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Comp Review Course > Quiz #3 > Flashcards

Quiz #3 Flashcards

1
Q

__ Theories: emphasize a normal developmental sequence that is common to all
AKA: Hierarchical Theories
Ex: Bayley Scales of Infant Motor Development

A

maturation theories

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2
Q

__ Theories: emphasis on conditioning behaviors via stimulus-response.
Ex: moving from an area full of distractions to an area without distractions to facilitate better focus for the patient.
Ex: changing exercise parameters (intensity, frequency, etc.)

A

Behavioral theories

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3
Q

_ Theories: focus on a nonlinear development, resulting of many intrinsic and extrinsic factors impacting the child.
Less focus on the CNS as the main director of development
Rather, the CNS is just one part of the many, many facets that direct development.
Other factors include: socioeconomics, genetics, nutrition, musculoskeletal system, etc.

A

Dynamic Systems Theories

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4
Q

ATNR ?

A

birth to 6 mo

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5
Q

STNR

A

6-11 mo

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6
Q

TLR

A

birth to 6 mo

or utero - 36 mo

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7
Q

Spinal Galant

A

32 weeks gestation - 2 mo

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8
Q

Palmar grasp

A

birth - 4 mo

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9
Q

plantar grasp reflex

A

28 weeks to 9 mo

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10
Q

rooting reflex

A

28 weeks gestation to 3 mo

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11
Q

Moro and startle?

A

28 weeks gestation to 5 months

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12
Q

landau reflex

A

4 to 12 months

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13
Q

positive support reflex and walking (stepping reflex)

A

35 weeks to 2 mo

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14
Q

Names for forebraing
midbrain
hindbrain

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

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15
Q

cerebrum, hippocampus, basal ganglia, amygdala make up the __

A

telencephalon of forebrain

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16
Q

thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus

make up the __

A

diencephalon of forebrain

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17
Q

superior and inferior colliculi

make up__

A

tectum of midbrain

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18
Q

cerebral aqueduct, periaqueductal gray, reticular formation, substantia nigra, red nucleus make up __

A

tegmentum of midbrain

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19
Q

cerebellum, pons make up __

A

metencephalon

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20
Q

medulla oblongata

make up __

A

myelencephalon

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21
Q

what lobe? vlountary motion, judgement, personality, reasoning

A

frontal lobe

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22
Q

__ lobe: sensation of light and crude touch, kinesthesia, vibration, and temp, interprets speech and language

A

parietal lobe

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23
Q

__ lobe: dominant auditory processing and olfaction area; Wernicke’s area, interpretation other people’s emotions and reactions

A

temporal lobe

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24
Q

__ lobe: primary processing center for visual information

A

occipital lobe

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25
Q

precentral gyrus = __

postcentral gyrus = —

A

motor

sensory

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26
Q

Located in the lower temporal lobe
– Responsible for forming/storing new memories of one’s history and learning language
– “Memory indexer” relays memories for long-term storage and retrieves memories when necessary

A

hippocampus

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27
Q

Located in the center of the cerebrum and consists of the caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nuclei.
– Responsible for voluntary motion, regulation of autonomic movement, posture, muscle tone, and control of motor feedback

A

basal ganglia

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28
Q

Almond-shaped nuclei located in the temporal lobes of both hemispheres
– Primary function is emotional and social processing
– Associated with fear and pleasure , processing of memory, arousal, and the development of emotional memories

A

amygdala

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29
Q

Receives and coordinates information from the ANS
– Controls functions including hunger, thirst, sleeping, sexual behavior, and regulates body temperature
– Impairment of the hypothalamus may result in obesity, poor temperature control, and diabetes insipidus

A

hypothalamus

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30
Q

– Located in between the thalamus and hypothalamus

– Regulates skeletal muscle movement

A

subthalamus

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31
Q

Characterized by the pineal gland

– Secretes melatonin and associated with circadian rhythms, selected control of motor pathways, and emotions

A

epithalamus

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32
Q

Two areas of the midbrain?

A

tectum and tegmentum

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33
Q

Located at the base of the brain superior the spinal cord
Connects the forebrain and hindbrain
Acts as a relay station for information from the cerebrum, cerebellum, and spinal cord
Functions as a reflex center for auditory, visual, and tactile feedback

A

midbrain

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34
Q

__ connects the 3rd and 4th ventricle for the transmission for cerebrospinal fluid

A

– Cerebral aqueduct –

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35
Q

__ important for motor control and muscle tone

A

substantia nigra

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36
Q

__ receives fibers from the cerebellum regarding coordination

A

red nucleus

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37
Q

hind brain consists of (3)?

A

cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata

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38
Q

__ and __ regulate the body’s vital functions

A

pons and medulla

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39
Q

__coordinates movement controls maintaining balance

A

cerebellum

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40
Q

Impairment to one side of the cerebellum will produce __ symptoms of the body

A

ipsilateral

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41
Q

__ Assists with controlling respiratory rate and the orientation of the head in regards to visual and auditory stimuli

A

pons

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42
Q

Cranial nerves __ originate at the pons

A

5-8

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43
Q

__ Controls autonomic nervous activity and the manages respiration and heart rate
Has reflex centers for coughing, sneezing, and vomiting

A

medulla oblongata

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44
Q

Cranial nerves __ originate in the medulla oblongata

A

Cranial nerves 9, 10, 11, and 12 originate in the medulla oblongata

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45
Q

Impairment in medualla oblongata causes __ signs and symptoms

A

contralateral

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46
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced in the __ in each of the ventricles.

A

choroid plexus

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47
Q

CSF that originates in the lateral ventricles continues through the __ to the third ventricle.

A

interventricular foramen

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48
Q

The brain’s blood supply is from what two major arteries?

A

2 internal carotid arteries

2 vertebral arteries

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49
Q

which artery? contralateral LE motor and sensory involvement, impaired bowl and bladder, neglect, aphasia, apraxia, agraphia

A

ACA

50
Q

which artery? contralateral motor and sensory loss of face and UE with less involvement of LE, homonymous hemianopsia, apraxia, werninicke’s aphasia, flat affect,

A

MCA

51
Q

Anosognosia meaning?

A

the lack of awareness of having a disease.

52
Q

which artery? contalateral sensory loss and pain, contralateral hemiplegia and mild hemiparesis, anomia, visual agnosia, athetosis, ataxia, choreiform movement

A

PCA

53
Q

which artery? loss of consciousness, paraplegia or quad, inability to talk, vegitative state or comatose, vertigo, nystagmus, syncope

A

verebral basilar artery

54
Q

Thalamic pain syndrome (abnormal sensation of pain, temp, touch, and proprioception) due to injury to which artery?

A

PCA

55
Q

Locked in syndrome, coma, or vegatative state due to injury to which artery?

A

Vertebral basilar artery

56
Q

__ system process emotions, process declarative memory, affect autonomic nervous system functions

A

limbic system

57
Q

__ perceive emotions, generate emotions, regulate autonomic aspects of emotions, Essential for social behavior.

A

amygdala

58
Q

declarative memory processing, automatic regulation of emotions (e.g. automatically not doing something socially unacceptable or ignoring an emotional experience), resolves goal conflict (e.g. keeping a resolution).

A

hippocampus

59
Q

__ recognition of new stimuli

A

parahippocampal gyrus

60
Q

Limbic system MOVE stands for?

A

memory and motivation
olfaction
Visceral- thirst, hunger, temp
Emotion

61
Q

Limbic system F2ARV

A

fear, frustration, anger, rage, and violence

62
Q

Autonomic response to stress. This occurs sequentially
First: strong sympathetic reaction causing heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, metabolism, and muscle tone to increase. (Mom lifts a tractor off of her favorite kid).
Second: If this stimulation does not decrease a parasympathetic response occurs.
Third: The bronchi constrict, patient may hyperventilate, may become dizzy or confused and less alert.
Fourth: Blood flow returns to the periphery, the face flushes, skin may become hot, patient has no energy to move, and finally they will withdraw and posture becomes flexed.

A

GAS - General Adaptation Syndrome

63
Q

sensory spinal tract. proprioception
vibration
2-point discrimination
graphesthesia

A

DCML = fasciculus cuneatus and fasciculus gracilis

64
Q

which tract? Ascends to cerebellum for ipsilateral subconscious proprioception, tension in muscles, joint sense, and posture of the trunk and LE

A

spinocerebellartract - ventral and dorsal

65
Q

Spinal tract Ascends to cerebellum and relays info from cutaneous and proprioceptive organs

A

spino-olivary tract

66
Q

spinal tract Afferent pathway for reticular formation that influences level of consciousness

A

spinoreticular tract

67
Q

spinal tract - Sensory tract providing afferent info for spinovisual reflexes and assists with movements of eyes and head towards a stimulus

A

spinotectal tract

68
Q

spinal tract - Anterior = light touch and pressure

Lateral = pain and temperature sensation

A

spinothalamic tract

69
Q

Spinal tract - Lateral - contralateral voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements
Anterior - ipsilateral voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements

A

corticospinal tracts

70
Q

Spinal tract - extrapyramidal motor tract responsible for facilitation / inhibition of voluntary and reflex activity through the influence on alpha and gamma motor neurons.

A

reticulospinal tract

71
Q

spinal tract - Gross postural control
Facilitating activity of flexor muscles
Inhibiting activity of extensor muscles

A

rubrospinal tract

72
Q

Spinal tract – Contralateral postural muscle tone associated with auditory/visual stimuli

A

tectospinal tract

73
Q

Spinal tract - Ipsilateral gross postural adjustments as a result of head movement.
Facilitating activity of the extensor muscles
Inhibiting activity of the flexor muscles

A

vestibulospinal tract

74
Q

Progressive neurological disorder caused by amyloid plaques and tangles within the cerebral cortex and subcortical areas of the brain.
The disease affects the higher cortical functions first and eventually progresses to severe mental and physical impairments.

A

Alzheimer’s disease

75
Q

Degenerative disease that destroys the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and motor cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem.
Demyelination of the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts is seen as well.

A

ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)

76
Q

Degeneration occurs in the basal ganglia and the cerebral cortex that renders the neurotransmitters unable to modulate movement.
Patient will present with involuntary choreic movements, alteration in personality, grimacing, protrusion of the tongue and ataxia with corheoatheoid movement.

A

huntington’s disease

77
Q

Caused by demyelination of the nerves in the brain and spinal cord, which leads to decreased nerve conduction velocity and failure of impulse transmission.

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

78
Q

Disorder of the basal ganglia due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons.
Symptoms begin with balance disturbances, difficulty with certain movements and a resting tremor in their hands.
Symptoms eventually progress to hypokinesia, akinesia, festinating gait, bradykinesia, dysphagia and rigidity of the skeletal muscles.

A

Parkinson’s disease

79
Q

__ Large, myelinated fibers with high conduction rate
__ Medium, myelinated fibers with high conduction rate
__ Small, unmyelinated fibers with slow conduction rate

A

A fibers
B fibers
C fibers

80
Q 
reflex grading
0
1
2
3
4
A 
0 abnormal
1 diminished
2 active normal response
3 brisk/exaggerated
4 hyperactive
81
Q

—Degeneration that occurs distally, Specifically to the myelin sheath and axon.
—Occurs when the distal segment of an axon degenerates, the myelin sheath pulls away from that segment
—The axon swells and breaks into shorter segments. The terminals rapidly degenerate and their loss is followed by death of the entire distal segment.

A

wallerian degeneration

82
Q

Mildest form of injury
—Conduction black usually due to myelin dysfunction.
—Axonal continuity Preserved
—Axons, epineurium, perieurium, and endonerium
—Nerve conduction preserved Proximal and distal to the nerve lesion

A

neuropraxia

83
Q

—A more severe grade of injury to the peripheral nerve
—Reversible injury damaged fibers since they still maintain an anatomical relationship to each other.
—Damage occurs to the axons with preservation of the endoneurium, epinneurium, schwan cells, and supporting structures.

A

axonotmesis

84
Q

The most severe grade of injury to a peripheral nerve.
—Axon, myelin, connective tissue components are damaged or transected
—Irreversible injury, no possible regeneration
—Flaccid Paralysis and wasting of muscle occur

A

neurotmesis

85
Q

Characterized by a lesion found in the descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex, internal capsule, brain stem or spinal cord.
—Damage is found to be within the lateral white column of the spinal cord
Examples

A

umn

86
Q

example of UMN disease?

A

CP, hydrocephalu, ALS, CVA, birth injury, MS, TBI

87
Q

Characterized by a lesion that affects nerves or their axons at or below the level of the brainstem.
—The ventral gray column of the spinal cord can also be affected

A

LMN disease

88
Q

LMN diseae examples

A 
guillain barre syndrome
bell's palsy
carpal tunnel
MD
poliomyelitis
89
Q

Invasive procedure of the spinal canal using contrast dye and x-ray imaging.
—Procedure has a high risk for headache following the spinal tap, but is used to rule out potential abnormalities surrounding the subarachnoid space, spinal nerve injury, herniated disks, fractures, back or leg pathology, and spinal tumors.

A

myelography

90
Q

—Non-invasive procedure using two sets of electrodes that records the time it takes for an impulse to reach the brain.
—External stimuli (auditory, visual, Proprioceptive) are used to evoke electrical potentials in the brain.

A

evoked potentials

91
Q

—Non-Invasive Procedure that can continuously measure electrical activity of the brain, using electrodes.
—Baseline measurements are taken and then various stimuli are presented and brain wave are analyzed

A

electroencephalography

92
Q

—Invasive procedure to evaluate the integrity of a spinal disk.
—Contrast dye is injected and CT scanning is performed in order to better assess suspected damage of the IVD.

A

discography

93
Q

A invasive procedure that can determine the narrowing or blockage of a artery within the brain.
—Used to diagnose potential CVA, brain tumor, aneurysm or vascular malformation.

A

cerebral angiography,

94
Q

Non- Invasive stimulation of a peripheral nerve to determine the nerve actions potentials and the nerve’s ability to send a signal.
—NCV rules out peripheral neuropathies, carpal tunnel syndrome, demyelination pathology, and peripheral nerve compression.

A

nerve conduction velocity

95
Q

Brain scan imaging that provides two and three-dimensional pictures of brain activity.
—Is used to rule out cerebral circulatory pathology, metabolism dysfunction, tumors, blood flow, and brain changes following injury or drug abuse.

A

Positron emission tomography (PET)

96
Q

Regulates body movement through sensory and motor neurons that transmit information from the brain to muscle fibers throughout the body.
Peripheral nerve fibers send sensory information to the CNS
Peripheral components of the somatic nervous system include axons, sensory nerve endings, and glial cells

A

SNS

97
Q

Concerned with innervations of involuntary structures
smooth muscle
internal organs
glands
Helps maintain homeostasis and a person’s response to stress

A

ANS

98
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- scapula

A

flex: elevation and retraction
ext: depression and protraction

99
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- shoulder

A

flex: abduction and ER
ext: IR and adduction

100
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- forearm

A

flex: supination
ext: pronation

101
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- hip

A

Flex: abduction and ER
ext: extension, IR and adduction

102
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- ankle

A

flex: DF with supination
ext: PF and inversion

103
Q

Flexor/Extensor Synergy pattern- toes

A

flex: extension
ext: flex and adduction

104
Q

*An associated reaction in hemiplegia in which resistance to hip abduction or adduction in the noninvolved extremity evokes the same motion in the involved extremity.

A

Raimste’s phenomenon

105
Q

flexion pattern of the involved upper extremity facilitates flexion of the involved lower extremity

A

Homolateral Limb synkinesis

106
Q

breakdown between concept and performance, condition where a person plans a movement or task, but cannot volitionally perform it.

A

ideomotor apraxia

107
Q

the inability to formulate an initial motor plan and sequence tasks where the proprioceptive input necessary for movement is impaired. Failure in the conceptualization of the task

A

ideational apraxia

108
Q

the inability to reproduce geometric figures and designs, inability or difficulty to build, assemble, or draw objects

A

constructional apraxia

109
Q

anterior cord sydnrome injury is uauly from cervical __

A

flexion

110
Q

anterior cord syndrome has loss of __ and __ below the lesion

A

pain and temp

111
Q

brown sequard syndrome: loss of __ and __ on the contralateral side of the lesion due to damage of the __ tract

A

pain and temp

lateral spinothalamic tract

112
Q

central cord syndrome occurs due to __ injury

A

compression injury or

113
Q

__ are involved more than the __ extremtiies

A

UE

114
Q

Phenomenon which spares the nerve tracts in the sacral levels from the damage which higher levels received.
Perianal sensation, rectal sphincter tone, and/or active toe flexion may be spared.

A

sacral sparing

115
Q

__hemisphere – produce written and verbal language

__hemisphere – understand nonverbal communication

A

left

right

116
Q

fluent aphasia = __ aphasia

non fluent + __ aphasia

A

receptive (wernicke’s)

expressive (broca’s)

117
Q

– Lesion is that the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes
– Reading and auditory comprehension is severely impaired
– Impaired writing, naming, and repetition skills
– May involuntarily verbalize with correct context
– May rely on nonverbal cues for communication

A

global aphasia

118
Q

Reduce or eliminate seizure activity within the brain
act to inhibit certain neurons throughout the CNS
Includes barbiturates, benzodiazepines, etc.; Seconal (secobarbital), Klonopin (clonazepam), Depakote (valproic acid), Dilantin (phenytion), Tegretol (carbamazepine), Celontin (methsuximide), Neurontin (gabapentin)

A

antiepileptic agents

119
Q

Promote relaxation in a spastic muscle. These agents bind mildly within the CNS or within skeletal muscle cells to reduce spasticity;
Lioresal (baclofen), Valium (Diazepam), Dantrium (dantrolene), Zanaflex (tizanidine)

A

antispasticity agents

120
Q

Direct: Mimic the actions of acetylcholine and bind directly to cholingergic receptors to active and create responses at the cellular level.
Indirect: Increase cholinergic synapse activity through the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase;
Aricept (donepezil), Tensilon (edrophonium), Prostigmin (neostigmine), Cognex (tacrine)

A

cholinergic agents

121
Q

Action: assist to relieve symptoms of Parkinson’s disease secondary to decrease in endogenous dopamine. These agents can cross the blood brain barrier through active transport. Once in the brain, they can directly transform into dopamine; Sinemet or Madopar (levodopa), Symmetrel (amantadine)

A

dopamine replacement

122
Q

Promote relaxation in muscles that typically present with spasm that is a continuous, tonic contraction. Typically occurs secondary to a musculoskeletal or peripheral nerve injury vs. CNS injury;
” Valium (diazepam), Flexeril *cyclobenzaprine), Paraflex (chlorzoxazone).

A

muscle relaxants

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