Quiz One Flashcards
1
Q
Which pouches do not develop properly in DiGeorge Syndrome?
A
Pouches 3 and 4
2
Q
Which organs are often missing or ectopic in DiGeorge Syndrome (3)?
A
Parathyroid/Thymus/Parafollicular Thyroid tissues
3
Q
What causes DiGeorge Syndrome?
A
A deletion in the long arm of chromosome 22
4
Q
What hormone is lost with hypothyroidism?
A
PTH
5
Q
Should hypothyroidism occur, what changes occur in blood ions?
A
Calcium levels decrease and phosphorus decreases
6
Q
Which cells detect deficiencies in Ca in the blood?
A
Chief cells in the parathyroid
7
Q
How many AA make up PTH?
A
84
8
Q
What allows vitamin D to help absorb Ca?
A
PTH
9
Q
Which cells in which organ secrete Calcitonin?
A
Parafollicular cells, thyroid gland
10
Q
What two ways does Calcitonin restrict Ca in the blood?
A
- Inhibits activity of osteoclasts and 2. Decreases resorption of Ca in kidneys
11
Q
What is the name given to the merged pulmonary artery and aorta in DiGeorge Syndrome?
A
Trncus arteriosus
12
Q
What are the four pieces of the tetralogy of Fallot?
A
- Pulmonary stenosis, 2. Right ventricular hypertrophy, 3. Overriding aorta and 4. Ventricular septal defects (VSD)
13
Q
Why do DiGeorge patients have a hard time fighting illness?
A
Due to their thymus glands being small or missing
14
Q
During which range of developmental timing is the face developed?
A
4 and 10 weeks
15
Q
What are the five prominences that merge to form the mouth/face?
A
- Unpaired frontonasal process, 2. Two maxillary swellings and 3. Two mandibular swellings
16
Q
When do the nasal placodes appear?
A
5th week
17
Q
When does the nasal pit form, and, as a consequence, forms the medial and lateral nasal processes?
A
6th week
18
Q
What is the remnant of the intermaxillary process?
A
The philtrum
19
Q
What forms during development to separate the nasal pits from the oral cavity?
A
The nasal fin
20
Q
What does the nasal fin turn into?
A
The Oronasal membrane
21
Q
What happens during the 7th week of development to the Oronasal membrane?
A
It dissolves and leaves an opening referred to as the primitive choana
22
Q
What do the palatine shelves form when they merge with each other and the primary palate?
A
Secondary palate
23
Q
What forms into the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
A
Tongue buds
24
Q
What is the name of the swelling that occurs in the fourth week of development in the midline?
A
Copula
25
What happens to the copula in the sixth week?
It is overgrown by the 3rd and 4th arches and the area is called the hypopharyngeal eminence
26
What nerve is in control of the majority of the tongue?
CN XII
27
What nerve innervates the palatoglossus muslce?
Pharyngeal branch of CN X
28
What supplies sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Lingual branch of CN V
29
What branch of CN VII supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Chorda tympani branch
30
What supplies innervation to the circumvallate?
CN IX
31
What week do salivary glands develop?
Week six
32
What nerve innervates the sensory of the parotid gland?
Auriculotemporal nerve of the mandibular branch of V3
33
What does parasympathetic innervation of the parotid?
CN IX
34
What does sympathetic innervation of the parotid?
Fibers from the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
35
What innervates all small salivary glands above the oral fissure?
Greater petrosal branch of VII
36
What innervates all small salivary glands below the oral fissure?
Chordatympani branch of VII
37
At what pH does fluorapatite start to damage?
4.5
38
What is ACP?
Amorphous Calcium Phosphate - a fake saliva medication for dry mouth
39
During the seventh week of development, how many teeth begin to form?
10
40
Where did the neural crest cells that help form teeth migrate from?
Mesencephalon and Metencephalon
41
What are the three phases of tooth development?
1. Bud, 2. Cap and 3. Bell
42
What is the name of the outgrowth that develops into the bud of the permanent tooth?
Small diverticulum
43
Where do the buds that form into the first permanent molars come from?
They are extensions of the dental lamina of the second primary molars
44
Where does dentin production begin?
At the inner enamel epithelium
45
What becomes the pulp of the developing tooth?
Inner mesenchyme
46
What are the three layers of the enamel organ?
1. OEE, 2. Stellate reticulum and 3. IEE
47
What are the three stages of amelogenesis?
1. Inductive stage, 2. Secretory stage and 3. maturation stage
48
What partially mineralizes the enamel matrix?
The Alkaline phosphatase
49
What is the name of the end of the crystals of the enamel matrix?
Tomes' processes
50
What happens to the ameloblasts during the Maturation phase?
They become striated/have a ruffled border
51
What does the confluence of inner and outer enamel form?
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
52
What are the remnants of HERS called?
Epithelial rests of Malassez
53
What develops into cementoblasts?
Inner cells of the dental follicle sac
54
What do the outer most cells in the dental sac do?
Participate in Alveolar bone formation and help form the PDL
55
What is the first type of cementum that forms?
Acellular
56
What structures are partially incorporated into the PDL by fibroblasts?
Sharpey's fibers
57
When does cellular cementum form?
When the tooth occludes with its partner in the opposite arch
58
What are the three modes of inheriting Amelogenesis Imperfecta?
1. X-linked, 2. Autosomal dominant and 3. Autosomal recessive
59
What are the three types of Amelogenesis Imperfecta?
1. Hypoplastic, 2. Hypomaturation and 3. Hypocalcified
60
What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypocalcified Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?
Normal Thickness, smooth surface and less hardness
61
What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypoplastic, pitted Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?
Normal thickness, pitted surface and normal hardness
62
What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypoplastic, generalized Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?
Reduced thickness, smooth surface, normal hardness
63
What thickness, surface smoothness and hardness does Hypomaturation Amelogenesis Imperfecta have?
Normal thickness, chipped surface, less hardness and opaque white coloration
64
What type of genetic disorder is Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?
Autosomal dominant
65
Where do mutations occur to cause Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?
DSPP gene
66
What disease is connected to the appearance of bulbous crowns and small pulp chambers?
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
67
Which vitamin deficiency can cause the enamel to appear spotty?
Vitamin A
68
What are the five principle stages in craniofacial development?
1. Germ layer, 2. Neural tube, 3. Neural crest migration, 4. Organ system formation and 5. Final differentiation
69
What developmental defects causes closely spaced eyes, microcephaly, cleft lip and cleft palate?
Holoprosencephaly (HPE)
70
What is cebocephaly?
Single nostril
71
What is Hypotelorism?
Close-set eyes
72
What causes Trigonocephaly?
Premature closure of the suture between the frontal bones forming a triangle-shaped skull
73
What seems to be mutated in holoencephaly?
Sonic Hedgehog protein
74
What is the most common cause of mental retardation in the western world?
Alcohol
75
What causes fetal alcohol syndrome?
Deficiencies of the midline of the neural plate
76
What are the four things that disrupt the migration of NC cells?
1. Alcohol, 2. Thalidomide, 3. Accutane and 4. Retinoic acid
77
What causes hearing loss in persons with Treacher-Collins?
Lack of formation of the ossicles
78
What are the two symptoms of Craniofacial microsomia or hemifacial microsomia?
1. Deformed external ear and 2. Ramus of mandible and associated soft tissues are missing
79
What do patients with cleidocranial dysplasia lack?
Clavicles
80
What are the two hallmarks of Apert's Syndrome?
1. Craniosynostosis and 2. Symmetric syndactyly
81
What is the disease that is similar to Apert's Syndrome?
Carpenter's Syndrome
82
What is the most frequent craniosynotosis syndrome?
Crouzon's Syndrome
83
What gene is defective in Crouzon's Syndrome?
FGFR2
84
What operation can make the nasal airway larger?
LeFort III
85
What procedure can be done to move the midface forward without surgery?
Distraction Osteogenesis
86
What is strange about the inheritance of Pierre Robin sequence?
It usually is not inherited - results from genetic changes
87
How does a cleft palate affect the ear?
Fluid builds up there
88
What are two drugs that have been linked to cleft lip?
1. Phenytoin and 2. Vitamin A and analogs (Accutane)
89
What are four drugs that have been linked to cleft palate?
1. Phenytoin, 2. Vitamin A, 3. Corticosteroid antiinflamatory drugs and 4. Cigarette smoking
90
What device can be created to aid cleft lip/palate patients in feeding?
Obturator
91
What muscle causes the cleft palate to widen?
Superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
92
What is a Latham device?
A device that pulls cleft lips/palates together as part of surgical reparation
93
When is surgery typically performed on cleft lip patients?
Before 12 months
94
When is surgery typically performed on cleft palate patients?
Before 18 months
95
What are the three cellular models of growth?
1. Hypertrophy, 2. Hyperplasia and 3. Cellular excretion
96
What is the most important mechanism of growth?
Hyperplasia
97
What three cartilaginous precursors develop into the chondrocranium?
1. Ethmoid prechordal, 2. Sphenoid hypophyseal and 3. Occiptal parachordal
98
What is the long shaft of a long bone called?
Diaphysis
99
What are the bony knobs at the ends of long bones called?
Epiphysis
100
The maxilla, zygomatic, temporal and majority of the mandible are created by which bony ossification?
Intramembranous ossification
