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Comp Review Course > Quiz #5 CP & Neuro > Flashcards

Quiz #5 CP & Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

ACE Inhibitors __ BP and afterload

A

decrease

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2
Q

side effects of Ace inhibitors

A

hypotension, dizziness, dry cough, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

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3
Q

ACE inhibitors are used for 2 things

A

hypertension & CHF

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4
Q

ACE inhibitors how to remember them

A

Prissy PRILs ace all their tests

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5
Q

What do alpha adrenergic antagonist agents do?

A

reduce peripheral vascular tone;
causes dilation of arteries & veins
decrease BP

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6
Q

how to remember Alpha adrenergic antagonist agents

A

alfalfa (alpha) would zo”sin” when he kissed Darla

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7
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonist Agents

used for?

A

HTN and CHF

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8
Q

How to remember Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonist Agents?

A

angi is too (II) tan

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9
Q

Beta blockers __ HR and contractility

A

decrease

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10
Q

How to remember Beta Blockers

A

“olol” looks like two lowercase “B” backward. Therefore, it is a beta blocker.

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11
Q

sodium channel blockers) control

A

cardiac excitation

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12
Q

beta blockers ___ sympathetic activity

A

inhibit

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13
Q

calcium channel blockers __ depolarization and __conduction through the AV node

A

depress & slow

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14
Q

__ Inhibit platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.

A

anticoagulant agents

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15
Q

What type of drugs: Heparin, Coumadin (warfarin), Lovenox (enoxaparin).

A

anticoagulant agents

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16
Q

Antihyperlipidemia Agents do what?

A

increases HDL and lower LDL

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17
Q

Lipitor (atorvastatin), Zocor (simvastatin), Tricor (fenobibrate). are examples of ___

A

antihyperlipidemia agents

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18
Q

__ Inhibit platelet aggregation and clot formation.

A

antithrombotic (antiplatelet agents)

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19
Q

Bayer (aspirin), Plavix (clopidogrel), Persantine (dipyridamole) are examples of__

A

antithrombotic (antiplatelet agents)

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20
Q

Calcium channel blockers result in ___

A

diminished myocardial contraction, vasodilation, and decreased oxygen demand of the heart.

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21
Q

Diuretic agents __ BP and __ excretion of sodium and urine

A

decrease BP;

increases excretion

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22
Q

big side effect with diuretic agents is__?

A

dehydration

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23
Q

Nitrates do what?

A

Decrease ischemia through smooth muscle relaxation and dilation of peripheral veins.

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24
Q

Positive Inotropic Agents

do what? __ velocity of myocardial contraction. __ HR; __ conduction velocity through AV node

A

increase the force and velocity of myocardial contraction;

Decrease HR; Decrease velocity through AV

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25
Q

Lanoxin (digoxin) is an example of a __

A

positive iontropic agents

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26
Q

How to remember thrombolytic agents ?

A

They wanted to use a thrombolytic agent inCASE a blood clot was present.

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27
Q

_ Facilitate clot dissolution through conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin breaks down clots and allows occluded vessels to reopen to maintain blood flow.

A

Thrombolytic agents

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28
Q

__ Block the effects of histamine resulting in a decrease in nasal congestion, mucosal irritation, and symptoms of the common cold, sinusitis, conjunctivitis, and allergies.

A

Antihistamine

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29
Q

How to remember anti histamines?

A

I have bad allergeries, but I feel fINE after taking my antihistamine

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30
Q

Inhaled corticosteroids, leukotriene modifiers, and mast cell stabilizers help prevent inflammatory-mediated bronchoconstriction by inhibiting production of inflammatory cells, suppressing release of inflammatory mediators and reversing capillary permeability, in turn reducing airway edema.

A

anti-inflammatory agents

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31
Q

__ Relieve bronchospasm by stimulating the receptors that cause bronchial smooth muscle relaxation or by blocking the receptors that trigger bronchodilators. Primary classification of bronchodilators include anticholinergic, sympathomimetics, and xanthine derivatives.

A

Bronchodilator Agents

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32
Q

Anticholinergic: Atrovent (ipratropium), Spiriva (tiotropium).
Sympathomimetics: Ventolin (albuterol), Primatene mist (epinephrine), Serevent (salmeterol).
Xanthine derivative: Theo-Dur (theophylline), Aminophylline

A

Bronchodilator Agents

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33
Q

Increase respiratory secretions which help to loosen mucus. Reducing the viscosity of secretions and increasing sputum volume improves the efficiency of the cough reflex and of ciliary action in removing accumulated secretions.

A

expectorant agents

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34
Q

__Decrease the viscosity of mucus secretions by altering their composition and consistency, making them easier to expectorate. Administered by a nebulizer.

A

Mucolytic Agents

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35
Q

what occurs with R sided CVA? (8)

A

impaired judgement, Left hemianopsia, impulsive, rapid performance, Left hemiplegia, denies probs, Left side neglect, spatial perceptual deficits.

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36
Q

what occurs with left sided CVA? (7)

A

Impaired memory, Right hemianopsia, impaired speech (aphasias), aware of deficits, Right hemiplegia, impaired discrimination, slow performance

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37
Q

unawareness or denial of deficits

A

anosognosia

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38
Q

Utilize stimuli that are known to activate the right side of the brain and minimize the use of items that are known to activate the left side of the brain

A

unilateral neglect

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39
Q

Pusher’s syndrome… patient pushes toward __ side

A

paretic side

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40
Q

Anosognosia occurs more with __ side CVA

A

right

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41
Q

Inability to distinguish a figure from the background in which it is embedded.

A

Figure-ground discrimination

42
Q

Inability to perceive the relationship of one object in space to another object, or to oneself.

A

Spatial relations disorder

43
Q

Inability to recognize familiar objects despite normal function of the eyes and optic tracts.

A

visual object agnosia

44
Q

Inability to recognize objects by handling them, although tactile, proprioceptive, and thermal sensations may be intact.

A

Tactile agnosia (asterognosis):

45
Q

There is a disconnection between the idea of a movement and it’s motor execution. Able to carry out habitual tasks automatically but unable to perform them on command.

A

ideomotor apraxia

46
Q

The ability to perform a movement as a result of internal processes that interact with the environment and produce a consistent strategy to generate the correct movement. It is the acquisition of, or modification of movement.

A

motor learning

47
Q

Three stages of motor learning in order.

A
  1. cognitive - initial stage; high concentration
  2. Associative - more independent
  3. autonomous - automatic
48
Q

__Feedback: sensory information normally acquired during performance of a task (visual, vestibular, proprioceptive, somatosensory inputs).

A

intrinsic feedback

49
Q

__ Feedback: externally presented feedback that is added to that normally acquired during task performance; e.g., verbal cueing, manual contact

A

extrinsic feedback

50
Q

__ extrinsic feedback about the outcome of a movement

A

knowledge of results

51
Q

__ extrinsic feedback about the nature of the movement produced; e.g., movement characteristics

A

knowledge of performance

52
Q

__ the practice time in a trial is greater than the amount of rest between trials.
Risk of injury due to fatigue will increase

A

massed practice

53
Q

__ practice: the amount of rest time between trials is equal to or is greater than the amount of practice time for each trial.

A

distributed practice

54
Q

__ practice of a given task under a uniform condition.

A

constant practice

55
Q

__ practice of a given task under differing conditions.

A

variable practice

56
Q

varying practice amongst different tasks.

A

Random practice:

57
Q

consistent practice of a single task.

A

Blocked practice

58
Q

practice of an entire task.

A

Whole training:

59
Q

practice of an individual component or selected components of a task.

A

Part training:

60
Q

Based on the hierarchical model of neurophysiologic function
Abnormal postural reflex activity and abnormal muscle tone are caused by the loss of CNS control at the brainstem and spinal cord levels
Recognizes that interference of normal function within the brain caused by CNS dysfunction leads to slowing down or cessation of motor development

A

Bobath: NDT

61
Q

Utilizes methods that promote or hasten the response of the neuromuscular mechanism through stimulation of the proprioceptors

A

PNF

62
Q

A combination of bilateral UE asymmetrical patterns performed as a closed-chain activity (chop and lift)

A

chopping

63
Q

A progression of motor skill acquisition. The stages of motor control include mobility, stability, controlled mobility, and skill

A

Developmental sequence

64
Q

The hip, knee and ankle move into flexion and extension simultaneously

A

Mass movement patterns

65
Q

Muscle activation of an involved extremity due to intense action of the uninvolved muscle or group of muscles

A

overflow

66
Q

D1 flexion of scapula and shoulder

A

Scap: elevate, abd, upward rotate
Shoulder: flex, add, ER

67
Q

D2 Flexion of scapula and shoulder

A

Scap: elevate, add, upward rotate.
Shldr: flex, abduct, ER

68
Q

hip D1 Flex and Ext

A

Flex: flex, add, ER
exten: exten, abd, IR

69
Q

hip D2 Flex and Ext

A

flex, abd, IR

Extension, add, ER

70
Q

4 levels of motor control

A

Mobility, stability, Controlled Mobility, Skill

71
Q

An isotonic concentric contraction performed against resistance followed by alternating concentric and eccentric contractions with resistance (requires use in a slow and sequential manner and may be used in increments throughout the range to attain max control).

A 
Agonistic Reversals (AR)
(Controlled mobility, skill)
72
Q

Isometric contractions are performed alternating from muscles on one side of the joint to the other side without rest. (emphasizes endurance or strengthening)

A 
Alternating Isometrics (AI)
(Stability )
73
Q

Mobility - Used to increase ROM. As the extremity reaches the point of limitation, the patient performs a max contraction of the antagonist muscle group. The PT resists movement for 8-10 seconds, followed by relaxation. This is repeated until no further gains in ROM are noted during the session.

A

Contract -Relax (CR)

74
Q

An isometric contraction used to increase ROM. The contraction is facilitated for all muscle groups at the limiting point in ROM. Relaxation occurs and the extremity moves through the newly gained range to the next point of limitation, until no further increases can occur (often used with pain).

A

Hold-relax (HR)

75
Q

Used to improve initiation of movement to muscle groups tested at 1/5 or less. An isometric contraction is performed once the extremity is passively placed into a shortened range. Overflow and facilitation may be used to assist with the contraction. Upon relaxation, the extremity is immediately moved into a lengthened position of the pattern with a quick stretch. The patient is asked to return the extremity to the shortened position through an isotonic contraction.

A

Hold-Relax-Active Movement

76
Q

Used to increase ROM around a joint. Consistent manual traction is provided slowly and usually in combination with mobilizations. It can also be utilized with a quick stretch to initiate movement

A

joint distraction

77
Q

Used to increase ROM around a joint. Consistent manual traction is provided slowly and usually in combination with mobilizations. It can also be utilized with a quick stretch to initiate movement

A

normal timing

78
Q

Used to initiate movement and sustain a contraction through the ROM. RC is used to initiate a movement pattern, throughout a weak movement pattern or at point of weakness within the movement pattern. The PT provides a quick stretch followed by isometric or isotonic contractions.

A

Repeated Contractions (RC)

79
Q

Used to emphasize coordination of the proximal components during gait. Resistance is applied to an area such as the pelvis, hips, or extremities during gait in order to enhance coordination, strength, and endurance.

A

resisted Progression

80
Q

Used to assist in initiating a movement when hypertonia exists. Movement progresses from passive, to active, to slightly resistive. Movements must be slow and rhythmical to reduce the hypertonia and allow full ROM

A

Rhythmic Initiation

81
Q

Used to increase ROM and coordinate isometric contraction. It requires isometric contractions of all muscles around a joint against progressive resistance. The patient should relax and move into the newly acquired ROM and repeat the technique. If stability is the goal, RS should be applied as a progression from alternating isometrics in order to stabilize all muscle groups simultaneously around the body part.

A

Rhythmic stabilization

82
Q

Passive technique used to decrease hypertonia by slowly rotating an extremity around the longitudinal axis. Relaxation of the extremity will increase ROM.

A

rhythmical rotation

83
Q

Slow and resited concentric contractions of agonists and antagonists around a joint without rest between reversals. Used to improve control of movement and posture.

A

slowed reversal

84
Q

Using slow reversal with addition of isometric contraction that is performed at the end of movement in order to gain stability.

A

slow reversal hold

85
Q

Used to strengthen the weak component of a motor pattern. Isotonic and isometric contractions produce overflow to the weak muscles.

A

timing for emphasis

86
Q

1 MET = ___ mLO2/kg/min or __ kcal/kg/hr

A

3.5 or 1kcal

87
Q

Light = anything

A
88
Q

Moderate METs amount?

A

3-6 METs.

walking 3 mph, sweeping,light gardening, golf

89
Q

High or Vigorous METs

A

> 6 METs

jogging 5 mph, running 7 mph, heavy farm work, basketball, biking

90
Q

Contraindications for postural drainage 13

A

ICP > 20, head/neck injury, hemorrhage, spinal surgery, active hemoptysis, emphysema, fistula, pulmonary edema, PE, confusion, rib fx, surgical wound

91
Q

Trendelenburg Position is contraindicated for 5?

A 
uncontrolled HTN, 
distended abdomen, 
esophageal surgery
hemoptysis
uncontrolled airway
92
Q

Contraindications for Cardiac Rehab (12)

A

unstable angina, SBP >200, DBP >110; BP drop >20, aortic stenosis, acute systemic illness or fever, uncontrolled arrhythmias, 3rd degree heart block, pericarditis, embolism, thrombophlebitis, ST segment depression or elevation >2 mm, CHF

93
Q

Phase 1 Cardiac Rehab: typical stay?
Mets?
RPE?

A

3-5 days

2-3 METs (progress to 5 METs)

94
Q

Resistance exercises generally avoided first __ after MI; __ post CABG

A

5 weeks;

8 weeks

95
Q

HR after post-surgical __ bmp above resting HR

A

30 bpm

96
Q

Phase II Cardiac Rehab begins strength training

A

elastic bands, 1-3 lb weights

97
Q

Phase III Cardiac Rehab

A

improve or maintain functional capacity; community centers, gyms, YMCA

98
Q

Karvonen HR formula?

A

[(HRmax - HRrest) x .6] + HRrest

99
Q

Aerobic exercise duration and intensity?

A

3-5 days/week

20-60 mins

100
Q

Diaphragmatic breathing, patient is in __ position

A

semi-fowler

Comp Review Course (5 decks)

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