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VHMA flashcards selfmade > Liz Flash > Flashcards

Liz Flash Flashcards

1
Q

OSHA, as governing body

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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2
Q

OSHA’s Hazard Communication Stnadard

A

Requires employers to identify all workplace hazards and communicate them to employees

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3
Q

OSHA applies to which employers?

A

All employers, regardless of the number of employees

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4
Q

Define PPE

A

Personal Protective Equipment

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5
Q

What is the first OSHA form filled out when an employee has a recordable injury or illness?

A

OSHA Form 301: Injury and illness Incident Rerport

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6
Q

What is OSHA Form 300

A

Log of work related injuries and Illnesses

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7
Q

Which employers have to fill out an OSHA Form 300

A

Employers with 11 or more employees, at anytime during the year

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8
Q

What is OSHA Form 300A

A

Summary of Work Related Injuries and Illnesses

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9
Q

Which employers have to fill out an OSHA Form 300A

A

Any employer required to maintain OSHA From 300, therefore employers with 11 or more employees at any time during the year

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10
Q

When does OSHA Form 300A have to be posted?

A

From Feb 1 of the following year, and remain posted until at least April 30

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11
Q

How long must OSHA records related to injuries and illnesses be maintained?

A

For at least 5 years

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12
Q

Define Sharps

A

Any device with physical characteristics that make it possible to puncture, lacerate, or penetrate the skin

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13
Q

Another name for OSHA’s Hazard (Chemical) communication standard

A

“Right to know

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14
Q

MSDS

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

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15
Q

Which federal entity regulates general prescription drugs?

A

FDA, Food and Drug Administration

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16
Q

Define Controlled Substances

A

Those drugs that are subject to abuse, the possession and use of which is regulated under the Controlled Substances Act

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17
Q

The Controlled Substances Act is regulated by which federal agency?

A

DEA, Drug Enforcement Administration

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18
Q

What symbol is used to designate a controlled substance on the package?

A

A large letter “C” with roman numeral centered inside, depicting the schedule of the drug

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19
Q

What form is needed to purchase Schedule II controlled substances

A

DEA form 222

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20
Q

For controlled substances, the inventory procedure and documentation must be repeated every ___ years

A

Two

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21
Q

Which federal entity regulates biologicals including vaccines?

A

USDA- United States Department of Agriculture

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22
Q

Which federal entity regulates topical pesticides

A

EPA- Environmental Protection Agency

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23
Q

FUTA

A

Federal Unemployment TAx ACT

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24
Q

ADA

A

American with Disability ACT

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25
Q

FICA

A

Federal Insurance Contribution ACT

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26
Q

FSLA

A

Fair Labor Standards ACT

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27
Q

COBRA

A

Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation ACT- 20+ employees

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28
Q

ERISA

A

Employee Retirement Income Security ACT

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29
Q

ADEA

A

Age Discrimination in Employment ACT

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30
Q

FMLA

A

Family Medical Leave ACT

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31
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health ACT

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32
Q

Title VII is a part of what act?

A

Civil Rights ACT of 1964

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33
Q

USERRA

A

Uniformed Service Employment and Reemplyment Rights ACT

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34
Q

HIPAA

A

Heath Insurance Portabiliity and Accountability ACT

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35
Q

EEOC

A

Employee Equal Opportunity Commission

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36
Q

The FLSA applies to employers who

A

engage in interstate commerce 2) produce goods for interstate commerce or 3) is an enterprise - a business entity with a distinct commercial purpose and annual gross sales of $500 k or more

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37
Q

FSLA definition of workweek

A

unit of time used for determining complance with minimum wage standards; defined as seven consecutive, regularly recurring, 24-hour periods totaling 168 hours

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38
Q

FSLA definition of overtime pay

A

all hours worked above 40 in a given workweek; overtime pay premium is 1.5 times the regular rate of pay

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39
Q

Who enforces the FLSA?

A

The Wage and Hour Division of the US Department of Labor

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40
Q

How long must records on wages, hours, and other pay related items be retained?

A

Three years

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41
Q

IRC

A

Internal Revenue Code

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42
Q

What is the 1099 form used for?

A

Report compensation paid to non employee workers

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43
Q

Civil rights issues enforced by the EEOC include

A

sexual harassment, pregnancy discrimination, disabled employees, and age discrimination, discrimination related to race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

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44
Q

The EEOC with regard to the Civil Rights ACt covers those employers who

A

Employs 15 or more employees, meaning anyone with whom the business has an “employment relationship” including part-time workers

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45
Q

quid pro quo sexual harassment

A

Occurs when submission to or rejection of unwelcome sexual conduct is used as the basis of employment decisions affecting the individual

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46
Q

environmental sexual harassment

A

included unwelcome sexual conduct that unreasonably interferes with the individual’s job performance or creates an “intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment,” even if it leads to no tangible or economic job consequence

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47
Q

The ADA law applies to employers who

A

employ 15 or more employees- workers who are on the payroll at leqast 20 weeks during the year

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48
Q

Under the ADA, disability means

A

a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life functions of an individual

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49
Q

Under the ADA, a “qualified person with a disability” means

A

one who satisfies the requisite skill, experience, education, and other job-related requirements of the position such individual holds or desires, and who, with or without the assistance of a reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of such position

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50
Q

Under the ADA, a reasonable accommodation means»>

A

a modification or adjustment to a job or to the work environment that enables a qualified applicant or an employee with a disability to participate in the application process or to perform the job unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the business

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51
Q

Under the ADA, undue hardship to the employer means&raquo_space;>

A

significant difficulty, significant disruption of business, or significant expense

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52
Q

The ADEA applies to employers with

A

employs 20 or more employees

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53
Q

The ADEA prohibits discrimination against persons over ____ years of age, based on their age

A

40

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54
Q

The FMLA provides how much unpaid leave to eligible employees?

A

12 work weeks during any 12 month period

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55
Q

`The FMLA applies to employers who&raquo_space;>

A

employ 50 or more employees for each working day during each 20 or more calendar weeks in the current or previous year; all employees are counted including part-time and temporary as long as they were on the payroll at the beginning and end of each relevant work week

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56
Q

Under the FMLA an employee is eligible when?

A

an employee must have been employed for at least 12 months, although the months needs not be consecutive; must have worked at least 1250 hours during the 12 month period immediately preceding the commencement of leave

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57
Q

Under the FMLA the definition of key employee»

A

individuals in the top 10% of the highest-paid employees who are employed by the employer within a 75-mile radius of the employee’s work site; restoration of such individuals to previously held or equivalent positions could result in substantial economic injury to employers business operations

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58
Q

OSHA applies to which employers?

A

all employers regardless of the number of employees

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59
Q

Definition of contract

A

Generally refers to an agreement between two or more parties

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60
Q

Definition of express contract

A

Contract established when willingness to provide the consideration requested is expressly indicated

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61
Q

Definition of implied contract

A

contract established when acceptance can be inferred from the actions of the parties even if no express acceptance is proved

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62
Q

IN what general situation does the Law of Agency apply in veterinary practice

A

When someone other than the owner brings in a pet for treatment or care

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63
Q

In what general situation does the Law of Unjust Enrichment apply in veterinary practice

A

When emergency care for animals is administered without express permission;owner would be required to pay for services because it would be wrong and against public policy for them to retain any benefit or value for care rendered

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64
Q

What is another term for Law Of Unjust Enrichment

A

Law of Quasi Contract

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65
Q

Three terms used interchangable for a clause in an employment contract that prohibits competition after leaving the practice

A

non compete clause, restrictive covenant,, covenent not to compete

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66
Q

Sherman Antitrust Act enters into the discussion of what employment contract clause, and why?

A

non-compete clause, because the Anittrust Act states that every contract that restrains trade is illegal

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67
Q

VCPR

A

Veterinary Client Patient Relationship

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68
Q

Attending veterinarian

A

a veterinarian (or group of veterinarians) who assumes responsibility for primary care of a patient, a VCPR is established

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69
Q

Consulting veterinarian

A

A veterinarian (or group) who agrees to advise an attending veterinarian on the care and management of a case, the VCPR remains the responsibility of the attending veterinarian

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70
Q

Referral veterinarian or receiving veterinarian

A

a veterinarian (or group) who agrees to provide requested veterinary services, a new VCPR is established

71
Q

Fee Splitting

A

The dividing of a professional fee for veterinary services with the recommending veterinarian

72
Q

Ethical product

A

A product for which the manufacturer has voluntarily limited the sale to veterinarians as a marketing decision

73
Q

Over the counter (OYC) drug

A

Any drug that can be labeled with adequate direction to enable it to be used safely and properly by a consumer who is not a medical professional

74
Q

Legend Drug

A

A synonymous term for a veterinary prescription drug; the name refers to the statement (legend) that is required on the label

75
Q

Prescription drug

A

a drug that cannot be labeled with adequate direction to enable its safe and proper use by non professionals

76
Q

Veterinary Prescription Drug

A

A drug that is restricted by federal law to use by on the order of a licensed veterinarian, the law requires that drugs be labeled with the statement “CautionDis, federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”

77
Q

Dispensing

A

The direct distribution of products by veterinarians to clients for use on their animals

78
Q

Prescribing

A

The transmitting of an order authorizing a licensed pharmacist or equivalent to prepare and dispense specified pharmaceuticals to be used in or on animals in the dosage and in the manner directed by a veteirnareianfdl

79
Q

Marketing, as defined in the AVMA Ethics

A

Promoting and encouraging animal owners to improve animal health and welfare by using veterinary care, services, and products

80
Q

Merchandising, as defined in the AVMA Ethics

A

The buying and selling of products or services

81
Q

Advertising, as defined in the AVMA Ethics

A

Communication that is designed to inform the public about the availability, nature, or price of products or services or to influence clients to use certain products or services

82
Q

Testimonials, as defined in the AVMA Ethics

A

Also known as endorsements; statements are intended to influence attitudes regarding the purchase or use of products or services

83
Q

Definition of advertising

A

announces and proclaims the value fo a service or business; any paid announcement, especially one that proclaims the qualities or advantages of a product or business so as to increase sales

84
Q

Definition of marketing

A

Gives information that implies an offer to sell

85
Q

Definition of indirect marketing

A

The image intentionally or unintentionally conveyed by the hospital

86
Q

Definition of direct marketing

A

the more deliberate effort to introduce animal owners to specific services and recommendations

87
Q

Definition of external marketing

A

introduces the practice to potential clients, people who have never used the hospitals services, and aims to convince them to use the practice’s services

88
Q

Definition of internal marketing

A

concentrates on existing clientele and aims to strengthen their bond with the practice and to increase their demand for veterinary services

89
Q

The Four P’s of Marketing

A

Product, Price, Place, Promotion

90
Q

Define of Product

A

The veterinary services that are offered, accepted, and provided; services are identifiable activities that provide buyer satisfaction

91
Q

Definition of veterinary Place

A

The hospital, clinic, mobile unit, or any other location where the veterinary service is provided

92
Q

The goals of Promotion

A

Convince your target market of the benefits of the hospitals services, differentiate the practice from others and to build a positive practice image

93
Q

Definition of segmentation

A

The identify a specific target group by specific characteristics such as age, income level, type of pet, or number of pets, and to know which characteristics are significant in predicting which services the target group might want or what prices they are willing to pay for those services

94
Q

Definition of target marketing

A

To direct the promotional effort toward one or more identifiable segments

95
Q

Definition of message

A

The information you want the target market to hear, see, or learn

96
Q

Definition of reach

A

the audience addressed by the message (the target group or marketees)

97
Q

Definition of frequency

A

The average number of times that the targeted audience is exposed to the message in a given period of time

98
Q

Definition of media

A

the communication channels used to send the message to the potential clients or targeted audience

99
Q

Definition of public relations

A

any activity initiated by the animal hospital that is designed to create a positive image while communicating with present and potential clients

100
Q

Definition of personal selling

A

The effort made by every hospital staff member to use direct personal communications to inform and persuade a client, either in person or on the telephone

101
Q

Definition of publicity

A

marketing through any unpaid communication conveyed through the media

102
Q

SWOT analysis

A

S-Strenths W=weaknesses o= opportunites T-= threats

103
Q

Define inventory

A

All goods owned and held for sale or use in the regular course of business

104
Q

Define merchandise inventory

A

Teh inventory of porducts purchased for resale to clients

105
Q

Define professional and medical supplies inventory

A

Inventory items used in the course of providing veterinary medical and surgical services

106
Q

Define inventory control

A

the process whereby the need to maintain sufficient inventory to meet the hospitals needs is weighed against the cost of carrying inventory

107
Q

Define unit cost

A

The amount paid to the vendor, including applicable sales taxes and shipping costs, divided by the quantity of the item ordered

108
Q

Describe components of ordering cost

A

Labor-related expenses such as hourly wage paid and benefits to the employee performing the inventory and ordering process

109
Q

Ordering cost can account for as much as ___% to ___% of the total unit cost

A

15-20

110
Q

Define holding costs

A

The costs of owning and keeping inventory on the premises in anticipation of use

111
Q

Holding costs can account for as much as ___ to ___ percent of the total unit cost

A

8%-15%

112
Q

Together the holding and ordering costs comprise on average between ___ and __ % of the total unit cost

A

25%-40%

113
Q

The Central Supply Concept is also known as ____

A

Ration-Based inventory

114
Q

Define Stock out

A

The event of running out of a supply item before the next order arrives

115
Q

Define operating level

A

The inventory amount that is expected to be used up between the point of order receipt to the time another order must be placed

116
Q

Define lead time

A

The time between the order is placed and the shipment is received

117
Q

Define lead-time quantity

A

The amount of inventory expected to be used up from the time the order is placed until the order is received

118
Q

Define safety stock

A

An inventory cushion, in excess of lead-time quantity, to help prevent a stock out if the shipment is delayed or the item in placed on back order

119
Q

Define inventory turnover

A

a computation that relates the volume of merchandise sold to the inventory amount, it determines if inventory items have the desired shelf life

120
Q

Formula for Average Inventory for a specific period

A

Beginnning inventory+ ending inventory divided by 2

121
Q

formula for inventory turns

A

Total purchases between inventory dates divided by Average Inventory

122
Q

Formula for average shelf life in days

A

365 divided by inventory turns per year

123
Q

The average turnover in veterinary hospitals is around ____ times per year

A

6

124
Q

Define Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) formula

A

A mathematical calculation of optimal order quantities

125
Q

EOQ formula

A

Quotient:2 X A X F divided by H x HC

126
Q

EOQ components defined

A

A=annual demand in units
F=Fixed ordering costs incurred per order
H= holding costs expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost
UC= unit cost to purchase item from vendor or supplier

127
Q

EOQ spelled out

A

2, times annual demand, times ordering cost, divided by, holding cost, times unit cost

128
Q

Define FOB shipping point

A

Ownership or title passes to the veterinary practice when the merchandise is delivered to the shipper

129
Q

Define FOB destination

A

Ownership pr title passes to the veterinary practice when merchandise is delivered to the buyer, the veterinary practice

130
Q

In veterinary practices, a ____% markup prices the product very close to the break-even price

A

40%

131
Q

Breakeven analysis formula

A

S=F + V + P

132
Q

Breakeven analysis Formula Components defined

A

S=sales price
F=fixed costs
V=variable costs
P=profit

133
Q

Describe fixed cost

A

the simple unit price of obtaining the item to be sold, plus holding costs and ordering costs

134
Q

Describe variable costs

A

Consider costs such as doctor compensation

135
Q

Most small animal practices aim to maintain a profit margin of at least a ___% return

A

12%

136
Q

Define full absorption analysis

A

Requires that the variable component of a breakeven analysis include all the other costs of managing the practice

137
Q

Define use tax

A

A compensation tax; it compensates the state when sales tax should nave been collected, but was not

138
Q

Define SOMR

A

Source-Oriented Medical Records; the record is organized chronologically by office visit or period of hospitalization.

139
Q

Define POMR

A

Problem-oriented Medical records; record is organized chronologically according to each identified health problem.

140
Q

Define SOAP

A

Progress notes for Problem Orientated medical records, where S=subjective o=objective a= assessment p= plan

141
Q

DIS

A

once per day

142
Q

BID

A

twice per day

143
Q

TID

A

three times a day

144
Q

QID

A

four times a day

145
Q

EOD

A

every other day

146
Q

AU

A

ear, right and left - both

147
Q

AD

A

Ear, right

148
Q

AS

A

Ear, left

149
Q

OU

A

eyes, both

150
Q

OD

A

eyes, right

151
Q

OS

A

eyes, left

152
Q

Define internal controls

A

All measures, systems, and protocols used by a business to ensure against errors, waste, and fraud

153
Q

Define accounting

A

The art of measuring, communicatng, and interpreting financial activity

154
Q

Define bookkeeping

A

The process of recording business data in a prescribed manner

155
Q

Levels of assurance; define compilation

A

Lowest level of assurance; CPA assesses and makes adjustments to bookkeeping data and supporting documentation provided by the hospital

156
Q

Levels of assurance; define review

A

Middle level of assurance; CPA conducts a higher level of analytic review of various accounts and transactions

157
Q

Levels of Assurance; define audit

A

Highest level of assurance; an independent review of the accounting records for fairness and reliability of the finANCIAL REPORTS

158
Q

Define transaction

A

The occurrence of an event or condition that must be recorded

159
Q

Define asset

A

All of the economic resources of the business that can be expressed in monetary terms, meaning anything the business owns

160
Q

Define liabilities

A

Present obligations resulting from past transactions that require the practice to pay money, provide goods, or perform services in the future

161
Q

Define owner’s equity

A

the interest or claim of the practice owners in the practice assets; what the practice owes its owners

162
Q

What is the accounting equation (formula)?

A

Assets= Liability + Owner’s Equity

163
Q

Define balance sheet

A

Summarizes the assets, liabilites, and owner’s equity at a particular date

164
Q

Define income statement

A

Reports values that have accumulated between two points in time; also known as the Profit and Loss Statement

165
Q

Define Cash flow statement

A

Details inflows and outflows of cash between two points in time

166
Q

Define cash basis accounting

A

Income is measured when cash is received and expenses are measured when cash is spent

167
Q

Define accrual basis accounting

A

Income and expenses are measured when the transactions occur (regardless of teh physical flow of cash).

168
Q

Define revenue

A

The price of goods sold and services rendered during a given period of time

169
Q

Define imprest

A

The amount of cash available to make change for transactions during the coming hours of business activity

170
Q

Define ProSal Formula

A

A form of compensation where employees are guaranteed specified base salaries but are paid a percentage of their gross income collected by their employers when this yields a higher take-home pay than they would earn from a flat salary.

171
Q

Define pro forma statement

A

Projected income statements and balance sheets that aid in profit planning

172
Q

Define zero-based budgeting

A

Starting with the assumed profit level required to make the practice grow at the desired rate in the upcoming year and then looking at the current and possible income potentials

173
Q

Define horizontal level of income

A

Adding products or services, satellite facilities, etc

174
Q

Define vertical level of income

A

Expanding existing services, increasing return rates, etc

VHMA flashcards selfmade (11 decks)

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