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Comp Review Course > Comp Quiz #1 > Flashcards

Comp Quiz #1 Flashcards

1
Q

__ tube is Inserted through a nostril, down back of throat and extends into stomach
Commonly used for short-term liquid feeding, medication administration, or gas removal from stomach
Can inhibit a cough and be irritating for patient

A

Nasogastric Tube (NG Tube)

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2
Q

__ Tube Inserted via small incision in the abdomen into the stomach
Can be used for long-term feeding when pt has difficulty with swallowing or risk of aspiration

A

Gastric Tube (G Tube)

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3
Q

__ tube Inserted through endoscopy into jejunum via abdominal wall
Can be used for long-term feeding

A

Jejunostomy Tube (J Tube)

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4
Q

__ system Used to infuse fluids, electrolytes, nutrients and medications
Inserted into superficial veins: basilica, cephalic, antecubital
Used when the gastrointestinal tract is not able to digest or absorb food

A

Intravenous feeding system (IV Feeding)

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5
Q

__ line Used to measure blood pressure or obtain blood samples
Considered more accurate than traditional BP techniques

A

Arterial Line (a line)

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6
Q

IF an A-line Is displaced, PT should__ and __

A

apply direct pressure and call for assistance

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7
Q

__ line Used to measure pressures in the right atrium or superior vena cava via indwelling venous catheter and pressure manometer
Used to evaluate right ventricular function, right atrial filing pressure, and circulating blood volume

A

central line

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8
Q

__ line Inserted through cephalic or internal jugular vein and treaded into superior vena cava or right atrium
Used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system like chemotherapy, parenteral nutrition, antibiotics

A

Hickman Line (Indwelling Right Atrial Catheter)

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9
Q

__ Used to measure the pressure exerted against the skull
Sensing devices placed inside the skull
May be needed following closed head injury, cerebral hemorrhage, overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid, or brain tumor

A

Intracranial Pressure Catheter

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10
Q

__ Inserted through a vein into pulmonary artery
Used to provide continuous measurements of pulmonary artery pressure
Pt should avoid excessive movement of head, neck and extremities

A

Swan-Ganz (pulmonary artery catheter)

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11
Q

Nasal Cannula is capable of delivering up to __ L of O2 per minute

A

6 L of O2 per min

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12
Q

Oxygen mask that Designed to cover nose and mouth

Used to deliver O2 therapy, medications, mucolytic detergents, or humidity

A

Oronasal mask

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13
Q

oxygen mask Placed over stoma or tracheostomy

A

tracheostomy mask or catheter

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14
Q

__ devices The overall purpose is to relieve excessive pressure away from the internal abdominal area due to inflammation, cancer, trauma, etc.

A

Ostomy devices

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15
Q

__ is a pain control device Chronic low back

May be surgically implanted if needed

A

Epidural Catheter

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16
Q

__ is a pain control device administers a dose every 4 hours or so

A

PCA Pump (patient controlled analgesia)

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17
Q

__ catheter is condom like flexible sheath that fits over the penis to drain urine into a collection bag
for men with moderate to severe urinary incontinence

A

external urinary catheter

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18
Q

__ catheter a tube inserted through the urethra into the bladder that drains into a collection bag. held into place by an inflated cuff.
used for urinary incontinence and retention; to assist with post-op bladder drainage

A

Foley Urinary Catheter

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19
Q

__ catheter placed in the bladder through surgical incision in the lower abdominal wall. secured to abdominal wall with sutures.
Drains bladder after bladder or gynecologic surgeries. Used to drain bladder in cases of complete blocked urethra, and management of long-term urinary incontinence

A

suprapubic urinary catheter

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20
Q

__ is used to understand what motivates people; one must satisfy __ level needs before progressing on to meet __ level growth needs

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

lower –> higher

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21
Q

Maslows level __

air, food, drink, shelter, warmth, sex, sleep.

A

physiological needs (low)

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22
Q

Maslow’s level __ protection from elements, security, order, law, stability, freedom from fear.

A

safety needs

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23
Q

Maslow’s level __ friendship, intimacy, affection and love, - from work group, family, friends, romantic relationships.

A

Social Needs

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24
Q

Maslow’s level __ achievement, mastery, independence, status, dominance, prestige, self-respect, respect from others.

A

Esteem Needs

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25
Q

Maslow’s level __ realizing personal potential, self-fulfillment, seeking personal growth and peak experiences.

A

Self-actualization needs (highest)

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26
Q

Which disablement model?

Active Pathology –> Impairment –> Functional limitation–> Disability

A

Nagi Model

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27
Q

Which disablement model?

Disease - impairment - disability - handicap

A

WHO Classification

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28
Q

Which disablement model?

funciton - structure- activity and participation restriction - environmental factors

A

ICF model

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29
Q

__ is not included in Nagi’s model?

A

handicap

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30
Q

__ Result of a medically definable condition that limits a person’s movements, senses, or activities.

A

disability

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31
Q

a __ can be defined as the social disadvantage attached to having a disease, impairment, functional limitation, or disability. …Physical therapists are deeply concerned with eliminating social attitudes that cause some persons to be handicapped”
In lay terms . . .a barrier or a circumstance that makes progress or success difficult

A

handicap

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32
Q

ICF is named as it is because of its stress is on __ and __, rather than on disability.

A

health and function

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33
Q

__ defined as disease, disorder, or condition

A

PATHOLOGY

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34
Q

__ is defined as loss or abnormality of physiological, psychological, or anatomical structure or function.

A

impairment

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35
Q

__ is is defined as restriction of the ability to perform—at the level of the whole person—a physical action, activity, or task in an efficient, typically expected, or competent manner.

A

functional limitation

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36
Q

__ is defined as the inability to engage in age-specific, gender-related, or sex-specific roles in a particular social context and physical environment.

A

disability

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37
Q

the IDEA is a __ statue

A

federal

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38
Q

the purpose of __ is to establish the right of disabled children to free public education regardless of parents’ financial means

A

IDEA (individuals with disabilities act)

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39
Q

IDEA is for children between ages __ to __

A

3-22

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40
Q

IDEA School districts are required to provide support related services to disabled children
4

A

Transportation
Assistive technology devices
Medical, psychological, physical and occupational therapy
Audiology and speech-language evaluative services

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41
Q

PT help establish __ for students. these Services are provided to children with developmental delays or infants/toddlers “at risk” for developing delays

A

EIP early intervention programs

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42
Q

Worker’s compensations mandatory statues in all 50 states (3)

A

Income continuation
Payment of medical and rehabilitation expenses
2 questions…was the employee injured on the job and the degree of resultant disability

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43
Q

purpose of workers comp?

A

provide health care for individuals injured on the job

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44
Q

__ only contribute to the fund of worker’s comp

A

employers

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45
Q

__ Slower mental and physical activity

Desire to withdraw

A

depression

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46
Q

__ Constantly active
Impulses immediately expressed
Disagreement with pt may produced pt aggression

A

mania

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47
Q

__ Alternating periods of depression and mania

Females at greater risk

A

bipolar

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48
Q

__ Persistent thoughts that will not leave
Repetitive ritual behaviors the pt can’t stop performing
Interfere with daily living

A

obsessive-compulsive

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49
Q

__ Constant high tension Apprehension and chronic worry

A

anxiety

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50
Q

__ Excessive fear of objects, occurrences, or situations

May develop from traumatic experiences, observation, classical conditioning

A

phobia

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51
Q

__ Includes two or more independent personalities

Each personality may or may not know about the others

A

Multiple Personality

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52
Q

__ disorder: Physical complaints of neurological basis with no underlying cause
Paralysis is the most common

A

conversion disorder

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53
Q

__ disorders: Complaints of symptoms with no physiological basis

A

somatization

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54
Q

__ disorders: Excessive fear of illness

A

hypochondriasis

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55
Q

Schizophrenia Disorders: __ Delusions of grandeur or persecution
May believe they possess special powers

A

paranoid

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56
Q

Schizophrenia Disorders: __ Motor disturbances with rigid posturing

A

CATATONIC

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57
Q

Schizophrenia Disorders: Inappropriate emotional responses
Mumbled talking
progressive

A

Disorganized

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58
Q

_ personality Poor sense of responsibility
No respect for others, little guilt or remorse for actions
High frustration

A

psychopathic personality

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59
Q

__ behavior: Blames others for their actions

Violates rights of others, lacks responsibility and emotional stability

A

antisocial behavior

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60
Q

__ behavior Incapable of loving others

self-absorbed, obsessed with success and power, unrealistic perception of self-importance

A

narcissistic behavior

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61
Q

__ behavior: Instability in all aspects of life

A

borderline behavior

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62
Q

__ act Established new content and academic achievement standards for public schools
Mandates periodic standardized assessment of progress for all students
Especially at-risk and disabled students
Requires supplemental educational services (tutoring) for struggling low-income students

A

No child left behind act

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63
Q

__ act’s purpose was establishing a clear and comprehensive prohibition of discrimination on the basis of disability”

A

ADA act

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64
Q

__ a person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activity

A

disability

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65
Q

____ any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomic loss affecting one or more of the body system

A

physical or mental impairment

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66
Q

__ making modifications at the job site or workplace that enable a person with disabilities to easily perform a specific job

A

reasonable accommodation

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67
Q

__ an action necessary to provide reasonable accommodations that would cause the employer/owner significant difficulty or expense

A

undue burden

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68
Q

a person who can perform the essential functions of a given job/activity with/without the benefit of reasonable accommodations

A

qualified individual with a disability

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69
Q

__ examples include an employer, employment agency, labor organization, state/local government

A

covered entity

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70
Q

__ a physical or attitudinal constraint that is imposed on a person, regardless of whether the person has an impairment, that places the person at a disadvantage

A

handicap

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71
Q

The __ oversees issues and interprets regulations

A

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

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72
Q

What are the 5 titles of the ADA?

A
  1. Employment
  2. Transportation
  3. Public Accommodations and Services
  4. Telecommunications
  5. Miscellaneous
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73
Q

Maximum sloe pf a ramp in new construction shall be? rise:run

A

1: 12

1” rise to 12” run

74
Q

The minimum clear width of a ramp shall be __

A

36 inches

75
Q

inches is the minimum width needed for an ambulatory person to pass a non-ambulatory or semi-ambulatory person. (to allow a person to walk past a person in a wheelchair, ramps should be ___ feet wide)
(notes) are Wheelchair-Ramps Inc. clarifications of the guidelines.

A

48”

4ft

76
Q

Door width __ minimum but __ preferred

A

32” min

36” preferred

77
Q

Bathroom ADA:
grab bar length on side?
grab bar behind toliet?

A 
bar = 42" min
behind = 36" min
78
Q

Doorway
min __ width
max __ depth

A

width: 32
depth: 24 inches

79
Q

Threshold

A

SD:

80
Q

carpet requires __ inch pile or less

A

1/2 inch

81
Q

hall way clearance __ width

A

36 inch

82
Q

Wheelchair turning radius __ width; __ length

A

60” w

78” length

83
Q

forward reach in wheelchair

low and high

A

low: 15”
high: 48”

84
Q

side reach in wheel chair

A

reach over obstruction to 24 niches

85
Q

bathroom sink not less than__ in height;
not greater than __ from floor to bottom of mirror or paper dispenser;
__ minimum depht under sink to back wall

A

29”
40”
17”

86
Q

__Wheel Drive Bases: fixed drive wheels in rear and casters in front ((when turning front moves first)

A

rear wheel drive bases

87
Q

__ Wheel Drive Bases: fixed drive wheels in center and small casters in front and rear of the chair, most common (turns from center)

A

center wheel drive bases

88
Q

__Wheel Drive Bases: fixed drive wheels in the front and casters in the rear (when turning back moves first)

A

front wheel drive bases

89
Q

__ frame: patient is high active with no need for postural supports used for sports

A

ultralight frame

90
Q

__ frame: patient is able to self propel using both UE; adequate LE ROM and sitting ability for comfortable seating

A

standard or lightweight frame

91
Q

__ frame: patient is able to self propel using LE’s

A

hemi frame

92
Q

__ frame: patient is able to self propel using 1 UE

A

one-hand drive frame

93
Q

__ frame: pt is able to self propel, but center of gravity is shifted posterior due to amputation

A

amputee frame

94
Q

__ wheel chair: patient is not able to self propel, but is able to safely operate a power mobility device; patient may have transfer, sitting and or UE functional limitations

A

power w/c

95
Q

__ chair” patinet is not able to self propel or safely operate a power mobility device; requires assistance for seated mobility

A

geri chair

96
Q

_ frame: patient is unable to preform weight shifting tasks and/or is unable to sit upright for extended periods, moderate to severe trunk involvement

A

reclining frame

97
Q

__ frame: patient is unable to sit upright or perform weight shifts, but also has issues with sliding or extensor tone

A

backward til-in-space frame

98
Q

w/c seat types (4)

A

sling seat
solid
cushions
molded

99
Q

Sling seat: hips tend to__. Thigh tends to __ and __.

Reinforces __ position

A

slide forward
adduct and IR
poor pelvic position (PPT)

100
Q

Solid seat provides __ pelvic position. Reduces tendency for patient to __ or sit with __

A

neutral Pelvic.

slide forward or PPT

101
Q

types of seat cushions? 3

A

Pressure-relieving contoured foam
Pressure-relieving fluid/gel or combination cushion (fluid/gel plus foam)
Pressure-relieving air cushion

102
Q

PRessure relieving __ Dense, layered foam
Accommodates moderate to severe postural deformity
Easy to reposition patient
Low maintenance
May interfere with slide transfers

A

Pressure-relieving contoured foam:

103
Q

PRessure relieveing __ Can be custom-molded
Accommodates moderate to severe postural deformity
Easy to reposition patient
Requires some maintenance
Heavier
More expensive

A

Pressure-relieving fluid/gel or combination cushion (fluid/gel plus foam):

104
Q 
PRessure relieving \_\_ Accommodates moderate to severe postural deformity
Lightweight
Improved pressure distribution
Expensive
Base may be unstable for some patients
Requires continuous maintenance
A

Pressure-relieving air cushion:

105
Q

__ seat not typically intended for long term use, pt requires no postural support.

A

sling

106
Q

__ seat: pt has not seated deformity

A

planar

107
Q

__ seat: not typically intended for long term use, pt requires no postural support.

A

curved

108
Q

__ seat pt requires customized seat support to correct for pelvic obliquity or a fixed asymmetrical deformity. (seen more with younger kids)

A

custom molded

109
Q

__ seat: wc must be able to fold

A

removable seat insert

110
Q

__ seat: undercut) front edge of seat: pt self-propels using LE’s.

A

beveled

111
Q

Back height __ inferior angle of scapula: pt able to self propel and has good trunk control.

A

below

112
Q

Back height __ inferior angle of scapula: pt either able to self propel but requires some spinal support or uses a power wc with or without poor trunk control

A

above

113
Q

Forward axle relative to COG:
__ stable
__ propulsion efficiency
__ RR

A

less
increased
decreased

114
Q

Posterior axle relative to COG:
__ stable
__ propulsion efficiency
__ RR

A

more
less
increased

115
Q

Elevating Leg rest: indicated with LE edema, postural support, contraindicated for pts with

A

knee flexor hypertonicity or tightness

116
Q

Arm rest types (5)

A 
Full length
Desk
Fixed height
Adjustable-height
Removable
117
Q

__ back: Elevating: indicated with LE edema, postural support, contraindicated for pts with

A

reclining back

118
Q

__ w/c:motorized, entire seat and back may be tipped backward with normal seat to back angle maintained; indicated for pts with extensor spasms or for pressure relief.

A

tilt in space

119
Q

__ device: Device: mechanical brake that allows chair to go forward, but automatically brakes when chair goes in reverse. Useful for pts who are unable to ascend long ramp or hill without rest.

A

hill-holder device

120
Q

Traction indications: 12

A 
Disk herniation or degeneration
Joint hypomobility
Muscle guarding
Muscle spasm (meniscoid blocking)
Narrowing of intervertebral foramen
Nerve root impingement
Osteophyte formation 
Joint disease
Spinal ligament and other connective tissue contractures
Subacute joint inflammation 
Subacute & chronic  pain
Discogenic pain
121
Q

Traction precautions: 7

A

Claustrophobia
Pressure of belts is hazardous: Hiatal hernia, pregnancy, vascular compromise, osteoporosis
Impaired cognition
Displaced annular fragment
Medial disc protrusion
Inability to tolerate prone or supine positions
TMJ with use of halter

122
Q

Traction Contraindications: 10

A 
Where motion is contraindicated
Acute injury or inflammation
Joint hypermobility or instability
Peripheralization of symptoms with traction
Uncontrolled hypertension
Spinal tumors and infection
Spondylolisthesis
Vertebral artery syndrome
Very young and very old
Osteoporosis (moderate to high levels)
123
Q

lumbar traction: force, hold/relax, time

  1. acute phase
  2. joint distraction
  3. decrease muscle spasm
  4. disc problems or stretch soft tissue
A
  1. 29-44lb; static; 5-10 min
  2. 50% BW; 15/15; 20-30min
  3. 25% BW; 5/5; 20-30 min
  4. 25% of BW; 60/20; 20-30min
124
Q

cervical traction: force, hold/relax, time

  1. acute phase
  2. joint distraction
  3. decrease muscle spasm
  4. disc problems or stretch soft tissue
A
  1. 7-9 lbs; static; 5-10 min
  2. 7% BW; 15/15; 20-30 min
  3. 11-15#; 5/5; 20-30min
  4. 11-15#; 60/20; 20-30 min
125
Q

Lumbar spine __% of pt body weight required to cause separation

A

50%

126
Q

Cervical region requires __%of body weight or about __lbs

A

7% or 20-30 lbs

127
Q

Reduction of disk protrusion: lumbar region __% of body weight, __lbs in cervical.

A

50%

12-15 lbs

128
Q

Soft tissue stretching & mm relaxation: lumbar __% of body weight, cervical __lbs.

A

25%

12-15#

129
Q

Joint mobilization low force __ traction.

A

intermittent

130
Q

CERVICAL: Intermittent can also be used for disk and jnt distraction with __ hold/rest.

Intermittent __ ratio when mobility is desired/jnt mobilization.

A

3: 1
1: 1

131
Q

LUMBAR: Intermittent can also be used for disk and jnt distraction with __hold/rest.

Intermittent__ ratio when mobility is desired/jnt mobilization.

A

3: 1
1: 1

132
Q 
Static vs. intermittent?
Symptoms caused by jnt dysfunction
Disk protrusion (longer hold time)
Muscle spasms
A

intermittent

133
Q

Static vs. intermittent?
Inflammation
Symptoms aggravated by motion
Disk protrusion

A

static

134
Q

Upper cervical: __ degrees of flexion.1 C1-C52
Midcervical: __ degrees of flexion.1
Lower cervical: __ degrees of flexion.1 25-30 degrees for C5-C72

A

0-5 degrees
10-20 degrees
25-35 degrees

135
Q

LUMBAR:
Supine greater separation of __ structures.
Prone for greater separation of __ structures and disk protrusions/herniations

A

posterior

anterior

136
Q

Increase intervertebral space at L5-S1 up to __ degrees of hip flexion.
L3-L4 up to __ degrees of hip flexion

A

45-60 degrees

75-90degrees

137
Q

indications for intermittent compression: 12

A 
Edema
Hypertrophic scarring
Lymphedema
New residual limb
Risk for deep vein thrombosis
Stasis Ulcers
Amputations
Decrease chronic edema
Post mastectomy lymphedema
Stasis ulcer
Venous insufficiency
Subacute injuries
138
Q

Contraindications for compression? 20

A 
Acute inflammation, trauma or fx
Acute DVT and thrombophlebitis
Obstructed lymph or venous return
Arterial disease/insufficiency
Arterial revascularization
Acute pulmonary edema
Diminished sensation
Cancer
Edema with cardiac or renal impairment
Impaired cognition
Infection in treatment area
Hypoproteinemia (
139
Q

__ Designed to outline a person’s wishes and preferences in regard to medical treatments and interventions.
When a patient is incapable of making his/her own medical decisions, a health-care proxy can act on the patient’s behalf to make decisions consistent with and based on the patient’s stated will.
Are important documents that should be included with each individual’s personal medical records. Generally fall into three categories: living will, power of attorney, and health-care proxy.

A

advanced directives

140
Q

__ written document that specifies what types of medical treatment are desired should the individual become incapacitated. Can be general or very specific.

A

living will

141
Q

More specific living wills may include information regarding an individual’s desire for such services such as

A

analgesia
antibiotics,
artificial (intravenous or IV) hydration,
artificial feeding (feeding tube),
CPR life-support equipment including ventilators, and
do not resuscitate (DNR).

142
Q

_ Legal document in which an person designates another person to make health-care decisions if he or she is rendered incapable of making his/her wishes known.

A

health-care proxy

143
Q

_ Allows an individual to make bank transactions, sign social security checks, apply for disability, or simply write checks to pay the utility bill while an individual is medically incapacitated.

A

durable power of attorney

144
Q

__ statistics: Describe the data collected
Summarize numerical details about a phenomenon of interest
Focus areas include incidence and prevalence of disease or disorder, characteristics of individuals with the problem and associated diagnostic and intervention utilization rates.

A

descriptive statistics

145
Q

__ the amount of variability in a data set expressed as a proportion of the mean

A

coefficient of variation

146
Q

__ the magnitude of the difference between two mean values may be standardized by dividing this difference by the pooled standard deviation to compare effects measured by diff scales

A

effect size

147
Q

__ the number of times a phenomenon or characteristic occurs

A

frequency

148
Q

__ a measure of the spread from one percentile division point to the next; may be used to indicate the variability around the median

A

inter-percentile range

149
Q

__ a measure that classified objects or characteristics to rank order with a known equal distance between categories but that lacks a known zero point

A

interval

150
Q

__ a measure that classifies objects or characteristics but that lacks rank order and a known equal distance between categories

A

nominal

151
Q

__ a measure that classifies objects or characteristics in rank order but that lack known distance between categories; may or may not have natural zero point

A

ordinal

152
Q

__ division point in the data, such as quartiles or tertiles, that are used to identify where a certain % of the scores lie

A

percentiles

153
Q

__a measure that classifies objects or characteristics in rank order with known equal distance between categories and a known zero point

A

ratio

154
Q

__ a distortion of the normal bell curve that occurs as the result of extreme scores in the data set

A

skew

155
Q

__ the average absolute distance of scores from the mean score of a data set

A

standard deviation

156
Q

__ the standard deviation of the diff between individual data points and the regression line through them

A

Standard error of estimate

157
Q

__ an estimate of the SD of the population of interest; indicates the degree of error associated with repeated samples from the population

A

standard error of mean

158
Q

__ the SD of measurement errors; obtained form repeated measures

A

standard error of measurement

159
Q

__ statistics: Help determine how likely the results of a study of a sample can be generalized to the whole population.2 (pg 489)
Estimates of population characteristics based on data from the subjects available for study.3 (pg 181)

A

inferential stats

160
Q

__ a threshold set by researchers used to determine if an observed relationship or difference between variables is real or the result of chance

A

alpha level

161
Q

__ the degree to which the chance of a positive outcome is increased as a result of an intervention; can be calculated in absolute or relative terms

A

benefit increase

162
Q

__ the probability that a statistical finding occurred due to chance

A

p value

163
Q

__ the proportion of individuals with the condition of interest that have a positive test result. “true positive”

A

sensitivity

164
Q

__ the proportion of individuals without the condition of interest who have a negative test result. “true negatives”

A

specificity

165
Q

Type __ error: result from statistical test that indicates a significant relationship or difference exists when one does not exist (false positive)

A

type I error

166
Q

Type __ error: result from statistical test that indicates a significant relationship or difference does not exists when in fact one exists

A

Type II error

167
Q

which test? to answer if there is a relationship between 2 variables (ration or interval)

A

Pearson Produce Moment

168
Q

what test? to answer the question is there a relationship between 3 or more variables?

A

multiple correlation

169
Q

Is there a difference between the two groups?

A

independent t test

170
Q

is there a difference within the same group?

A

paired T-test

171
Q

to answer the question is there a difference between to or more groups?

A

ANOVA

172
Q

compares frequencies of the variables

A

chi-squared

173
Q

__ graph used to show the magnitude or frequency of categories of the data. Data in each category are represented by vertical bars, with length of bars proportional to the magnitude or frequency of a vertical y-axix

A

bar graph

174
Q

__ Illustrates the distribution of values within a group through five numbers: minimum score, lower quartile, median, upper quartile and maximum score. Outliers are shown as circles.

A

box and whisker plot

175
Q

__Graphical display of data using dots.

A

dot plot

176
Q

__ It shows what elements are involved in the project from start to finish, where the production is supposed to be what point of time, and if the project is on schedule on or not.

A

gantt chart

177
Q

__Graphical display of a frequency distribution.
Displays the distribution of data by plotting the frequency (count or %) of observations (y-axis) for each interval represented on the x-axis.

A

histogram

178
Q

__graph Demonstrates the relationship between two or more quanitative variable. Usually have dependent variable on y-axis and independent on x-axis.
Shows trends in data over time.

A

line graph

179
Q

__ is a circular statistical graphic, which is divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportion. In apie chart, the arc length of each slice (and consequently its central angle and area), is proportional to the quantity it represents.

A

pie chart

180
Q

__ Graphical display that illustrates the relationship between two quantitative variables. Each paired (x,y) value is plotted on the graph as a singe point. Line of best fit generated mathematically may be fitted to the data to show the relationship among the variables.

A

scatter plot

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