Schedule ____

A

2

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121
Q

Which agencies have a role in the rescheduling of a drug, in bringing an unscheduled drug under control, or removing the controls on a drug

A

the DEA and the Attorney General

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122
Q

Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack adequate control in manufacturing differ in strength from the official compendium or are mixed with another substance are known as

A

Adulterated drugs

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123
Q

what is bailment

A

delivery of something of a personal nature by one party to another to be held according to the purpose of delivery and returned when purpose is accomplished. ex boarding or assumes custody of animal

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124
Q

When a veterinarian accepts custody of clients pet, who is Bailor and who is Bailee

A

Bailor is client
Bailee is DVM

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125
Q

What two elements are essential for creation of bailment

A

1) physical delivery of property to bailee from bailor
2) knowing acceptance of possession of the propery by the bailee

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126
Q

what is primary duty of the bailee in vet example

A

to return the animal either at a set time and be in at least as good condition as it was in when it was received. Duty of bailee is to provide care assessed by reasonable man standard.

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127
Q

The law of malpractice is an extension of the law of negligence; therfore to undestand the malpractice laws, a thorough knowledge of negligent law is necessary .The law of neglgence requires proof of four essential elements, what are they?

A

1) establishing tat the defendant had a duty to prevent an injury from occurring to the plaintiff
2) establishing that defendant violated that duty by failing to act in accordance with the standard of care expected of other DVMs under the same circumstance
3) showing that a reasonable close causal connection existed between the defendants DVM conduct or lack and the resulting injury
4) proving that the actual damage or harm occurred to the interests of another person

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128
Q

The AVMA Principles of Vet Med Ethics is an example of what branch of ethics

A

Official

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129
Q

What is the process for making changes to Veterinary Practice Ace laws?

A

Proposed changes must be submitted to the House of Senate and ultimately signed by the Govenor

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130
Q

In regards to Unjust Enrichment- the legal system will look for which of the following elements before considering applying the law to a situation

A

The more emergent the animal’s needs are the more leeway exists to provide the emergency medical care
The vet attempted to reach the owner prior to medical care
The extent of the emergency care required to stabilize the patient was reasonable.

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131
Q

What is the first A- in the 4 A’s to Rise above Moral Distress?

A

Ask

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132
Q

____ occurs when you know the ethically appropriate action to take but you are unable to do so or you act in a manner that does not agree with your own personal and professional value

A

Moral distressNO

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133
Q

Yes or No- If a driver hits a loose dog with their car and brings the dog into your practice does your vet have a legal responsibility to stablize that patient or euthanize to relieve suffering since the owner is unknown and a vet client patient relationship has not been established

A

NO

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134
Q

True or False- Having a client sign off on a surgical consent form is adequate proof of informed consent in a court of law

A

False

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135
Q

Which are the most common complaints to the board of vet medicine

A

Unsatisfied experience
lack of communication
unexpected death
recordkeeping

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136
Q

A clear statement of agreement to the terms offered is called a what?

A

express acceptance

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137
Q

True or False- IN a covenant not to compete, the scope of activity is generally restricted and includes a time limitation and geographic restraint

A

True

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138
Q

What laws involve a person who has been authorized to act on behalf of another

A

Law of agency

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139
Q

What is the 4th element of a contract

A

Intent to contract

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140
Q

Define Descriptive Ethics

A

Study- refers to study of ethical views of Vet professionals regarding their behavior and attitudes. Essentially what is right and wrong

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141
Q

Define Official Ethics

A

Creation- Involve the creation of the official ethical standards adopted by professional organizations and imposed on its members

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142
Q

Define Administrative Ethics

A

(actions) involve actions by administrative government body that regulate vet practice and activities in which vets engage. License revocation can result if any civil or criminal violations of thee regulations occur

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143
Q

Define Normative Ethics

A

(Search) refers to the search for correct principles of good and bad, right and wrong and justice or injustice

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144
Q

What is Vet Practice Act

A

A state’s or commonwealth law, codified into regulations, describing what licensed and non licensed employees can and cannot do, as well as acceptable medical standards, as it relates to vet medicine

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145
Q

What is involved in making changes to the Vet Practice Act

A

Proposed changes must be submitted to the House and Senate and ultimately signed into law by the Governor

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146
Q

What six elements do the courts want satisfied to consider the existence informed consent in a situation

A

1) consent must be freely given
2)Treatment and diagnosis must be given in understandable terms
3) Risk benefits, and prognosis orf defined procedure must be stated
4) Prognosis if no treatmetn is selected must be stated
5) Practice must provide alternative treatments, including risk, benefits and costs
6) Client must be given opportunity to ask questions and have them answered

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147
Q

The law of ______ was created to avoid benefit of one party at the expense of another

A

Unjust Enrichment

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148
Q

IN relation to Acceptance stage of a contract; what is the difference between Express Acceptance and Implied Acceptance

A

Express Acceptance: a clear statement of agreement to the terms offered that establishes an express contract
Implied Acceptance_ no direct statement of agreement, but is demonstrated by actions indication acceptance of the offer, leading to an implied contract

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149
Q

Although there may have been no formal agreement, justice requires enforcement of a promise when another party has justifiably relied on that promise, changed its position, and incurred substantial detriment. What is this situation called

A

Promissory Estoppel

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150
Q

When it comes to the Law of Agency, what two scenarios are considered likely to be common in vet medicine

A

Agency and Consents for Care
Agency and Consents for Euthanasia

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151
Q

What is goal of Sherman Antitrust Act

A

to guarantee the freedom to compete

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152
Q

Who is responsible for the intrepretation and application of the competitive objectives of anti trust laws

A

The courts, the Department of Justice, and the Federal Trade Commission page 177 law and ethics

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153
Q

There are two rules the courts will use when making a ruling regarding antitrust laws.. what are they?

A

The Per Se Rule and the Rule of REason page 182 law and ethics

154
Q

Maximizing inventory turnover is a key strategy in creating an efficient and profitable inventory system. Name 4 ways to increase your inventory turnover

A

1) product consolidation
2) order quantities that make sense
3) measure and increase compliance
4) doctor and staff product education

155
Q

According to Fair labor Standards act if a relief vet has a set schedule with practice but also continues to provide random relief shifts for other practices, are they considered an independent contractor

A

NO, because of the set schedule

156
Q

When it comes to the employement of minors, which age group can only work 3 hours per day during school days and 8 hours on non school days. They also cannot work before 7 am

A

14-15 year olds

157
Q

____ occurs when submission to or rejection of unwelcome sexual conduct is used as the basis of employment decisions affecting the individual (applies to protected classes as much as it does gender.)

A

Quid pro Quo

158
Q

Who enforces the federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination

A

The Equal Employment Opportunity commission

159
Q

IN most states the Principles of Vet Medical Ethics if AVMA can actually be enforced true or false

A

False, the AVMA princoples are based more on porfessional relationships one has with colleagues than moral and ethical issues relating to animals and they cannot be enforced by law as written

160
Q

Client confidentiality is a critical part of our profession, with that in mind, when is it considered acceptable for a member of the practice to take client liasts and information with them when departing

A

It depends on what the agreement was with the practice

161
Q

Does VHMA jhave code of ethics

A

yes

162
Q

Which is not acceptable contacts for employees to discuss client or patient confidences?
The clients agent
a concerned coworker
coworkers involved in patient care

A

a concerned coworker

163
Q

The difference between the cost of a product and the revenue it generates is called what?

A

Gross Profit Margin

164
Q

If end of year revenue was 2.4mil and profit was 312000, what is net profit margin percent

A

=312000/2400000=13%

165
Q

Which expenses are considered more controllable, direct or indirect expenses

A

direct are usually more controllable because they relate directly to specific income production

166
Q

an orgs debts or other obligations which must be discharged within a short time, (usually within the earning cycles, or one year) are called what

A

current liabilities

167
Q

What are the 3 main details the FSLA was created to address

A

1) establish a min wage
2) define overtime pay standards
3) regulate the employment of minors

168
Q

Can the owner of the practice be held responsible for the discriminating actions or behavior of their employee towards another employee

A

yes

169
Q

Manager Jan is relieved that her practice of 18 employees is too small to be required to follow accommodations under the ADA. Should she be relieved? why or why not

A

No, she shouldn’t be relieved, any employer with 15 or more employees is required to follow the rules of the aDA

170
Q

when it comes to discrimination in general, what employment matters, aside from hiring, are included in anti-discrimination laws

A

All employment decisions should be made without discriminatory intent or appearance. This includes wages, termination, advancement, discipline, etc

171
Q

Regarding FMLA define an eligible part time employee

A

Someone who works twenty or more calendar weeks in the current or previous years

172
Q

Who pays the FUTA tAX

A

EMPLOYERS

173
Q

Among other things, what act also outlines reporting and disclosure obligations, min participation rules vesting and funding requirements and fiduciary standards for employees who participate in qualified benefit programs

A

ERISA- employment retirement income security act

174
Q

What are the 7 required federal posters?

A

Fair labor standards act and min wage
equal opportunity provisions of the law
The FMLA act
OSHA right to know law
Employee Polygraph protection act
uniformed services employment and reemployment rights act
right to join or forms unions

175
Q

name six potential exceptions to the client confidentiality statues

A

1)the client or client agent consent to the release
2)The law requires disclosure
3) an animals health is at stake
4)a legal dispute has arisen such as malpractice or fee conflict
5) A board investigation or disciplinary proceeding exist against vet or animal owner
60 there is suspected abuse or neglect

176
Q

Employees are obligated to maintain client/patient confidentiality even after they have left the employ of the practiced true or false

A

true

177
Q

Employees can legitimately discuss client or patient information with what four people

A

1)client
2) clients agent
3) treating veterinarian
4) other employees involved in the patient’s care

178
Q

What entity requires vets to protect the personal privacy of clients and patients and not reveal confidences unless required by law

A

The principles of Vet Medical Ethics of the AVMA (PVME)

179
Q

What is considered a critical statement to include in your social Media Policy in regard to employees posting confidential photos/text on their personal social media sites

A

A statement that any employee conduct, including social medial posts, negatively affects the employee’s job performance, or the performance of team members, clients, patients, or distributors may result in disciplinary action up to and including termination

180
Q

If the practice currently has $94250 of cash on hand and the annual operating expenses of the practice are $1,677,000, how many days cash balance do you have, and is that a healthy number for the practice.

A

=1677000/260 is cost practice is 6450
=94250/6450 is 14.5 days is how long the money will last
a healthy number is 20-30 days cash on hand to ensure liquidity issues do not arise

181
Q

Employers with at least ___ or more employees who worked for the employer for at least __ calendar weeks in this year or last are protected from discrimination

A

15:20

182
Q

Which jobs listed may be classified as “exempt” from overtime?

A

office manager cvpm
veterinarian
(executive 2 reports)
admin
professional intellectual

183
Q

Pregnant employees can be prohibited by the employer from performing certain job duties to protect the developing baby

A

False

184
Q

Clavamox beginning of year is 2500 and end of year is 3000.. what is the average inventory

A

2500+3000=5750/2[=2750

185
Q

total clavamox purchased through year is 26000. What is inventory turn over ratio and is this considered an acceptable turns per year

A

26000/2750=9.5
this is acceptable.. there are conflicting numbers of acceptability in the books citing 4-8 and 8-10 turns per year

186
Q

Employees with at least ___ or more employess who worked for the employer for at least ___ calendar weeks in the year or last are protected from discrimination

A

15:20

187
Q

Which jobs listed may be classified as “exempt” from ovetime?
team lead who manages two or more employees
office mananager
veterinarian
cert vet asst

A

office manager and veterinarian

188
Q

Pregnant employees can be prohibited by the employer from performing certain job duties to protect the developing baby. Tor F

A

false

189
Q

What is considered more accurate, cash-based accounting or accrual-based accounting?

A

accrual

190
Q

which financial statement is considered the most important for smalll businesses?

A

profit and loss or income statement

191
Q

Is staff payroll c onsidered a fixed or variable expense

A

variable

192
Q

The Federal Insurance Contribution Act- or FICA is a payroll tax that is apaid by the employer or employee?

A

Both the employer and employee

193
Q

Which payroll tax is paid by employers only and only on the first $7000 of an employees earnings

A

FUTa- federal unemployment Tax Act

194
Q

What is an EIN number

A

It is a business identification number assigned by the IRS to identify tax accounts of employers

195
Q

AR this are over ___ % need the intervention of entire team to follow AR policy

A

3%

196
Q

Which ACT prohibits placing “ delinquent account” stickers on the outside of an envelope when mailing statements to clients?

A

The Fair Debt Collections Act

197
Q

What does the accounts receivable turnover calcuation tell us

A

HOw many times the accounts receivable balance is converted into cash and The ration shows how efficient a company is at collecting its credit sales from customers

198
Q

What 3 financial responsibilities are typically outsourced in most practices

A

1)Primary tax preparation and advice
2) Valuation of practice
3) Large financial issues

199
Q

Are wages for doctors who are paid o n a salary basis considered a fixed or variable expense?

A

Fixed

200
Q

Define Cost of Goods Sold

A

The products used to produce a service for the client, or products sold to clients

201
Q

Offer five examples of COGS

A

rx, over the counter, anesthesia, dental supplies

202
Q

This tuype of accounting recognizes revenue when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred. When goods are received and services are performed. Is this Cash-based or accrutal basted

A

Accrual

203
Q

Which type of accounting is typically considered more accurate

A

accrual

204
Q

What is another name for Profit and Loss

A

The Income Statement

205
Q

When comparing expenses on the Profit and Loss Statement it is impportant to express expenses in dollar amounts but also as _______

A

a % of gross

206
Q

The basic accounting equation is ASset=____________+_____________

A

liability + Owner equite

207
Q

REgarding payroll deductions, what does FICA stand for, what does it fund, and is it paid by who

A

Federal Insurance contributions Act.- a tax paid by both the employer and employee to fund Social security and medicare

208
Q

At the end of the year, any independent contractor who received more than $___ in wages from the practice must be issued a 1099 form

A

600

209
Q

If the contractor fails to file and pay their taxes, and the practice did not issue a form 1099 at the end of the year, what risk is the practice subject to?

A

The practice can be held responsible to pay all back taxes, interest, and penalties

210
Q

If practice is found to spend more than generating, what steps can be taken to gain control?

A

1) decrease spending and increase revenue
2)hold employees acctable for waster
3) consider reevaluation your fee structure
4) review charges to be sure they are being captured correctly
5) review chares jto be sure they are being captured
6) if line of credit is needed, use for short term and pay back asap

211
Q

AR should be no higher than ____% gross revenue

A

1.5%

212
Q

When a non-sufficient funds check has been written to the practice, the practice has three choices of action

A

1) accept financial loss
2) attempt to collect
3) use third-party collection agency

213
Q

Which act regulates collection procedure of past due accounts

A

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act enforced by the federal trade commission

214
Q

Accounts receiveable turnover- how many times the accounts receivable balance is converted into cash. What is the formula for AR turnover?

A

Credit sales/average account receivable=Accounts receivable turnover

215
Q

Regarding the value of the accounts receivable turnover, is it better to have a higher or lower number

A

a higher value for the AR turnover is better because it indicates the AR balance is turned into cash more often

216
Q

How can you calculate the average age of the accounts receivable entries

A

number of days in AR (365) / accounts receivable turnover ex turnover is 12 365/12=30 days

217
Q

expansion, prosperity, contraction and recession are the four stages of

A

The business cycle

218
Q

What are two ways of normalizing revenue and expenses when creating a budget

A

Remove any non recurring items from the previous year
Combine the last 3 years as an average

219
Q

What forms/metrics are important reports/ considerations when creating a budget

A

last 3 years profit and loss/productivity statement
all lease and loan documents
fee schedule
list of operational changes expected in next year
list of major capital expenditures

220
Q

IN regards to creating a credit policy, what are the two sub policies that you should begin with

A

a client credit policy
charge account policy

221
Q

What elements should be included in the charge account policy for the practice

A

1) the pre-qualification procedures for clients of unknown standing
2)The process of flagging a pre-qualified client in PM system
3) Total invoice amount client can charge without manager approval
4) % bill must be paid on pick up
5)How to manage AR accts
6) Use of charge acct information

222
Q

What is the consumer price index

A

A list or index of prices used to measure the change in the cost of basic goods and services

223
Q

The consumer price index can be instrumental in determining the cost of living increase for a variety of expenses associated with running a business T or F

A

True

224
Q

IN regards to running a fee analysis and determining the cost of a service, which of the following elements should be included in the calculation

A

staff cost per minute
veterinary cost per minute
fixed cost

225
Q

What ___% of practices have been victims of embezzlement

A

67.8%

226
Q

Should you prosecute a staff member for embezzlement even if it is a small amount

A

yes

227
Q

Who should you turn to if you are victim of embezzlement?

A

insurance company, your accountant and attorney

228
Q

What is the annual lose figure per year for embezzlement

A

5%

229
Q

In the budgeting process, normalizing the hospital’s expenses refers to

A

removing any large one-off expenses from a years expenses
averaging the last 3 years expenses

230
Q

When budgeting for a start up practice, it is recommended to use the ___ % of industry benchmarks

A

25th

231
Q

What is percent of gross revenue if expenses are $87365 and revn is $1250000.

A

6.9%

232
Q

What is final stage of budget

A

Combining budgeted revenue and expense and making adjustments

233
Q

Patient volume is considered a ____ ____ of revenue growth

A

key driver

234
Q

A simple method of creating an expense budget is to add what to the base expense figure

A

The last 3 years average growth rate

235
Q

What is the difference between Client Credit Policy and the Charge Account POlicy

A

Client credit Policy- established the pre qualificaiotns necessary to open a charge account. Ex a client may need a min of 2 years of perfect payment history without a problem
charge account policy- is the set of systems in place including established credit limits, payment due dates, payment methods and invoicing procedure

236
Q

The fee schedule should be reviewed minimally ___ a year

A

once

237
Q

Formula for determining fees for services

A

(Fixed Cost/min + staff cost/min) x lieth of procedure in staff minutes) + (dvm COST/MIN X Length of procedure in DVM min) + (direct cost x 2) + profit

238
Q

What percent of gross revenue is said to be lost to embezzlement in small businesses annually

A

5 %

239
Q

What is the most often used chart of accounts

A

AAHAS

240
Q

Why is Petty Cash system suggested over using cash from the recepton drawer for smaller purchases

A

improves internal controls by probiding a system for tracking cash purchases

241
Q

How long can it take to prepare a team member for a leadership position

A

12-36 months

242
Q

Which of the four phases of Strategic Planning is focused on how the practice will get from point A to point B

A

The Development stage

243
Q

In regards to a medical malpractice lawsuit, if a client fails to confine a dog after surgery, or there is proof of any degree of medical negligence by the client, it may eliminate financial recovery to the client in a lawsuit. What term supports this theory

A

Contributory Negligence

244
Q

What is the first step in creating a business contingency plan?

A

Risk Assessment

245
Q

How many diseases are currently known to be zoonotic

A

1400

246
Q

A liaison is a broad term that refers to the person who maintains communications with any other entity involved with the business of running the practice

A

True

247
Q

As it relates to tax planning, what is a safe harbor?

A

Safe Harbor is a system of calculating this year’s projected tax based off last years tax

248
Q

Regarding financial statements, which is more detailed and provides the greatest level of assurance?

A

audited

249
Q

Ideally, no less than ___ of on-site training should accompany any major software conversion?

A
250
Q

Hardware and software are both examples of information systems

A

true

251
Q

The most common medical record format is:

A

problem-orientated medical records POMR

252
Q

The State Vet Practice act defines min medical record documentation ofr each state. What other entity defines minimal requirements of veterinary medical records?

A

PVME- Principles of vet medical ethics

253
Q

Which circumstances are considered a benefit of using logs in veterinary medicine?

A

To comply with legal requirements such as controlled substances
provide evidence in the event of a malpractice claim
convenient for quick data analysis and auditing

254
Q

Is a digital xray unit in practice considered capital inventory

A

yes if is in useable condition;

255
Q

Practices should plan to reinvest around ___ of gross revenue for replacing or acquiring equipment annually

A

1 percent

256
Q

The tax act of 2003 provided what increased benefits to small business owners

A

significantly increased the amount of eligible property tax can deduct
act 168K gave an additional deduction of 50% of the remaining balance
The remainder of the purchases can also be depreciated on a straight-line deviation

257
Q

To maintain tight inventory controls, the inventory purchaser should always be a separate individual from the

A

the inventory receiver and the inventory documenter and tracker

258
Q

Ideally, the top 20% of inventory items should be orderd

A

monthly

259
Q

According to PMP, applying Pareto 80/20 rule to inventory

A

prioritizing inventory time investment since 20% of our products account for 80% of income

260
Q

When considering vet negligence and malpractice disputes, case law and precedents are set at which of the following trial levels of the court system

A

civil level

261
Q

Client reference and education materials should always be branded with the missio of the practice

A

false

262
Q

The average person needs to hear about a product or service around ___ times before they purchase it

A

5

263
Q

Clients retain only ___ of what they hear

A

20%

264
Q

What are 5 of 6 C’s Client relationship management?

A

consistency, compassion, customer service, cost, competence, convenience

265
Q

What is the target budget to allocate for advertising retail products?

A

1-3%

266
Q

How many visits per year per client is a good metric to compare your practices performance with

A

10

267
Q

When it comes to marketing the A in SMART stands for

A

achieveable

268
Q

EAch client who presents to the practice should be scheduled for at least one of the 3 follow up events so that the practice automatically contacts each client in the future

A

recall, reappointment, reminder

269
Q

The goal is to retain ___ to ___ of clients over a 3-year period

A

70-75%

270
Q

_____ is a proactive process of gathering data about client preferences an activities to better target their services and products to the client’s needs

A

Customer Relationship management

271
Q

What net to new clients ratio indicates healthy growth of the practice

A

6:1

272
Q

What is a reasonable beginning goal for the number of transactions per year per doctor?

A

5000

273
Q

What are the 4 ps of marketing

A

product, price, place, promotion

274
Q

When comparing revenue and expenses, is it more valuable to deterine the % change or the dollar amount change year over years.

A

the percentage

275
Q

What is formula for average inventory

A

BI+EI/2=AI

276
Q

what does the inventory turn over ratio formula look like

A

DMSP/AI=turn over ration

277
Q

what is dmsp

A

total $ drug medical supplies purchases

278
Q

average shelf life formula

A

365 days in year/turn over ratio

279
Q

Name 4 ways to increase inventory turnover

A

product consolidation
order quantities that make sense
measure and increase compliance
doctor and staff product education

280
Q

Who is responsible for the interpretation and application of the competitive objectives of the anti-trust laws

A

the courts, the department of Justice, and the Federal Trade Commission

281
Q

What are two rules courts use ruling in anti trust law cases

A

The Per Se Rule and the Rule of Reason

282
Q

How to express expenses using common sizing

A

you divide the total expenses by the total revenue and present as a %

283
Q

What is preferrable profit for owner

A

20-30%

284
Q

What are the 5 steps to changing organizational culture

A
  1. define the culture
  2. align behaviors with the desired culture
  3. commit to change
  4. support the shift
  5. grow the team
285
Q

Which step of 5 steps of cultural change must the manager commit to

A

commit to change– the leader has to go first

286
Q

IN regards to practice owner compensation, what are the five tiers

A

Veterinary salaries
management salaries
perquisite income
profits reflected as return on owners investment in the practice
distribution of remaining profits among owners
*** know this

287
Q

What is considered an acceptable number of turns per year of total inventory

A

two citings 4-8 and 8-10

288
Q

The difference between the cost of a product and the revenue it generates is called what

A

Gross Profit Margin

289
Q

What is net profit margin

A

=profit dollars/gross revenue dollars

  • can figure net profit margin also knowing expenses but then you subtract expense express as common sizing by 100 to get the net profit margin
290
Q

What expense is considered more controllable

A

Direct because they relate directly to specific income production

291
Q

Name organization’s debts which must be discharged within a short time (one year)

A

Current liabilities

292
Q

If a practice has 94500 cash on hand and annual operating expense is 1677,000, how many days cash on hand and is that a healthy number

A

find out operating cash per day and divide by total cash to see how long it will last. If hosp open 365 days- use that number … if open 5 days a week- use 260

293
Q

How many days of cash is a healthy number to keep on hand

A

20-30 days worth of cash to ensure liquidity issues do not arise.

294
Q

Which entity created the PVME

A

AVMA

295
Q

Leadership fatigue can be experienced when there is lack of communication, lack of delineation of job duties. Which element of strategic plan addresses this dynamic

A

organizational design

296
Q

List inventory control goals

A

Contolled drugs minimized expense

no stock out
Clients can obtain refills
regular evaluation of preferred drugs
Employees can order as needed
contolled substances maintained
appropriate security systems safeguards
employees well versed communicating value products with clients
fees adjusted regularly
profit margin set

297
Q

Combined ordering and holding cost account for approx what percent of total true cost

A

25-35 %

298
Q

What is perpetual inventory system

A

when items received are immediately added to the inventory record, and items sold are immediately subtracted from the inventory record

299
Q

define gross profit

A

the difference between $ of product to the client and the cost product to practice

300
Q

What two main benefits of using Central Supply inventory system

A

reduce theft and waste
Better organization and tracking

301
Q

Define ABC analysis in 5 steps

A
  1. Create spreadsheet and calculate annual usage volume products
  2. calculate cumulation (all) annual usage volume
  3. calculate cumulate % of annual usage volume
  4. calculate annual useage distribution
  5. Group into classes A B C
302
Q

Bi+EI/2 is

A

average inventory on hand

303
Q

What math formula recognized three specific costs including unit cost, ordering cost and holding cost which allows calculation of ideal inventory ordering

A

Economic Order Quantity EOQ

304
Q

Which pricing strategy useful to use where there are large differences in end price based on the size of patient

A

margin pricing method

305
Q

Which category of drugs are going to have a higher mark up- competitive drugs or drugs used to treat chronic conditions

A

drugs to treat chronic conditions

306
Q

Should you itemize fee associated with filling rx

A

no.. clients do not have understanding of cost of running hosp

307
Q

What are the benefits in Just in time-ordering

A

low holding costs no expired products

308
Q

What are disadvantages of Just in time ordering

A

higher ordering costs, stock outs, back orders

309
Q

What are the two main inventory organizational techniques

A

zoning and central supply

310
Q

What are short four steps to inventory budgeting

A
  1. project revenue
  2. project COG expenses
    3.project COG subsection expenses
  3. share the budget and communicate expectations
311
Q

A running capitol inventory list should contain what information about the equipment

A
  1. equipment name
  2. manufacturer
  3. model/serial number
  4. purchase date, amount paid, and purchase locationl
312
Q

What is the most significant drawback to paper records

A

poor legibility which can lead to patient care mistakes and confusion. Illegible records will work against practice if ever needed in court case

313
Q

Name 7 examples of license board violations regarding medical records

A

lack of complete patient and client identification
lack of complete system-by-system description with annotated exam notes
lack of tentative diagnosis
lack of prognosis
Lack of treatment specified and especially lack of client waiver or detail of recommendation for a specific treatment or procedure
Illegible entries
Alterations or deletions of record after a reasonable contemporaneous period

314
Q

Illegible medical records are equal to what?

A

An incomplete, illegible record can be considered an admission of professional incompetence and imply that the care provided was sub standard

315
Q

Can a veterinarian still be cited for medical record violation even if the client complaint did not concern medical records and the vet was acquitted of the client complaint?

A

Although a client complaint is rarely about records, it is the records that the board will investigate to rule on the complaint
Even if the vet is acquitted of a client complaint, they could still be citedf for medical record violations if they do not meet the min stnandards

316
Q

In medical records, only abnormal results are recommended to be documented in the patient’s medical record

A

false

317
Q

Medical documentation must include; name of the medication, ___ , dose given, and route administered

A

Medication documentation must include: name of medication, strenth, dose given, and route administered

318
Q

Define SOAP

A

S-subjective
O-objective
A-assessment
P-plan

319
Q

What 6 areas should be included in the auditing of medical records

A

date of entry
initials of all team members writing in record
a complete SOAP format
all authorization forms signed by the client
missed charges
recheck and recall compliiance

320
Q

Define Source Oriented Medical Records

A

SOMR- Data is entered in the record and then grouped by the information source and then orgainzed chronologically by date of patinet encounter.

321
Q

The syste the program and computer follows is called

A

software

321
Q

List potential applications of technology in vet practices

A

online continuing education
computereized appt system
consultation with specialist
digital photo and xrays
credit card processing
email reminders
electronic medical recrods
online office procedural manuals
supply purchases
webpage design and maintenance

321
Q

___ and ___ purchases will show greater return on investment than any other capital expense. why

A

software and hardware purchases due to increased efficiency in every department

321
Q

When considering new software, if you have employees lacking comfort with technology, what might be an important element

A

training provide by the company should be a strong consideration with new software

322
Q

In reference to disease transmission, fleas, ticks and mosquitos are considered vectors

A

true

323
Q

why is it recommended to have a steady and ongoing relationship with vendors, what are some examples?

A

this strategy avoids urgent and crisis-oriented circumstances and maintains more of a preventative relationship

324
Q

The role of liaison for a practice manager involves more than relationships with vendors, what are some examples

A

This role is a full time responsibility involving staff, vendors, authorities, professional peers, advisors, indep contractors, clients, practice owners, stock holders, consultants and other

325
Q

It is best to have obtained cpa prior to year end and have all accounting records to your cpa by___?

A

The 3rd or last week in January

326
Q

Name reasons to have a healthy relationship with vendors

A

they are highly educated and well trained by the company, and can often provide the most cutting-edge inform for new products.
they have a wide range of experience inside various practices and can offer various practices and offer feedback on how you are doing or share some good ideas
have wide network in vet community and may know when a practice is coming up for sale, employees looking for work

327
Q

When implementing control methods for zoonotic diseases, treatment programs are focused on reservoirs and hosts- define reservoirs and hosts

A

Reservoir- a place where an infectious organism survives and replicates
Host- a living organism that provides the environment for the maintenance of the organism but may not be necessary for organism survival

328
Q

What is most common bacteria present in dog and cat bites

A

Pasteurella

329
Q

Why is it important to have a through conversation with cleint when treating chemotherapy patient

A

some chemo agents are eliminated in the urine and feces and can potentially expose family members

330
Q

What are three types of gas scavenger systems and which provides best protection

A

active- best
passive-
absorption system

331
Q

Name two steps taken in pref woman working around anesthetic gases

A

wear an anesthetic monitoring badge
proper PPE

332
Q

Once a VCPR is established, it must be continued until

A

the animal recovers
The vet agreed to all treatments agreed upon
the animal dies
The client terminates the VCPR
The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client

333
Q

What are five strategies to reduce potential malpractice lawsuit?

A

continuing education
maintaining thorough medical records,
practice informed consent
staff training
referrals

334
Q

What is the risk assessmenrt equation

A

Hazards + vulnerabilities= Risk

335
Q

What are the four paper priorities in the event of emergency management and what is a brief definition of each
MPRR

A

Mitigation
Preparation
Response
Recovery

336
Q

What is the definition of Migration in above ?

A

strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat

337
Q

A relationship-centered practice is defined as utilizing empowered veterinary team members who share vet knowledge to develop long lasting relationships with clients and patients. Which element of strategic planning best addresses this dynamic?

A

organizational design

338
Q

Lack of follow through from management, “push” verses “Pull” and negative peer pressure from team members who have plateaued, are all common reasons for what?

A

resistance to learning

339
Q

Which phase of strategic planning includes the development of the Mission Vision and Values and why are they so important

A

The formulation phase- MVVs are critical because they represnet the goals of org and every decision made for the business must support the MVVs

340
Q

What are the 4 phases of stategic planning

A

1 formulation
2. development
3. implementation
4. evaluation

341
Q

What are the 3 parts of strtegic planning in an organization?

A

Organizational Design
Organizantional Development
Organizational Learning

342
Q

What is the per se rule

A

ruling when business lacks redeeming virtue and have no purpose but to stifle competition. ex agreeements between competitior to fix prices

343
Q

Give formula for Economic Quanity value
what is rule of reason

A

square root of 2 time annual demant times fixed cost divided by holding cost and unit cost
rule of reason is used when per se rule doesnt qualify but business reasonalbe is considered in restraint of trade

344
Q

common zoonotic diseases

A

anthrax
brucellosis
cat scratch disease
lepto
lyme
pasteurella
salmonella
tetanus
TB
ringworm
scabies
toxo
encephalistis
monkeypos
newcastle
giardia

345
Q

performing a necropsy without owners consent is unethical but it also a high risk liability center on causes of action. Define those two causes?

A

The tort of outrageous conduct
The right not to have ones sensibilties shocked

346
Q

These represent the determination of financial statement entry relationships and the fractional structure that results provides performance. They are generaly used to assess aspects of profitability, solvency and liquidity

A

Ratios

347
Q

If your practice had 3691000 in revenue and 2952800 in expenses, how would express the expenses in common sizing? ONce the calculation is found, is that within the preferred benchmark?

A

expense is 80% gross leaving 20% profit and is considered preferred

348
Q

in regards to owners compensation, what are the five tiers?

A

Veterinary salaries
Management salaries
Perquisite income
profits reflected as return on investment in practice
equitable distribution of remaining profits among owners

349
Q

Negligence is defined as doing something that a person ordinary prudence would not have done under the circumstances or failure to do what a person of ordinary prudence would have done under the same or similar circumstances. Of all the types of legal action in tort law, vets are most likely to incur some sort of degree of professional liability from the law of negligence. The law of malpractice is an extension of law of negligence therefore to understand the law of malpractice, a thorough knowlege of negligence law is necessary. The law of negligence requires proof of four essential elements what are they?

A

1- establishing that the defendant had a duty to prevent an injury from occurence to the plantiff’s property
2- EStablishing that the defendant violated that duty by failing to act in accordance with the standard of care expected of DVMs. under the same or similar circumstances.
3- Showing that a reasonably close causal connection existed between the defendents DVM conduct and a lack of conduct and the resulting injury -doctrine of probable cause.
4- Proving that the actual damage or harm occured to the interests of another party.

350
Q

What is name of test from FSLA that determines if one qualifies as independent contractor

A

Economic Realisties Test

351
Q

What 6 factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the economic realities test

A

1- the degree of control exercised by the practice over the individuals work performance.
2- the extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used.
3- the individuals opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill
4- the skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirments weigh toward employee status.
5- the permancence of the relationship
6- the extent to which the workers service are in integral part of the practice.

352
Q

DAvid Pink defines motivation as “the desire to do things because they matter” However, three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?

A

automony
mastery
purpose

353
Q

what are the 12 c’s for team building

A

communication
competence
consequences
context
clear expectation
culture change

commitment
charter
control
collarboration
creative innovation
coordination

354
Q

David Golemans book Emotional INtelligence says IQ is not a good predictor, that individuals equally need emotional intelligence in managing relationships. What are the five levels

A

Self awareness
self motivation
empathy
self control
effective managment of relationships

355
Q

Name the list of OSHA topics that specifically require staff member training

A

General duty clause- workers rights and responsibilites
Emergency & fire prevention plans
occupational noise exposure
Ionizing radiation
PPE
Signs and tags
medical services and first aid
portable fire extinguishers
ethylene oxide
formaldehyde
Hazard communications (chemicals)

356
Q

In communication what is the breakdown between verbal, paraverbal and non verbal

A

verbal- 7% message
paraverbal- (tone) - 38%
nonverbal- (posture expression) 55 %

357
Q

another smart goal for team delegation

A

smart
measurable
attainable
resources
time bound

358
Q

a team grows and changes markedly furing its lifetime. What is the process of development described as
fsnp-all part of the ing’s

A

forming
storming
norming
performing

359
Q

What is managing about

A

developing trust and respect

360
Q

can a manager help with dysfunction

A

Yes identify dysfunctions that disrupt efficiency, invlole the team to sole the problem, im plement the develped solution and coach for success

361
Q

What 3 funcitons does a leadership team

A

to faciliattae, to inspire, and to implement

362
Q

HOw get engage employees

A

find out how to motivate using Expectancy theory, Maslow’s hierarchy and Herzber Motivaotry theory

363
Q

What is expectancy theory

A

theory that motivation is increased when employees believe that increased effort leads to desired results

364
Q

What is Herzbergs Theory

A

Theory that meeting basic needs results in motivation and increased performance

365
Q

What is Maslow Hierarchy of Needs

A

People seek to satisfy basic needs and satisfying ta lower level need resutls in the next level being a motivation factor

366
Q

What are the levels fo Maslows herarchy from top

A

Self Actualization- one full potential
esteem-achievement
relationship
safety
physiloogical

367
Q

What is process of talent management

A

attracting, selecting, training , developintg, and promoting

368
Q

What does the OZ principle say

A

That staff has the ability to see it, own it, solve it and do it rather than thinking like in the wizard of oz that they OZ would solve there problem instead of knowing everything they need is inside of them

369
Q

What is compromise fatigue

A

extreme sense of stress asso with repeated request4s to make compromises on basis of the medical or financial management of pateint care

370
Q

What is Hedonic Adaptation

A

Also called Hedonic threadmill, the observed tendency of individuals to return to a relatively stable level of happiness despite major positive or negative events or life changes

371
Q

What is Culture

A

the sum of all the characteristics that describe the way we do things around here. Set of rules, procedures, processes attitudes communicaiton methods or work styles that se thte tone ofr a practice

372
Q

What is difference between manager and leader

A

Found in the meaning of word to move so leaders take us to places wever never been before

373
Q

What is Louzes and Posner fiive commitments of leaders

A

Challenge the Process
Inspire a shared vision
Enable otheres to act
Model the way
Encourage the Heart

374
Q

DAvid Norton advocates the balanced scoredcared which says businesses should evaluate themselves on what concepts

A

Financial
Customer/client
internal business processes
Learning and growth

375
Q

What is the four steps in implementation of a plan

A

analysis, planning, deployment, evaluation

376
Q

What does the EOQ determine?

A

Finds the optimal ordering quantity by determining the point at which inventory ordering and holding costs are minimized

377
Q

In terms of longevity, what are the # years for strategic, tactical, and operational planning

A

strategic- long term- 5-10 years
Tactical- near future- 1-3 years
Operational- days and weeks ahead