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BIOL 2325 > quiz 5 > Flashcards

quiz 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three ways cells can communicate with each other

A

direct contact, local signaling, and long distance signaling

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2
Q

what are the three steps (in order) that target cells process the signal

A

reception, transduction, response

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3
Q

what is a ligand

A

the signaling molecule

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4
Q

Ligands bind to what on the target cell

A

receptor proteins

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5
Q

receptor proteins can be where in the cell

A

on the plasma membrane or within the cell

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6
Q

if the ligand is polar and hydrophillic, where will the receptor protein be on the target cell

A

on the plasma membrane/embedded in the plasma membrane

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7
Q

if the ligand is nonpolar and hydrophobic, where will the receptor protein be on the target cell

A

in the cytoplasm

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8
Q

how is communication between cells done through direct contact (in other words, describe direct contact communication)

A

molecules on surface of one cell are recognized by receptors on the adjacent cell. An example is gap junction

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9
Q

what is moved in between cells during direct contact . And do those molecules go through the plasma membrane? why or why not

A

ions and small molecules move through gap junctions and don’t go through the plasma membrane b/c they go through the gap junction

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10
Q

How does direct contact work with plants?

A

ions and small molecules move through the plasmodesmata

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11
Q

How is local signaling different from the other types of cell communication

A

local signaling is communication with nearby cells

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12
Q

what are the 3 types of local signaling

A

paracrine signaling, autocrine signaling, and synaptic signaling

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13
Q

describe paracrine signaling

A

signal released from secretory vesicle and diffuses through the extracellular fluid to the receptors of target cells.

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14
Q

what is autocrine signaling and where are the receptor proteins

A

cell communication by local signaling where the target cell is itself and the receptor proteins are on itself

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15
Q

what is synaptic signaling

A

electrical signal triggers release of neurotransmitters to a adjacent neuron

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16
Q

what is the area where the target neuron in synaptic signaling called

A

synapse

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17
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction and what type of local signaling is it

A

the synapse between a neuron and its muscle fiber and its synaptic signaling

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18
Q

in long distance signaling, what is another term for the ligand

A

hormone

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19
Q

in animals, long distance signaling travels through what

A

circulatory system, through the blood

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20
Q

in plants, hormones are in what form and travel through what medium and to what

A

gases through the air to target tissue

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21
Q

what is reception, also are receptors specific? and specific to what?

A

the binding of a signal molecule with a SPECIFIC receptor on a target cell. Receptors are specific to signal molecules

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22
Q

name an example of a polar signal molecule/ligand

A

epinephrine

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23
Q

name an example of a non polar signal molecule/ligand

A

steroid hormones

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24
Q

what is transduction

A

the events within a cell that occur in response to a signal. Changes signal into a form that causes a cellular response

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25
Q

what is the first thing that happens to the receptor when the ligand/initial signal activates it

A

the receptor undergoes conformation change

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26
Q

what is initiated thanks to the receptor protein changing when activated

A

a signaling cascade

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27
Q

what is response

A

transduced signal causes a specific cellular response

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28
Q

what 2 factors change the type of response a cell will do

A

the signal and the receptors on the target cell

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29
Q

what did we find out in sutherland’s work

A

response was activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase

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30
Q

when the ligand binds to the receptor protein, does the ligand undergo a conformation change

A

no

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31
Q

are receptors specific

A

yes

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32
Q

do receptors only bind to one type of signal molecule

A

yes and sometimes to a closely related group of signal molecules

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33
Q

does the receptor ligand complex directly or indirectly interact with a whole host of other signaling molecules within the cell

A

both directly or indirectly

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34
Q

what allows cells to react separately to hormones and growth factors circulating in extracellular fluids

A

the fact that different cell types contain distinct combinations of receptors

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35
Q

is the combination of surface receptors on cell types fixed?

A

no, it changes as cells develop

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36
Q

are there changes when normal cells transform into cancer cells?

A

yes

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37
Q

what are the 3 subclasses of membrane receptors and describe each of them

A

channel linked receptors- ion channel that opens in response to a ligand
Enzymatic receptors- receptor is an enzyme that is activated by the ligand
G protein couple receptor GPCR- a g protein that assists in transmitting the signal, also is bounded to GTP

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38
Q

name an example of an enzymatic receptor

A

receptor tyrosine kinase

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39
Q

what are the two types of G proteins and what are the difference and simliarities

A

Ras and Trimeric G protein
Ras is monomeric while Trimeric has 3 subunits, alpha beta and gama
both of them bind GTP in their active form and bind GDP in inactive form

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40
Q

Guanine nucleotide in GTP binds to which subunit in trimeric g protein

A

alpha subunit

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41
Q

explain the name GPCR

A

there is a receptor that binds to the g protein (either trimeric or ras)

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42
Q

what turns on the g protein

A

the receptor attached to it

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43
Q

An activated G-protein activates what and is it membrane bounded

A

an effector protein, usually an enzyme, that is membrane bounded

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44
Q

what is the first messenger usually

A

the ligand/signal molecule

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45
Q

how does a G protein change from attaching a GDP to GTP?

A

GDP is kicked off and GTP binds to the activated G protein

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46
Q

What happens to the GTP bound subunit after being activated by the ligand

A

it breaks off and binds to the plasma membrane associated enzyme, aka the effector

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47
Q

How does the G-protein subunit inactivate itself

A

by hydrolyzing GTP to GDP

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48
Q

what does the activated effector generate

A

nonprotein signal molecules called second messengers

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49
Q

Are second messengers proteins?

A

no

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50
Q

second messengers directly/indirectly activate what

A

protein kinases

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51
Q

what do protein kinases do in transduction

A

they initiate a cellular response by phosphorylating specific target proteins

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52
Q

what happens to the beta and gamma subunits after detaching from the alpha subunit

A

it binds itself to the plasma membrane and goes away

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53
Q

are second messengers signaling molecules

A

yes

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54
Q

what is the common single cell model used for cell cycle research

A

Saccharomyces Cerevisiae or S. Cerevisiae

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55
Q

why is S. Cerevisiae a good model organisms for cell cycle research (4)

A

because it has many cells that can be easily visualized
cell cycle can be paused at a specific phase
all cells can be synchronized at one phase
mutations are easily generated

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56
Q

what are the two irreversible points of the cell cycle

A

replication of genetic material and separation of the sister chromatids

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57
Q

what are checkpoints

A

places where the cell cycle can be put on hold to check for accuracy
can be halted if there are errors

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58
Q

what allows cells to respond to internal and external signals

A

checkpoints

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59
Q

what are the 3 checkpoints in cellc cylce

A

G1/S
G2/M
Mitotic spindle checkpoint

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60
Q

what do we do to checkpoints to proceed the cell cycle

A

we have to inactivate the checkpoint

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61
Q

Which checkpoint is the primary point for external signal influence

A

G1/S checkpoint

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62
Q

which checkpoint does the cell “decide” to divide

A

G1/S

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63
Q

Which checkpoint assesses the success of DNA replication

A

G2/M

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64
Q

which checkpoint makes the commitment to mitosis

A

G2/M

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65
Q

What is another name for the mitotic spindle checkpoint

A

Late metaphase checkpoint

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66
Q

Which checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the spindle

A

spindle checkpoint

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67
Q

is the cell cycle a true cycle and what is a true cycle

A

yes and it means it is not reversible

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68
Q

is the cell cycle under genetic control

A

yes

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69
Q

when are genes transcribed when their products are needed

A

during the cell cycle right before theyre needed

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70
Q

what has helped identify the key regulatory pathways

A

mutations

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71
Q

What can arrest a cell at the G1/S checkpoint (2)

A

DNA is damaged by radiation or chemicals

if the cell is nutritionally deficient or growth factors are absent

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72
Q

what can deactivate the G1/S checkpoint if the reason for its arrests is DNA damage

A

DNA is repaired then the cycle starts again

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73
Q

When can a cell be arrested in G2/M

A

DNA was not replicated accurately in S phase or DNA damage by chemicals or radiation

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74
Q

What is assessed at the Mitotic spindle checkpoint

A

whether chromosomes are attached properly to the mitotic spindle so that they align correctly at the metaphase plate

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75
Q

Once the cell begins anaphase it is _____ _____ to completing M

A

irreversibly committed

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76
Q

What protein and enzyme (respectively) are involved in the internal control system of cell cycle

A

cyclins and Cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs)

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77
Q

When are Cdk enzymes active

A

when it is bound to cyclin

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78
Q

when does a cdk become inactive

A

when the cyclin binded to it is degraded

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79
Q

Phosphorylation regulates proteins that do what in cell cycle

A

initiate or regulate key events in cell cycle (DNA replication, mitosis and cytokinesis)

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80
Q

what cyclin and CDK is in G1/S and when does it bind to each other. Also this regulates the transition from what phase to what

A

G1/S cyclin binds to CDK2 near the end of G1. required for transition from G1 to S and to commit DNA replication

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81
Q

What cyclin and CDK is in s phase and what is it required for

A

S cyclin binds to CDK2 and is required for initiation of DNA replication and progression of the cell through S

82
Q

what cyclin and CDK is in G2 and is required to transiton from what phase to what phase

A

M cyclin binds to CDK1 and transition from G2 to M

83
Q

what CDK does G1 cyclin bind to before the G1/S transition and how many cyclin-CDK complexes does it form. Also what are these complexes used for

A

CDK4 and CDK6 and 2 cyclin-CDK complexes. They are needed to move the cell through the G1 checkpoint and proceed from G1 to S

84
Q

What is another name for M cyclin-CDK 1 complex called

A

M phase-promoting factor (MPF)

85
Q

MPF activates which enzyme and when does it happen

A

when chromosomes are correctly attached to the mitotic spindle, MPF activates anaphase promoting complex (APC)

86
Q

what does activated APC do

A

degrades an inhibitor of anaphase which leads to separation of sister chromatids, and later APC degrades M cyclin, causing CDK1 to lose activity

87
Q

when does the G1/S cyclin fully degrade? (in what phase) When does it bind together to make the cdk complex

A

S phase and it is binded in the G1 phase

88
Q

when is the S cyclin-CDK complex formed and when is the cyclin completely degraded

A

is formed at the G1/S checkpoint or at the beginning of S-phase and degrades in G2

89
Q

when is the M cyclin-cdk complex made (in what phase) and when is the cyclin completely degraded

A

formed in late S phase and degrades in Mitosis

90
Q

What are CDKs

A

cyclin dependent kinases. Enzymes that phosphorylate proteins

91
Q

What is the primary mechanism of cell cycle control, or what drives the cell cycle?

A

CDKs

92
Q

What controls CDK

A

phosphorylation

93
Q

does phosphorylation activate or inactivate CDK

A

both. CDK has 2 sites for phosphorylation, one site for activating it and one site that inactivates it

94
Q

Desccribe Johnson and Rao’s experiment and its result

A

Fused 2 different HeLa cells at different stages of the cell cycle,G1 and S and G1 with M. Results show that the G1 cell quickly moved onto the stage of the other cell which proves molecules in the cytoplasm control the cell cycle.

95
Q

Name some external controls for cell growth

A

peptide hormones and growth factors

96
Q

Reactions triggered by the activated receptor of a cell may ___ ____ or ___ the progress of cell divison

A

speed, slow, or stop

97
Q

What is contact inhibition

A

The cell surface receptors on cells recognize contact with other cells and will inhibit division

98
Q

Contact inhibition causes cells to be shunted into what phase? And how would they recover out of this stage

A

G0 and will divide once contact with other cells are broken

99
Q

Which cell responds to a greater variety of external signals, animal cells or yeasts

A

animal cells

100
Q

More complex control means more CDKs in eukaryotic cells which means more what?

A

input into control of the cycle, basically more control

101
Q

what is cancer’s most basic definition

A

uncontrolled cell division

102
Q

what is a tumor

A

rapidly growing mass of cells

103
Q

what is metastasis

A

when cancer cells spread throughout the body and produce new tumors in other regions

104
Q

Metastasis is promoted by what? (3)

A

changes that block contact inhibition
alter cell surface molecules that link cells together
accumulation of mutated genes

105
Q

mutated genes for components of the cyclin/CDK system leads to what

A

cancer

106
Q

what are oncogenes

A

mutated form of genes

107
Q

describe Gorbsky experiement and its results

A

Gorbsky died a portion of the kinetochore microtubules and during anaphase the dyed segment didn’t move which mean the the chromosomes were moving by sliding along the microtubule

108
Q

what did gorbsky’s experiment prove

A

kinteochore microtubules are not pulling the cohesin protein apart

109
Q

mitosis evolved from what?

A

binary fission

110
Q

T/F phosphorylation only activates proteins

A

false, it can inactivate proteins

111
Q

what is the difference between kinase and phosphatase

A

kinase adds a phosphate to a protein from ATP

Phosphatase removes a phosphate from a protein

112
Q

What are the two classes of kinases we need to know for protein phosphorylation? With kinase, what is removed and what is attached

A

Ser/Thr kinase and Tyrosine kinase. The alcohol group is removed and a phosphate group is added

113
Q

do kinases in a phosphorylation cascade catalyze phosphorylation of another kinase?

A

yes

114
Q

in a phosphorylation cascade, is the prior protein kinase deactivated by donating its phosphate group to the next protein kinase?

A

no, it stays active

115
Q

what is it called for the last protein in a phosphorylation cascade

A

target protein

116
Q

what does cAMP stand for and it is derived from what

A

cyclic AMP that is derived from ATP

117
Q

what is the effector that produced cAMP

A

adenyl cyclase

118
Q

does cAMP diffuse through cytoplasm or stay attached to the membrane

A

diffuse through the cytoplasm

119
Q

What does IP3 and DAG stand

A

inositol triphosphate and diacylglycerol

120
Q

what is the effector that produced IP3 and DAG and how does it make those second messengers

A

phospholipase C and it makes IP3 and DAG by breaking down a membrane phopholipid

121
Q

is IP3 water soluble? does it diffuse through the cytoplasm?

A

yes and yes

122
Q

is DAG hydrophobic? Where does it stay

A

yes its hydrophobic and it remains and functions in the plasma membrane

123
Q

is cAMP found in animals and fungi? is it found in plants? if so what is its function

A

yes and yes and yes and its for germination or defensive responses in plants

124
Q

what are some cellular responses that cAMP controls (5)

A 
uptake and oxidation of glucose
glycogen breakdown or synthesis
ion transport 
transport of amino acids into cell
cell division
125
Q

Glucagon triggers a ___ receptor in what organ and what is the response

A

glucagon triggers a cAMP receptor in liver cells which stimulates them to break down glycogen into glucose units

126
Q

which protein kinase does cAMP activate

A

protein kinase A

127
Q

which second messenger pathway are universal among eukaryotic organisms

A

IP3/DAG second messenger pathway

128
Q

what kind of responses does the IP3/DAG pathway control?(4)

A

sugar and ion transport
glucose oxidation
cell growth and division
smooth muscle contraction

129
Q

in (animal or plant) cells, IP3 activates transport proteins in the (what organelle) that release (what ion) into the cytoplasm, which activates a protein kinase cascade

A

in animal cells, IP3 activate transport proteins in the ER that release Ca2+ into the cytoplasm which activates a protein kinase cascade.

130
Q

how does phospholipase C make DAG and IP3

A

cleaves membrane phospholipid PIP2 to produce IP3 and DAG

131
Q

What is the target protein in the IP3/DAG pathway and which second messengers directly activate it

A

protein kinase C is activated by DAG and Ca2+

132
Q

can different receptors produce the same second messengers ? if so name an example

A

yes, epinephrine and glucagon

133
Q

describe the signal transduction pathway of epinephrine and glucagon

A

both ligands attach to the GPCR on the surface of the cell and activates the Gprotein to bind to GTP and activate adenyl cyclase to make cAMP from ATP
cAMP binds to protein kinase A then phosphorylates phosphorylase kinase which phosphorylates glycogen phosphorylase which phosphorylases glycogen to glucose 6 phosphate

134
Q

describe sutherlands experiemental research and its results

A

centrifuges liver tissue with the pellet containing the cell membrane and the cytoplasm After adding epinephrine we found a second messenger produced then adding the supernatant, active glycogen phosphorylase was detected. Results show enzyme activation did not directly involve epinephrine but required another cellular factor (the second messenger)

135
Q

What is part of a bacterial 2 component signaling

A

surface receptor protein and intracellular response regulator

136
Q

what are the steps of bacterial 2 component signaling (3)

A

signaling molecule binds and activates surface receptor
surface receptor phosphorylates and activates response regulator
response regulator binds to regulatory sequences in DNA which turns genes on and off

137
Q

did cell signaling exist in unicellular organisms?(before multicellularity)

A

yes

138
Q

what is quorum sensing and what kind of cells have it

A

bacteria release signal molecules in increasing concentration as cell density increases and each cell then responds to adapt to changing environment

139
Q

how does sexual mating occur in unicellular eukaryote

A

sexual mating begins when one cell secretes hormone that is recognized by a cell of different “sex”

140
Q

when did protein kinases appear in cell communication?

A

after eukaryotes evolved

141
Q

what does a pathway for cell growth control between a fruit fly (drosophilia) and a human indicate?

A

this pathway is at least 800 million years old

142
Q

Mickey hayes and Fransie Geringer had what disease?

A

Progeria

143
Q

children with progeria die at an old age of what

A

13

144
Q

what is the cause of progeria

A

error in gene lamin A

145
Q

what is lamin A and where is it

A

lamin protein that reinforces inner surface of nuclear envelope in animal cells

146
Q

what animal did Thomas Hunt Morgan cultivate to study genetics

A

drosophila melanogaster or fruit flies

147
Q

what was discovered in the fly room

A

sex linked genes and sex linkage

148
Q

what animal was chosen to be the model for the human genome project

A

fruit flies

149
Q

What is true breeding

A

breeding between a homozygous dominant and homo recessive

150
Q

what were the dominant and recessive phenotypes in fruit flies

A

dominant was red eyes with normal wings and recessive were purple eyes and vestigial wings

151
Q

what is a testcross

A

breeding between a homozygous recessive and a suspected heterozygous

152
Q

in a testcross with Morgan’s fruit flies, what were the results and from those results what can we determine

A

an higher amount of parental phenotypes in F2 and lower number of recombinants when the expected outcomes were 25% of each combination. These results show that there is gene linkage in genes on the same chromosome and the distance from each other

153
Q

what is genetic recombination

A

2 homologs of nonsister chromatids exchange segments during meiosis

154
Q

what is the relationship of frequency of recombination and distance

A

more recombination frequency means theres more distance between the genes

155
Q

what does progeny mean

A

offspring

156
Q

Pr+ pr vg+ vg, how many different types of gametes can be produced. How many chromosomes is given?

A

4 different types of gametes, 2 chromosomes and diploid

157
Q

how do you calculate recombination frequency

A

(recombinants/total progeny)*100= percent

158
Q

what is a linkage map

A

shows relative locations of genes

159
Q

what are the two units for linkage map and what is it equivalent to in terms of recombination frequency

A

map unit (mu) and centimorgan(cM) and 1 mu=1 cM= 1% recombination frequency

160
Q

can we still show linkage between genes that are widely separated and show a high recombination frequency? if so, how?

A

yes, we find the recombination frequency of a gene inbetween them

161
Q

what does it mean for gene to assort independently

A

when genes are so likely to undergo recombination

162
Q

T/F some of the genes Mendel studied assort independently, even though they are on the same chromosome

A

true

163
Q

what are the three most common modes of inheritance

A

autosomal recessive, autosomal dominant, x linked recessive

164
Q

how many autosomes do humans have

A

22

165
Q

pedigree analysis is used to track what?

A

inheritance patterns in families

166
Q

is juvenile glaucoma dominant or recessive? Also what is juvenile glaucoma

A

dominant and disease that causes degeneration of optic nerve leading to blindness

167
Q

name 3 important things in a dominant pedigree

A

Heterozygotes exhibit the affected phenotype
males and females are equally affected and may transmit the trait
affected phenotype does not skip generation

168
Q

is achondroplasia an autosomal dominant or recessive trait and describe the disease

A

dominant and its dwarfism (lack cartilage formation)

169
Q

name 3 important things in a recessive pedigree

A

Heterozygotes exhibit the affected phenotype
males and females are equally affected and may transmit the trait
may skip generation

170
Q

what is the difference between affected and carrier

A

affected has 2 recessive genes and shows the phenotype while carrier does not show the phenotype

171
Q

is albinism recessive or dominant

A

recessive and cannot produce melanin

172
Q

can affected individuals of recessive genes have unaffected parents

A

yes, both would be carriers

173
Q

is PKU a recessive or dominant trait and what is PKU

A

phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive trait and its when the bodies build up amino acid phenylalanine

174
Q

what are other modes of inheritance that are not common (3)

A

x linked dominant, y linked, mitochondiral

175
Q

what are sex linked genes

A

genes located on sex chromosome

176
Q

females have how many copies of the x chromosome? forming a ____ pair

A

2 copies forming a homologous XX pair

177
Q

males have how many x and y chromosomes, which means they have an __ combination

A

1 copy of X and 1 copy of Y so an XY combination

178
Q

what is a homogametic sex

A

XX females produce only one type of gamete (X)

179
Q

what is a heterogametic sex

A

XY males produce two types of gametes (X and Y)

180
Q

what happens when a sperm carrying an X chromosomes fertilizes an X bearing egg cell

A

individual develops into an XX female

181
Q

what happens when a sperm carrying an Y chromosome fertilizes an X bearing egg cell

A

individual develops into an XY male

182
Q

what is sex linkage

A

alleles on sex chromosomes

183
Q

Ducheene muscular dystrophy is an X linked ___ trait. What would this pedigree look like

A

x linked recessive trait, and the pedigree could skip female generations and mostly affect males

184
Q

enamel hypoplasia is an X linked ___ trait, what would this pedigree look like

A

x linked dominant trait, and this pedigree would affect a female every generation

185
Q

which gene on the y chromosome determines human sex

A

SRY gene

186
Q

in early embryonic development, are the reproductive organs different in XX and XY embryos

A

no, they are the same

187
Q

when the SRY gene is active, what is developed

A

testes

188
Q

hormones from testes do what to female structures and to male structures

A

degenerate tissues for female structures and develop tissues for male strucutres

189
Q

what are chromosomal mutations

A

changes in chromosome structure or chromosome number

190
Q

What are the 4 possible changes in chromosome structure and describe each of them

A

Deletion- segment lost from chromosome
duplication- segment is broken from one chromosome and inserted into its homolog, adding to the ones already there
(Reciprocal)Translocation- segment is attached to a different non-homolog
inversion-segment reattaches in a reversed orientation

191
Q

what is nondisjunction

A

failure of homologous pairs to separate during the first meiotic division or chromatids in the second meiotic division

192
Q

what is the difference between euploids and aneuploids

A

euploids are individuals with a normal set of chromosomes and aneuploids are individuals with extra or missing chromosome

193
Q

nondisjunction in meiosis 1 leads to daughter cells with what ploidy

A

2 cells with n+1 and 2 cells with n-1

194
Q

nondisjunction in meiosis 2 leads to daughter cells with what ploidy

A

2 cells with n, 1 cell with n+1 and 1 cell with n-1

195
Q

down syndrome aka?

A

trisomy 21, extra copy of chromosome 21

196
Q

downs primarily occurs in what gender and increases with what

A

female and increases with maternal age

197
Q

what is the easiest way to diagnose downs syndrome

A

a karyotype is taken to see the chromosomes

198
Q

what is a consanguineous marriage and how is it represented in a pedigree

A

marriage between first cousins, double lines on pedigree

199
Q

is DAG hydrophobic or hydrophillic

A

hydrophobic

200
Q

connexon proteins is affiliated with what type of signaling

A

direct contact

BIOL 2325 (9 decks)

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