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Orthodontics > Quiz One > Flashcards

Quiz One Flashcards

1
Q

Which pouches do not develop properly in DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

Pouches 3 and 4

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2
Q

Which organs are often missing or ectopic in DiGeorge Syndrome (3)?

A

Parathyroid/Thymus/Parafollicular Thyroid tissues

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3
Q

What causes DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

A deletion in the long arm of chromosome 22

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4
Q

What hormone is lost with hypothyroidism?

A

PTH

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5
Q

Should hypothyroidism occur, what changes occur in blood ions?

A

Calcium levels decrease and phosphorus decreases

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6
Q

Which cells detect deficiencies in Ca in the blood?

A

Chief cells in the parathyroid

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7
Q

How many AA make up PTH?

A

84

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8
Q

What allows vitamin D to help absorb Ca?

A

PTH

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9
Q

Which cells in which organ secrete Calcitonin?

A

Parafollicular cells, thyroid gland

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10
Q

What two ways does Calcitonin restrict Ca in the blood?

A
  1. Inhibits activity of osteoclasts and 2. Decreases resorption of Ca in kidneys
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11
Q

What is the name given to the merged pulmonary artery and aorta in DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

Trncus arteriosus

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12
Q

What are the four pieces of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Pulmonary stenosis, 2. Right ventricular hypertrophy, 3. Overriding aorta and 4. Ventricular septal defects (VSD)
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13
Q

Why do DiGeorge patients have a hard time fighting illness?

A

Due to their thymus glands being small or missing

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14
Q

During which range of developmental timing is the face developed?

A

4 and 10 weeks

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15
Q

What are the five prominences that merge to form the mouth/face?

A
  1. Unpaired frontonasal process, 2. Two maxillary swellings and 3. Two mandibular swellings
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16
Q

When do the nasal placodes appear?

A

5th week

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17
Q

When does the nasal pit form, and, as a consequence, forms the medial and lateral nasal processes?

A

6th week

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18
Q

What is the remnant of the intermaxillary process?

A

The philtrum

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19
Q

What forms during development to separate the nasal pits from the oral cavity?

A

The nasal fin

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20
Q

What does the nasal fin turn into?

A

The Oronasal membrane

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21
Q

What happens during the 7th week of development to the Oronasal membrane?

A

It dissolves and leaves an opening referred to as the primitive choana

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22
Q

What do the palatine shelves form when they merge with each other and the primary palate?

A

Secondary palate

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23
Q

What forms into the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Tongue buds

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24
Q

What is the name of the swelling that occurs in the fourth week of development in the midline?

A

Copula

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25
Q

What happens to the copula in the sixth week?

A

It is overgrown by the 3rd and 4th arches and the area is called the hypopharyngeal eminence

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26
Q

What nerve is in control of the majority of the tongue?

A

CN XII

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27
Q

What nerve innervates the palatoglossus muslce?

A

Pharyngeal branch of CN X

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28
Q

What supplies sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Lingual branch of CN V

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29
Q

What branch of CN VII supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani branch

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30
Q

What supplies innervation to the circumvallate?

A

CN IX

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31
Q

What week do salivary glands develop?

A

Week six

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32
Q

What nerve innervates the sensory of the parotid gland?

A

Auriculotemporal nerve of the mandibular branch of V3

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33
Q

What does parasympathetic innervation of the parotid?

A

CN IX

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34
Q

What does sympathetic innervation of the parotid?

A

Fibers from the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion

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35
Q

What innervates all small salivary glands above the oral fissure?

A

Greater petrosal branch of VII

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36
Q

What innervates all small salivary glands below the oral fissure?

A

Chordatympani branch of VII

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37
Q

At what pH does fluorapatite start to damage?

A

4.5

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38
Q

What is ACP?

A

Amorphous Calcium Phosphate - a fake saliva medication for dry mouth

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39
Q

During the seventh week of development, how many teeth begin to form?

A

10

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40
Q

Where did the neural crest cells that help form teeth migrate from?

A

Mesencephalon and Metencephalon

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41
Q

What are the three phases of tooth development?

A
  1. Bud, 2. Cap and 3. Bell
42
Q

What is the name of the outgrowth that develops into the bud of the permanent tooth?

A

Small diverticulum

43
Q

Where do the buds that form into the first permanent molars come from?

A

They are extensions of the dental lamina of the second primary molars

44
Q

Where does dentin production begin?

A

At the inner enamel epithelium

45
Q

What becomes the pulp of the developing tooth?

A

Inner mesenchyme

46
Q

What are the three layers of the enamel organ?

A
  1. OEE, 2. Stellate reticulum and 3. IEE
47
Q

What are the three stages of amelogenesis?

A
  1. Inductive stage, 2. Secretory stage and 3. maturation stage
48
Q

What partially mineralizes the enamel matrix?

A

The Alkaline phosphatase

49
Q

What is the name of the end of the crystals of the enamel matrix?

A

Tomes’ processes

50
Q

What happens to the ameloblasts during the Maturation phase?

A

They become striated/have a ruffled border

51
Q

What does the confluence of inner and outer enamel form?

A

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath

52
Q

What are the remnants of HERS called?

A

Epithelial rests of Malassez

53
Q

What develops into cementoblasts?

A

Inner cells of the dental follicle sac

54
Q

What do the outer most cells in the dental sac do?

A

Participate in Alveolar bone formation and help form the PDL

55
Q

What is the first type of cementum that forms?

A

Acellular

56
Q

What structures are partially incorporated into the PDL by fibroblasts?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

57
Q

When does cellular cementum form?

A

When the tooth occludes with its partner in the opposite arch

58
Q

What are the three modes of inheriting Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A
  1. X-linked, 2. Autosomal dominant and 3. Autosomal recessive
59
Q

What are the three types of Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A
  1. Hypoplastic, 2. Hypomaturation and 3. Hypocalcified
60
Q

What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypocalcified Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?

A

Normal Thickness, smooth surface and less hardness

61
Q

What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypoplastic, pitted Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?

A

Normal thickness, pitted surface and normal hardness

62
Q

What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypoplastic, generalized Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?

A

Reduced thickness, smooth surface, normal hardness

63
Q

What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypomaturation Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?

A

Normal thickness, chipped surface, less hardness and opaque white coloration

64
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant

65
Q

Where do mutations occur to cause Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

DSPP gene

66
Q

What disease is connected to the appearance of bulbous crowns and small pulp chambers?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

67
Q

Which vitamin deficiency can cause the enamel to appear spotty?

A

Vitamin A

68
Q

What are the five principle stages in craniofacial development?

A
  1. Germ layer, 2. Neural tube, 3. Neural crest migration, 4. Organ system formation and 5. Final differentiation
69
Q

What developmental defects causes closely spaced eyes, microcephaly, cleft lip and cleft palate?

A

Holoprosencephaly (HPE)

70
Q

What is cebocephaly?

A

Single nostril

71
Q

What is Hypotelorism?

A

Close-set eyes

72
Q

What causes Trigonocephaly?

A

Premature closure of the suture between the frontal bones forming a triangle-shaped skull

73
Q

What seems to be mutated in holoencephaly?

A

Sonic Hedgehog protein

74
Q

What is the most common cause of mental retardation in the western world?

A

Alcohol

75
Q

What causes fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Deficiencies of the midline of the neural plate

76
Q

What are the four things that disrupt the migration of NC cells?

A
  1. Alcohol, 2. Thalidomide, 3. Accutane and 4. Retinoic acid
77
Q

What causes hearing loss in persons with Treacher-Collins?

A

Lack of formation of the ossicles

78
Q

What are the two symptoms of Craniofacial microsomia or hemifacial microsomia?

A
  1. Deformed external ear and 2. Ramus of mandible and associated soft tissues are missing
79
Q

What do patients with cleidocranial dysplasia lack?

A

Clavicles

80
Q

What are the two hallmarks of Apert’s Syndrome?

A
  1. Craniosynostosis and 2. Symmetric syndactyly
81
Q

What is the disease that is similar to Apert’s Syndrome?

A

Carpenter’s Syndrome

82
Q

What is the most frequent craniosynotosis syndrome?

A

Crouzon’s Syndrome

83
Q

What gene is defective in Crouzon’s Syndrome?

A

FGFR2

84
Q

What operation can make the nasal airway larger?

A

LeFort III

85
Q

What procedure can be done to move the midface forward without surgery?

A

Distraction Osteogenesis

86
Q

What is strange about the inheritance of Pierre Robin sequence?

A

It usually is not inherited - results from genetic changes

87
Q

How does a cleft palate affect the ear?

A

Fluid builds up there

88
Q

What are two drugs that have been linked to cleft lip?

A
  1. Phenytoin and 2. Vitamin A and analogs (Accutane)
89
Q

What are four drugs that have been linked to cleft palate?

A
  1. Phenytoin, 2. Vitamin A, 3. Corticosteroid antiinflamatory drugs and 4. Cigarette smoking
90
Q

What device can be created to aid cleft lip/palate patients in feeding?

A

Obturator

91
Q

What muscle causes the cleft palate to widen?

A

Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle

92
Q

What is a Latham device?

A

A device that pulls cleft lips/palates together as part of surgical reparation

93
Q

When is surgery typically performed on cleft lip patients?

A

Before 12 months

94
Q

When is surgery typically performed on cleft palate patients?

A

Before 18 months

95
Q

What are the three cellular models of growth?

A
  1. Hypertrophy, 2. Hyperplasia and 3. Cellular excretion
96
Q

What is the most important mechanism of growth?

A

Hyperplasia

97
Q

What three cartilaginous precursors develop into the chondrocranium?

A
  1. Ethmoid prechordal, 2. Sphenoid hypophyseal and 3. Occiptal parachordal
98
Q

What is the long shaft of a long bone called?

A

Diaphysis

99
Q

What are the bony knobs at the ends of long bones called?

A

Epiphysis

100
Q

The maxilla, zygomatic, temporal and majority of the mandible are created by which bony ossification?

A

Intramembranous ossification

Orthodontics (8 decks)

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