Quiz #4 Flashcards

1
Q

an involuntary and automatic movement of a body part as a result of an intentional active or resistive movement in another body part

A

associated reaction

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2
Q

a flexion pattern of the involved upper extremity facilitates flexion of the involved lower extremity

A

homolateral synkinesis

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3
Q

the involved lower extremity will abduct or adduct with applied resistance to the uninvolved lower extremity in the same direction

A

Raimiste’s Phenomenon

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4
Q

raising the involved upper extremity above 100 degrees with elbow extension will produce extension and abduction of the fingers

A

Soques’ Phenomenon

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5
Q

APGAR stands for?

A
Activity
Pulse
Grimace
Appearance
Respiratory
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6
Q

Scores for Glasgow
severe
moderate
mild

A
severe = 8 or less
moderate = 9-12
mild = 13-15
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7
Q

LVL OF AROUSAL
Able to open eyes, look at examiner, but responds slowly and is confused
Patient demonstrates decreased alertness and interest in the environment

A

obtunded

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8
Q

LVL of Arousal
Patient can be aroused from sleep only with painful stimuli
Verbal responses are slow or absent
Patient returns to unresponsive state when stimuli are removed
Demonstrates minimal awareness of self and environment

A

stupor

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9
Q

LVL of AROUSAL
State of unconsciousness from which patient cannot be aroused, eyes remain closed
No response to external stimuli or environment

A

COMA

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10
Q

LVL AROUSAL

Able to open eyes, look at examiner, respond fully, and appropriately to stimuli

A

alert

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11
Q

LVL AROUSAL
Patient appears drowsy
Able to open eyes, look at examiner, respond to questions, but falls asleep easily

A

lethargy

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12
Q
Mini-Mental State Examination
Scored out of \_\_
\_\_ Mild
\_\_ Moderate
\_\_ severe
A

out of 30
21-24 mild
16-20 moderate

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13
Q

Montreal Cognitive Assessment
scored out of __
__ or above = normal

A

out of 30

26 or above = normal

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14
Q

Intermediate or long term memory
Area where long term information about everything an individual has ever learned or info acquired is stored
Includes facts, figures, and name
Thought to work like a hard drive in the computer

A

declarative memory

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15
Q

Involves all motor activities, actions, habits, or skills that are learned through repetition in motor practice
Examples include walking, playing an instrument, and driving

A

procedural memory

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16
Q

amnesia
Inability to remember events prior to the injury
Progressively decreases with recovery

A

retrograde amnesia

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17
Q

amnesia
Inability to create new memory
Usually the last to recover after a comatose state
Contributing factors: poor attention, distractibility, and impaired perception of stimuli

A

anterograde amnesia

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18
Q

MEMORY: Inability to think as clearly or quickly as they normally do, may feel disoriented and have difficulty paying attention, remembering, and making decisions
May come on quickly or slowly over time depending on the cause
Patient may have strange or unusual behavior or may act aggressively

A

confusion

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19
Q

MEMORY: Observed in patients recovering from unconsciousness after severe brain injury
Characterized by disorientation, fear and misinterpretation of sensory stimuli
Patient is frequently loud, agitated, and offensive

A

delirium

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20
Q

3 criteria for complete ASIA

A

Presence of voluntary anal contraction= No
All S4-5 sensory scores = 0
Presence of deep anal pressure= No

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21
Q

ASIA __ sensory but not motor function is preserved below the neurological level & included the sacral segments S4-S5

A

B = incomplete

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22
Q

ASIA: no sensory or motor function is preserved in the sacral segments S4-S5

A

A= complete

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23
Q

ASIA: motor funciton is preserved below neurological level and more than half of key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade

A

C = complete

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24
Q

ASIA: motor funciton is preserved below the neurological level and at least half of the key muscles below neurological level have a muscle grade greater than or equal to 3

A

D = incomplete

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25
ASIA: sensory and motor function is normal
E = normal
26
time required for impulse to travel from atria through conduction system to Purkinje fibers
P-R interval
27
PR interval normal duration
0.12-0.2 seconds
28
QRS normal duration
0.06-0.1
29
QT interval normal duration
0.2-0.4
30
atrial depolarization begins in the SA node and spreads normally throughout the electrical conduction system with HR between 60-100 beats/minute
normal sinus rhythm
31
HR
sinus bradycardia
32
HR > 100 beats/minute (in adults)
sinus tachycardia
33
includes quickening and slowing of impulse formation in SA node resulting in slight beat-to-beat variation of the rate
sinus arrhythmia
34
sinus rhythm, except with intermittent failure of SA node impulse formation or AV node conduction, resulting in occasional complete absence of P or QRS waves
sinus arrest
35
Occurs when ectopic focus in atrium initiates an impulse before SA node P wave is premature with abnormal configuration Very common, generally benign, but may progress to atrial flutter, tachycardia or fibrillation May occur due to stress, caffeine, smoking, alcohol and any type of heart disease
Premature atrial contractions
36
Atria are depolarized between 350-600 times/minute ECG shows no discrete P waves Occurs in healthy hearts and in coronary artery disease, hypertension, and valvular disease Palpitations, fatigue, dyspnea, light-headedness, syncope and chest pain
Atrial fibrillation
37
Ectopic, very rapid atrial tachycardia (250-350 beats/minute) Saw-tooth shaped P waves (also known as flutter waves) Occurs with valvular disease (esp mitral), ischemic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, hypertension, acute myocardial infarction, chronic obstructive lung disease and
atrial flutter
38
BLOCK: PR interval > 0.2 seconds No symptoms or significant change in cardiac function PR interval may become prolonged for many reasons including medications that suppress AV conduction
1st degree atrioventricular block
39
BLOCK: AV conduction disturbance when impulses between atria and ventricles fall intermittently Two major types: Mobitz type 1 block (Wenckebach block) & Morbitz type II
2nd degree atrioventricular block
40
BLOCK: All impulses are blocked at AV node, nothing is transmitted to ventricles Atrial rate > ventricular rate Medical emergency-requires pacemaker Causes: degenerative, digitalis, heart surgery and acute MI
3rd degree Av block
41
Premature depolarization arising in ventricles due to ectopic focus Unifocal PVCs arise from same ectopic focus and have same configuration Multifocal PVCs arise from different ectopic foci and have different configurations
Ventricular Arrhythmias
42
``` Run of 3 or more PVCs sequentially Very rapid rate (150-200 bpm) Usually result of an ischemic ventricle ECG-wide, bizarre QRS waves, no P waves Longer than 30 seconds is life-threatening, requires immediate medical intervention ```
ventricular tachycardia (v-tach)
43
Pulseless emergency situation, requiring CPR, defibrillation, medications ECG- characteristic fibrillatory waves with irregular pattern that is coarse or fine, no QRS complexes
Ventricular fibrillation
44
Ventricular standstill with no rhythm ECG records straight-line pattern Requires immediate CPR and medications to stimulate cardiac activity
ventricular asystole
45
__ wave Characteristic marker of infarction, loss of positive electrical voltages due to necrosis
Q wave
46
__segment is sign of subendocardial ischemia, can be also due to digitalis toxicity or hypokalemia
depressed ST segment
47
__ Earliest sign of acute transmural infarction
ST segment elevation
48
Occurs hours or days after MI __ wave as result of delay in repolarization produced by injury
T wave inversion
49
SPO2 level
90-100%
50
PaO2
80-100 mmHg
51
PaCO2
35-45
52
pH level
7.35-7.45
53
Prothrombin Time (PT)
11.6 sec - 13 sec
54
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT
26.3 - 39.4 sec
55
2 tests for MI or injury
CK-MB or Cardiac troponin-I
56
Cholesterol goal ___
57
HDL goal | LDL goal
HDL: 40-60; >40 men and >50 women LDL: 100-190; Goal
58
Triglycerides level
Range: 150-500 | Goal
59
Detect and quantify myocardial perfusion defects and contractility defects Used in conjunction with radioactive isotopes (invasive)
Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)
60
Identify masses in the cardiovascular system Detect aortic aneurysms Detect pericardial thickening associated with pericarditis Assess graft patency in pts post-CABG
CT scan
61
Detect and quantify coronary atherosclerosis | Minimal radiation exposure because contrast dye is not used
Electron Beam Computed Tomography (EBCT)
62
__ is gold standard for Dx of PE
angiography
63
``` Ambulatory Electrocardiography ECG electrodes placed on chest Records ECG for 24-48 hrs or longer Patient keeps diary of symptoms and activities Evaluates: Cardiac rhythm Efficacy of medications Pacemaker function ```
Holter Monitor
64
``` High frequency sound waves Evaluate functioning of heart: Size and function of the ventricles Thickness of the septum Ejection fraction (EF) Function of the valves ```
echocardiography
65
Max HR formula
220 - age or | 208 - (0.7 x age)
66
Karovenen's formula?
60-80% (HR max - resting HR) + resting HR = target HR
67
submax test are terminated at __% HR max
85%
68
Radiologic examination with injected contrast medium | Thin catheter inserted into artery of the leg or arm
angiography
69
Fiberoptic tool projects image to eyepiece or video camera Used for direct visualization of the bronchial tree Identifies: Tumors Bronchitis Foreign bodies Bleeding
bronchoscopy
70
Thin catheter inserted into arm (brachial a.) or leg (femoral a.) Contrast dye injected into coronary arteries and viewed using radiography Evaluates narrowing or occlusion of coronary arteries
cardiac catheterization
71
Ultrasound transducer passed into esophagus Patient swallows the tube Anesthesia and sedative minimizes discomfort
transesophageal echocardiogram
72
Small amount of radioactive material injected, inhaled, or swallowed Image taken looking for “bright spots” Radioactive material accumulates in areas of high chemical activity (areas of disease) Used to scan for: Heart disease Cancer
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
73
pH of blood
7.35-7.45
74
HCO3- level
22-26 mEq/L
75
Eucapnia: __ level of CO2 in arterial blood Hypercapnia: __ level of CO2 in arterial blood Hypocapnia: __level of CO2 in arterial blood
normal elevated low
76
hypoxemia means?
low level of O2 in the arterial blood (PaO2
77
PaCO2
hyperventilation
78
PaCO2 > 50 mm Hg indicates alveolar
hypoventilation
79
Creatine Phosphokinase
5-75 mU/mL
80
Lactic Dehydrogenase
100-225 mU/mL
81
Total Cholesterol
200-240 ,g/dL
82
HDL levels | LDL level
HDL: 40-60 LDL: 100-190
83
Triglycerides
150-500 mg/dL
84
RBC values
Male: 4.3 - 5.6 x 106/ml Female: 4.0 - 5.2 x 106/ml
85
Hemoglobin
Male: 13 - 18 gm/dL Female: 12 - 16 gm/dL
86
Hematocrit
Male: 38.8 - 46.4% OR 45-52% Female: 35.4 - 44.4% OR 37-48%
87
WBC value
4,300 - 10,800 cells/mm3 OR 3.54 - 9.06 x 103/mm3
88
Platelets value
150,000 - 450,000 cell/mm3 OR 165 - 415 x 103/mm3
89
Blood glucose Normal: Hypoglycemia Hyperglycemia
Normal: 70-130 Hypoglycemia: 180
90
examples of chronic obstructive lung disease
emphysema | chronic bronchitis
91
obstructive lung disease : __ TLC __ in RV
increase | increase
92
Restrictive lung disease: __ FVC __ RV __ TLC_
decreased decreased decreased
93
_ reports presence of cancer cells in sputum
cytology
94
Loud, tubular sounds (heard over trachea); lower pitch Inspiratory phase shorter than expiratory (1:3); slight pause between them *Bronchial sounds over distal airways= abnormal (consolidation or compression; pneumonia)
tracheal & bronchial
95
bronchial sounds are normal unless heard in the __ airways
distal
96
High pitched, breezy sounds (heard over distal airways in healthy lungs) Inspiratory phase longer than expiratory (3:1); no pause between them
vesicular
97
Mix of bronchial and vesicular (heard at mid-chest or posterior chest b/t scapulae) Equal inspiratory/expiratory ratio (1:1)
Bronchovesicular
98
decreased breath sounds due to?
severe congestion, emphysema, hypoventilation
99
absent breath sounds due to __?
pneumothorax or lung collapse
100
Discontinuous, high pitched popping sound (heard more on inspiration) Seen with: restrictive or obstructive respiratory disorders (pneumonia, chronic bronchitis)
crackles (Rales)
101
Dry, crackling heard in both inspiration and expiration (heard over spot of pleuritic pain); coughing does NOT alter sound Seen with: inflamed visceral and parietal pleurae rub together
pleural friction rub
102
Continuous, high pitch sound heard in both inspiration and expiration
stridor
103
Pleural Friction rub Should disappear when pt __, if not= pericardial friction rub
hold breath
104
Stridor is seen with _?Seen with: upper airway obstruction
Seen with: upper airway obstruction
105
Continuous, high or low pitched, squeaking or snoring sound; variable on amount of airway obstruction Seen with: narrowing of airway, turbulent airflow and vibrations of walls of small airways d/t narrowing (bronchospasms, asthma, edema, collapse, secretions, neoplasm, foreign body)
wheeze
106
Continuous, low pitched snoring, gurgling, rattle-like (heard in chest wall over bronchi); clears after coughing Seen with: obstruction by inflammatory secretions or liquid in airways (COPD, pneumonia)
rhonci
107
decreased lung sounds heartd with?
``` Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, aspiration) COPD Asthma Cystic Fibrosis Bronchiectasis Bronchopulmonary dysplagia Pneumothorax, hemothorax, lung contusion Pleural effusion Atelectasis ```
108
Crackles heard with?
``` Pneumonia (bacterial, viral, aspiration) COPD Asthma Cystic Fibrosis Bronchiectasis Bronchopulmonary dysplagia Pneumothorax, hemothorax, lung contusion Pleural effusion Atelectasis ```
109
Wheezes heard with?
apiration pnemonia asthma CF bronchopulmonary dysplagia
110
pleural friction rub heard with?
pleural effusion
111
what is Bronchophony?
“99”; increased vocal resonance with increased clarity and loudness
112
what is egophony
spoken long "E" sound changes to long, nasal sound A
113
Whispered pectoriloquy
recognition of whispered "1,2,3"