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Comp Review Course > Quiz #4 > Flashcards

Quiz #4 Flashcards

1
Q

an involuntary and automatic movement of a body part as a result of an intentional active or resistive movement in another body part

A

associated reaction

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2
Q

a flexion pattern of the involved upper extremity facilitates flexion of the involved lower extremity

A

homolateral synkinesis

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3
Q

the involved lower extremity will abduct or adduct with applied resistance to the uninvolved lower extremity in the same direction

A

Raimiste’s Phenomenon

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4
Q

raising the involved upper extremity above 100 degrees with elbow extension will produce extension and abduction of the fingers

A

Soques’ Phenomenon

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5
Q

APGAR stands for?

A 
Activity
Pulse
Grimace
Appearance
Respiratory
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6
Q

Scores for Glasgow
severe
moderate
mild

A 
severe = 8 or less
moderate = 9-12
mild = 13-15
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7
Q

LVL OF AROUSAL
Able to open eyes, look at examiner, but responds slowly and is confused
Patient demonstrates decreased alertness and interest in the environment

A

obtunded

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8
Q

LVL of Arousal
Patient can be aroused from sleep only with painful stimuli
Verbal responses are slow or absent
Patient returns to unresponsive state when stimuli are removed
Demonstrates minimal awareness of self and environment

A

stupor

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9
Q

LVL of AROUSAL
State of unconsciousness from which patient cannot be aroused, eyes remain closed
No response to external stimuli or environment

A

COMA

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10
Q

LVL AROUSAL

Able to open eyes, look at examiner, respond fully, and appropriately to stimuli

A

alert

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11
Q

LVL AROUSAL
Patient appears drowsy
Able to open eyes, look at examiner, respond to questions, but falls asleep easily

A

lethargy

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12
Q 
Mini-Mental State Examination
Scored out of \_\_
\_\_ Mild
\_\_ Moderate
\_\_ severe
A

out of 30
21-24 mild
16-20 moderate

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13
Q

Montreal Cognitive Assessment
scored out of __
__ or above = normal

A

out of 30

26 or above = normal

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14
Q

Intermediate or long term memory
Area where long term information about everything an individual has ever learned or info acquired is stored
Includes facts, figures, and name
Thought to work like a hard drive in the computer

A

declarative memory

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15
Q

Involves all motor activities, actions, habits, or skills that are learned through repetition in motor practice
Examples include walking, playing an instrument, and driving

A

procedural memory

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16
Q

amnesia
Inability to remember events prior to the injury
Progressively decreases with recovery

A

retrograde amnesia

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17
Q

amnesia
Inability to create new memory
Usually the last to recover after a comatose state
Contributing factors: poor attention, distractibility, and impaired perception of stimuli

A

anterograde amnesia

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18
Q

MEMORY: Inability to think as clearly or quickly as they normally do, may feel disoriented and have difficulty paying attention, remembering, and making decisions
May come on quickly or slowly over time depending on the cause
Patient may have strange or unusual behavior or may act aggressively

A

confusion

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19
Q

MEMORY: Observed in patients recovering from unconsciousness after severe brain injury
Characterized by disorientation, fear and misinterpretation of sensory stimuli
Patient is frequently loud, agitated, and offensive

A

delirium

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20
Q

3 criteria for complete ASIA

A

Presence of voluntary anal contraction= No
All S4-5 sensory scores = 0
Presence of deep anal pressure= No

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21
Q

ASIA __ sensory but not motor function is preserved below the neurological level & included the sacral segments S4-S5

A

B = incomplete

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22
Q

ASIA: no sensory or motor function is preserved in the sacral segments S4-S5

A

A= complete

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23
Q

ASIA: motor funciton is preserved below neurological level and more than half of key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade

A

C = complete

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24
Q

ASIA: motor funciton is preserved below the neurological level and at least half of the key muscles below neurological level have a muscle grade greater than or equal to 3

A

D = incomplete

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25
Q

ASIA: sensory and motor function is normal

A

E = normal

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26
Q

time required for impulse to travel from atria through conduction system to Purkinje fibers

A

P-R interval

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27
Q

PR interval normal duration

A

0.12-0.2 seconds

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28
Q

QRS normal duration

A

0.06-0.1

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29
Q

QT interval normal duration

A

0.2-0.4

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30
Q

atrial depolarization begins in the SA node and spreads normally throughout the electrical conduction system with HR between 60-100 beats/minute

A

normal sinus rhythm

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31
Q

HR

A

sinus bradycardia

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32
Q

HR > 100 beats/minute (in adults)

A

sinus tachycardia

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33
Q

includes quickening and slowing of impulse formation in SA node resulting in slight beat-to-beat variation of the rate

A

sinus arrhythmia

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34
Q

sinus rhythm, except with intermittent failure of SA node impulse formation or AV node conduction, resulting in occasional complete absence of P or QRS waves

A

sinus arrest

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35
Q

Occurs when ectopic focus in atrium initiates an impulse before SA node
P wave is premature with abnormal configuration
Very common, generally benign, but may progress to atrial flutter, tachycardia or fibrillation
May occur due to stress, caffeine, smoking, alcohol and any type of heart disease

A

Premature atrial contractions

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36
Q

Atria are depolarized between 350-600 times/minute
ECG shows no discrete P waves
Occurs in healthy hearts and in coronary artery disease, hypertension, and valvular disease
Palpitations, fatigue, dyspnea, light-headedness, syncope and chest pain

A

Atrial fibrillation

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37
Q

Ectopic, very rapid atrial tachycardia (250-350 beats/minute)
Saw-tooth shaped P waves (also known as flutter waves)
Occurs with valvular disease (esp mitral), ischemic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, hypertension, acute myocardial infarction, chronic obstructive lung disease and

A

atrial flutter

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38
Q

BLOCK: PR interval > 0.2 seconds
No symptoms or significant change in cardiac function
PR interval may become prolonged for many reasons including medications that suppress AV conduction

A

1st degree atrioventricular block

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39
Q

BLOCK: AV conduction disturbance when impulses between atria and ventricles fall intermittently
Two major types: Mobitz type 1 block (Wenckebach block) & Morbitz type II

A

2nd degree atrioventricular block

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40
Q

BLOCK: All impulses are blocked at AV node, nothing is transmitted to ventricles
Atrial rate > ventricular rate
Medical emergency-requires pacemaker
Causes: degenerative, digitalis, heart surgery and acute MI

A

3rd degree Av block

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41
Q

Premature depolarization arising in ventricles due to ectopic focus
Unifocal PVCs arise from same ectopic focus and have same configuration
Multifocal PVCs arise from different ectopic foci and have different configurations

A

Ventricular Arrhythmias

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42
Q 
Run of 3 or more PVCs sequentially
Very rapid rate (150-200 bpm)
Usually result of an ischemic ventricle
ECG-wide, bizarre QRS waves, no P waves
Longer than 30 seconds is life-threatening, requires immediate medical intervention
A

ventricular tachycardia (v-tach)

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43
Q

Pulseless emergency situation, requiring CPR, defibrillation, medications
ECG- characteristic fibrillatory waves with irregular pattern that is coarse or fine, no QRS complexes

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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44
Q

Ventricular standstill with no rhythm
ECG records straight-line pattern
Requires immediate CPR and medications to stimulate cardiac activity

A

ventricular asystole

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45
Q

__ wave Characteristic marker of infarction, loss of positive electrical voltages due to necrosis

A

Q wave

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46
Q

__segment is sign of subendocardial ischemia, can be also due to digitalis toxicity or hypokalemia

A

depressed ST segment

47
Q

__ Earliest sign of acute transmural infarction

A

ST segment elevation

48
Q

Occurs hours or days after MI __ wave as result of delay in repolarization produced by injury

A

T wave inversion

49
Q

SPO2 level

A

90-100%

50
Q

PaO2

A

80-100 mmHg

51
Q

PaCO2

A

35-45

52
Q

pH level

A

7.35-7.45

53
Q

Prothrombin Time (PT)

A

11.6 sec - 13 sec

54
Q

Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT

A

26.3 - 39.4 sec

55
Q

2 tests for MI or injury

A

CK-MB or Cardiac troponin-I

56
Q

Cholesterol goal ___

A
57
Q

HDL goal

LDL goal

A

HDL: 40-60; >40 men and >50 women
LDL: 100-190; Goal

58
Q

Triglycerides level

A

Range: 150-500

Goal

59
Q

Detect and quantify myocardial perfusion defects and contractility defects
Used in conjunction with radioactive isotopes (invasive)

A

Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)

60
Q

Identify masses in the cardiovascular system
Detect aortic aneurysms
Detect pericardial thickening associated with pericarditis
Assess graft patency in pts post-CABG

A

CT scan

61
Q

Detect and quantify coronary atherosclerosis

Minimal radiation exposure because contrast dye is not used

A

Electron Beam Computed Tomography (EBCT)

62
Q

__ is gold standard for Dx of PE

A

angiography

63
Q 
Ambulatory Electrocardiography
ECG electrodes placed on chest
Records ECG for 24-48 hrs or longer
Patient keeps diary of symptoms and activities 
Evaluates:
Cardiac rhythm
Efficacy of medications
Pacemaker function
A

Holter Monitor

64
Q 
High frequency sound waves
Evaluate functioning of heart:
Size and function of the ventricles
Thickness of the septum
Ejection fraction (EF)
Function of the valves
A

echocardiography

65
Q

Max HR formula

A

220 - age or

208 - (0.7 x age)

66
Q

Karovenen’s formula?

A

60-80% (HR max - resting HR) + resting HR = target HR

67
Q

submax test are terminated at __% HR max

A

85%

68
Q

Radiologic examination with injected contrast medium

Thin catheter inserted into artery of the leg or arm

A

angiography

69
Q

Fiberoptic tool projects image to eyepiece or video camera
Used for direct visualization of the bronchial tree
Identifies:
Tumors
Bronchitis
Foreign bodies
Bleeding

A

bronchoscopy

70
Q

Thin catheter inserted into arm (brachial a.) or leg (femoral a.)
Contrast dye injected into coronary arteries and viewed using radiography
Evaluates narrowing or occlusion of coronary arteries

A

cardiac catheterization

71
Q

Ultrasound transducer passed into esophagus
Patient swallows the tube
Anesthesia and sedative minimizes discomfort

A

transesophageal echocardiogram

72
Q

Small amount of radioactive material injected, inhaled, or swallowed
Image taken looking for “bright spots”
Radioactive material accumulates in areas of high chemical activity (areas of disease)
Used to scan for:
Heart disease
Cancer

A

Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

73
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

74
Q

HCO3- level

A

22-26 mEq/L

75
Q

Eucapnia: __ level of CO2 in arterial blood
Hypercapnia: __ level of CO2 in arterial blood
Hypocapnia: __level of CO2 in arterial blood

A

normal
elevated
low

76
Q

hypoxemia means?

A

low level of O2 in the arterial blood (PaO2

77
Q

PaCO2

A

hyperventilation

78
Q

PaCO2 > 50 mm Hg indicates alveolar

A

hypoventilation

79
Q

Creatine Phosphokinase

A

5-75 mU/mL

80
Q

Lactic Dehydrogenase

A

100-225 mU/mL

81
Q

Total Cholesterol

A

200-240 ,g/dL

82
Q

HDL levels

LDL level

A

HDL: 40-60
LDL: 100-190

83
Q

Triglycerides

A

150-500 mg/dL

84
Q

RBC values

A

Male: 4.3 - 5.6 x 106/ml
Female: 4.0 - 5.2 x 106/ml

85
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Male: 13 - 18 gm/dL
Female: 12 - 16 gm/dL

86
Q

Hematocrit

A

Male: 38.8 - 46.4% OR 45-52%
Female: 35.4 - 44.4% OR 37-48%

87
Q

WBC value

A

4,300 - 10,800 cells/mm3 OR 3.54 - 9.06 x 103/mm3

88
Q

Platelets value

A

150,000 - 450,000 cell/mm3 OR 165 - 415 x 103/mm3

89
Q

Blood glucose
Normal:
Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia

A

Normal: 70-130
Hypoglycemia: 180

90
Q

examples of chronic obstructive lung disease

A

emphysema

chronic bronchitis

91
Q

obstructive lung disease :
__ TLC
__ in RV

A

increase

increase

92
Q

Restrictive lung disease:
__ FVC
__ RV
__ TLC_

A

decreased
decreased
decreased

93
Q

_ reports presence of cancer cells in sputum

A

cytology

94
Q

Loud, tubular sounds (heard over trachea); lower pitch
Inspiratory phase shorter than expiratory (1:3); slight pause between them
*Bronchial sounds over distal airways= abnormal (consolidation or compression; pneumonia)

A

tracheal & bronchial

95
Q

bronchial sounds are normal unless heard in the __ airways

A

distal

96
Q

High pitched, breezy sounds (heard over distal airways in healthy lungs)
Inspiratory phase longer than expiratory (3:1); no pause between them

A

vesicular

97
Q

Mix of bronchial and vesicular (heard at mid-chest or posterior chest b/t scapulae)
Equal inspiratory/expiratory ratio (1:1)

A

Bronchovesicular

98
Q

decreased breath sounds due to?

A

severe congestion, emphysema, hypoventilation

99
Q

absent breath sounds due to __?

A

pneumothorax or lung collapse

100
Q

Discontinuous, high pitched popping sound (heard more on inspiration)
Seen with: restrictive or obstructive respiratory disorders (pneumonia, chronic bronchitis)

A

crackles (Rales)

101
Q

Dry, crackling heard in both inspiration and expiration (heard over spot of pleuritic pain); coughing does NOT alter sound
Seen with: inflamed visceral and parietal pleurae rub together

A

pleural friction rub

102
Q

Continuous, high pitch sound heard in both inspiration and expiration

A

stridor

103
Q

Pleural Friction rub Should disappear when pt __, if not= pericardial friction rub

A

hold breath

104
Q

Stridor is seen with _?Seen with: upper airway obstruction

A

Seen with: upper airway obstruction

105
Q

Continuous, high or low pitched, squeaking or snoring sound; variable on amount of airway obstruction
Seen with: narrowing of airway, turbulent airflow and vibrations of walls of small airways d/t narrowing (bronchospasms, asthma, edema, collapse, secretions, neoplasm, foreign body)

A

wheeze

106
Q

Continuous, low pitched snoring, gurgling, rattle-like (heard in chest wall over bronchi); clears after coughing
Seen with: obstruction by inflammatory secretions or liquid in airways (COPD, pneumonia)

A

rhonci

107
Q

decreased lung sounds heartd with?

A 
Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, aspiration)
COPD
Asthma
Cystic Fibrosis
Bronchiectasis
Bronchopulmonary dysplagia
Pneumothorax, hemothorax, lung contusion
Pleural effusion
Atelectasis
108
Q

Crackles heard with?

A 
Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, aspiration)
COPD
Asthma
Cystic Fibrosis
Bronchiectasis
Bronchopulmonary dysplagia
Pneumothorax, hemothorax, lung contusion
Pleural effusion
Atelectasis
109
Q

Wheezes heard with?

A

apiration pnemonia
asthma
CF
bronchopulmonary dysplagia

110
Q

pleural friction rub heard with?

A

pleural effusion

111
Q

what is Bronchophony?

A

“99”; increased vocal resonance with increased clarity and loudness

112
Q

what is egophony

A

spoken long “E” sound changes to long, nasal sound A

113
Q

Whispered pectoriloquy

A

recognition of whispered “1,2,3”

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